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EXAM Review

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ONPG (ortho-nitrophenyl-BETA-D-galactopyranoside) test should be used to determine what?

a)

catalase activity

b)

separation late lactose fermenter from lactose negative bacteria

c)

bile solubility

d)

oxidase production

2.

Which of the following substance produced by Group A Streptococci is responsible for producing type specific immunity:

a)

Streptolysin O

b)

Streptolysin S

c)

M Antigen

d)

T Antigen

3.

Which are true statement regarding hospital- associated meth-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and community associated MRSA?

a)

Resistance for both strains is conferred by the mecA gene

b)

HA strain tend to demonstrate resistance to more drug classes than CA strains

c)

CA tends to be associated with PVL gene and skin and soft tissue infections

d)

All of the above

4.

On sheep blood agar Haemophilus influenzae may exhibit satellite formation may exhibit satellite formation around all but which of the following organisms:

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Neisseria

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Pneumococcus

5.

Which bacterial species is a common agent of neonatal bacteremia?

a)

Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Listeria monocytogenes

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Enterococcus faecium

6.

Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be the breakdown products of:

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

monocytes

d)

lymphocytes

7.

Which of the following sugars has been fermented by a gram-negative rod that has produced an alkaline slant and an acid butt on triple sugar iron agar (TSI) ?

a)

lactose

b)

sucrose

c)

glucose

d)

glucose and sucrose

8.

Which of the following species or organisms is the most likely to be the cause of mycotic keratitis (fungal eye infection)?

a)

Fusarium species

b)

Trichophyton rubrum

c)

Scedosporium apiospermum

d)

Aspergillus niger

9.

Which of the following are not considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Lactobacillus

b)

Clostridium

c)

Peptostreptococcus

d)

Shigella

10.

Which hemoglobin, when elevated, acts as a protection against sickling in patients with HbS?

a)

Hemoglobin A2

b)

Hemoglobin C

c)

Hemoglobin F

d)

Hemoglobin G

11.

An increased serum level of which of the following analytes is MOST commonly associated with decreased glomerular filtration?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Uric acid

c)

Urea

d)

Ammonia

12.

Which of the following cardiovascular risk markers is a more sensitive version of a test that is used to assess inflammation?

a)

Oxidized-LDL

b)

hs-CRP

c)

ApoB/ApoA1

d)

LpPLA2

13.

In a normal CSF the protein concentration as compared to that in the plasma is generally:

a)

Less than 50%

b)

Less than 30%

c)

Less than 10%

d)

Less than 1%

14.

This of the following electrolytes is most likely to be spuriously elevated in a hemolyzed specimen:

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

d)

BUN

15.

A microscopic examination of normal urine pH 8.0 shows 2+ yellow-brown thorny spheres which are MOST probably:

a)

ammonium biurate crystal

b)

ampicillin crystal

c)

amorphous urate crystal

d)

crenated red cell

16.

Which one of the following cardiac biomarkers could detect a reinfarction?

a)

cTnI

b)

cTnT

c)

TnC

d)

CK-MB

17.

Which of the following lipid tests is LEAST affected by the fasting status of the patient?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Fatty acids

d)

Lipoproteins

18.

Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility?

a)

Albumin

b)

Alpha globulins

c)

Beta globulins

d)

Gamma globulins

19.

Which of the following is the most common technique that is used by clinical laboratories for therapeutic drug monitoring?

a)

Immunoassay

b)

Electrophoresis

c)

Atomic absorption

d)

Ion selective electrode voltimetry

20.

In the condition kernicterus, the abnormal accumulation of bilirubin occurs in what tissue?

a)

Brain

b)

Liver

c)

Kidney

d)

Blood

21.

Which of these white blood cell populations would have the MOST side scatter when analyzed using flow cytometry?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Granulocytes

d)

Neutrophil

22.

Which of these blood levels will increase during intravascular hemolysis?

a)

Serum (plasma) LDH

b)

Serum (plasma) bilirubin

c)

Reticulocytes

d)

All of the above

23.

Auer rods may be seen in blasts of all the following condition EXCEPT:

a)

Acute Myelomonocytic (M4)

b)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (L1,L2,L3)

c)

Acute myelocytic leukemia (M1,M2)

d)

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

24.

A few dark blue staining granular inclusion located near the periphery of an erythrocyte are most likely:

a)

Pappenheimer bodies

b)

Howell-Jolly bodies

c)

Heinz bodies

d)

Basophilic stippling

25.

Which of the following statements describe an eosinophil EXCEPT:

a)

Cytoplasm contains large purple/blue-staining granules.

b)

May be called an "eo"

c)

Is a member of the granulocyte series

d)

Cytoplasm contains large reddish-orange granules

26.

