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RAD 112 Final Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A dorsoplantar projection would be a radiographic study of:
a)
any anatomic region
b)
the hand
c)
the foot
d)
the skull
2.
A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ plane
a)
horizontal
b)
oblique
c)
midsagittal
d)
midcoronal
3.
A random disturbance that obscures or reduces clarity is termed
a)
noise
b)
variance
c)
electrical fluctuation
d)
signal
4.
Name the following CT image orientation:
a)
coronal
b)
sagittal
c)
transverse/axial
d)
posterior
5.
The radiographic term projection is defined as:
a)
general position of the patient.
b)
the path of direction of the central ray.
c)
computer-assisted image.
d)
radiographic image as seen from the vantage of the image receptor.
6.
Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?
a)
Epiphyses
b)
Diaphysis
c)
Articular cartilage
d)
Metaphysis
7.
Which of the following is NOT an ALARA concept?
a)
Use optimal kV techniques.
b)
Always wear a personnel dosimeter.
c)
Have older technologists rather than younger technologists hold patients.
d)
Collimate when feasible.
8.
A well-inspired healthy adult chest PA projection will have a minimum of ____ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm
a)
7
b)
8
c)
10
d)
12
9.
Why is the right kidney usually lower in the abdomen than the left kidney?
a)
Presence of right suprarenal gland
b)
Presence of the stomach
c)
Presence of the liver
d)
Presence of right colic flexure
10.
Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
a)
Hamate
b)
Lunate
c)
Trapezium
d)
Scaphoid
11.
The AP humerus requires that the humeral epicondyles are _____ to the IR.
a)
parallel
b)
slightly oblique
c)
perpendicular
d)
set at 45 degree angle
12.
How many separate bones are found in the adult human body?
a)
210
b)
206
c)
212
d)
220
13.
The medial bone of the forearm is the:
a)
Ulna
b)
Tibia
c)
Radius
d)
Humerus
14.
How many tarsal bones are found in the foot?
a)
26
b)
7
c)
14
d)
5
15.
Which tendon attaches directly to the tibial tuberosity?
a)
Patellar
b)
Collateral
c)
Quadriceps
d)
Soleus
16.
A radiograph of an AP pelvis reveals that the right iliac wing is foreshortened as compared with the left side. What specific positioning problem is present on this radiograph?
a)
Right rotation
b)
Left rotation
c)
Incorrect centering or rotation
d)
Right tilt
17.
The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the hip localization method are the:
a)
ASIS and the symphysis pubis.
b)
ASIS and the crest of ilium.
c)
symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter.
d)
ischial spine and the symphysis pubis.
18.
The most posterior aspect of a typical vertebra is the:
a)
pedicle
b)
lamina
c)
body
d)
spinous process
19.
The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the vertebral level of:
a)
L1-L2
b)
L3-L4 intervertebral spae
c)
L4-L5 intervertebral space
d)
lower L5
20.
The zygapophyseal joints for the typical cervical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.
a)
45°
b)
60°
c)
70° to 75°
d)
 90°
21.
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine?
a)
RPO
b)
Lateral 
c)
LPO
d)
RAO
22.
The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.
a)
 45°
b)
 90°
c)
70° to 75°
d)
30° to 35°
23.

Which of the following bones is part of the floor of the cranium?

a)

Temporal

b)

Occipital

c)

Frontal

d)

Parietal

24.

How many bones make up the facial bone region?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

14

25.

Which cranial bone articulates with all the other cranial bones?

a)

Parietal

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Sphenoid

d)

None of the above

26.

Which of the following landmarks corresponds with the level of the petrous ridge?

a)

EAM

b)

Top of ear attachment (TEA)

c)

Squamosal Structure

d)

Inion

27.

An average-shaped skull with a 47° angle between the petrous pyramids and the midsagittal plane is classified as:

a)

mesocephalic

b)

brachycephalic.

c)

dolichocephalic.

d)

morphocephalic.

28.

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital roofs (plates) are not superimposed—one is slightly superior to the other. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome?

a)

Rotation

b)

Tilt

c)

Excessive flexion

d)

Excessive extension

29.

Which of the following terms describes the junction of the two nasal bones?

a)

Nasion

b)

Acanthion

c)

Glabella

d)

Supraorbital groove

30.

Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?

a)

Maxilla

b)

Ethmoid

c)

Temporal

d)

Zygomatic

31.

The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen.

a)

LLQ

b)

RLQ

c)

RUQ

d)

LUQ

32.

The main function of bile is to:

a)

break down cholesterol

b)

emulsify fats

c)

begin the digestion of proteins.

d)

begin the digestion of complex sugars.

33.

Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body

c)

Pylorus

d)

Cardiac

34.

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.).

a)

.25

b)

.5

c)

.75

d)

1

35.

Achalasia is generally defined as:

a)

difficulty in swallowing.

b)

a common malignancy of the esophagus.

c)

motor disorder of the esophagus.

d)

large outpouching of the esophagus.

36.

Where is bile formed?

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Duodenal mucosa

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

37.

Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium?

a)

Ileum

b)

Jejunem

c)

Cecum

d)

Duodenum

38.

Which part of the small intestine has the largest diameter?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Ileum

c)

Jejunum

d)

Cecum

39.

Which of the following conditions may produce the “cobblestone” or “string” sign?

a)

Whipple disease

b)

Regional enteritis (Crohn’s disease)

c)

Giardiasis

d)

Ileus

40.

How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection taken during a barium enema examination?

a