Which FAB designation is called the "true" monocytic leukemia and is characterized by monoblasts, promonocytes, and monocytes?

a)

FAB Ml

b)

FAB M3

c)

FAB M4

d)

FAB M5

27.

All of the following are characteristic findings in patients with iron deficiency anemia EXCEPT:

a)

microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology

b)

decreased serum iron level

c)

decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)

d)

decreased ferritin

28.

A deficiency in which of these vitamins leads to increased clotting time and may result in hemorrhagic disease?

a)

Riboflavin

b)

Pyridoxine

c)

Tocopherols

d)

Vitamin K

29.

Which of the following factors is not involved in the initial contact phase of the intrinsic pathway?

a)

Factor Xll

b)

Fitzgerald Factor

c)

Fletcther Factor

d)

Factor X

30.

The M:E ratio in chronic myelocytic leukemia is usually:

a)

Normal

b)

High

c)

Low

d)

Variable

31.

The cytokine most important for increased macrophage cell activity is:

a)

Interferon gamma

b)

Interleukin 3

c)

Interleukin 4

d)

Interleukin 5

32.

What sero- marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage?

a)

HBc antibody

b)

HBc total

c)

HBs antigen

d)

HBs antibody

33.

The prozone effect (when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in:

a)

False positive

b)

False negative

c)

No reaction at all

d)

Mixed field reaction

34.

Which of the following CD marker is NOT present on a normal mature T cell?

a)

CD20

b)

CD7

c)

CD3

d)

CD5

35.

Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is chiefly responsible for the degranulation of mast cells and basophils:

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

36.

Which of the following assays is routinely used for confirmation of HIV infections?

a)

Southern blot

b)

Western blot

c)

In-situ hybridization

d)

Radioimmunoassay

37.

The serum hemolytic complement level (CH50):

a)

Provides the same information as a serum factor B level

b)

Is a measure of total complement activity

c)

Is detectable when any component of the classical system is congenitally absent

d)

Can be calculated from the serum concentration of the individual components

38.

Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

C4,C2,C3

d)

C5,C6,C7,C8,C9

39.

Which one of the following would not be considered an anatomic barrier of the innate immune system?

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

Tears and Saliva

c)

Low pH

d)

Mucous Membrane

40.

Which of the following Rh antigens is found in the Caucasian population:

a)

C

b)

E

c)

c

d)

e

41.

Why is RhIG administered within 72 hours of delivery or miscarriage to an Rh-negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak D positive?

a)

prevent future children from producing antibodies

b)

prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

c)

prevent antibody response in a previously sensitized mother

d)

neutralized any natural maternal antibodies present

42.

Most antibodies present in cord blood are of what origin?

a)

fetal

b)

maternal

c)

paternal

d)

maternal and paternal

43.

Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies?

a)

Fresh Frozen Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

Cryoprecipitate

d)

Whole Blood

44.

In an extreme emergency, if the ABO and Rh type are unknown which of the following should be given to the patient?

a)

Group O, Rh positive blood

b)

Group AB, Rh negative blood

c)

Group O, Rh negative blood

d)

Any blood type is OK

45.

For which of the following antibodies is the DAT most likely to be negative when testing a newborn for possible HDFN?

a)

anti-A

b)

anti-c

c)

anti-D

d)

anti-K

46.

Which of the following groups of antibodies generally reacts most strongly at 40 C?

a)

Anti-A, Anti-P1 , Anti-Leb , Anti-M

b)

Anti-B, Anti-K, Anti-Lua , Anti-Fya

c)

Anti-H, Anti-S, Anti-Jkb , Anti-Leb

d)

Anti-A, Anti-K, Anti-Lub , Anti-s

47.

Of the following blood group antibodies, which has been most frequently associated with severe cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

a)

anti-A,B

b)

anti-Lea

c)

anti-K

d)

anti-Jka

48.

Your screen cells are 3+ at immediate spin and weak (W)+ at AHG. Your auto control is negative for both phases. Some of your antibody panel cells are 3+ at immediate spin and negative at AHG. What should you suspect?

a)

A warm autoantibody is present

b)

A cold antibody may be present

c)

Bad specimen draw

d)

Report the result

49.

Bacterial contamination is MOST likely in which of the following blood products?

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

Red Blood Cells Frozen

c)

Platelets

d)

Fresh Frozen Plasma

50.

Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite?

a)

Proteus

b)

Escherichia

c)

Klebsiella

d)

Rickettsiae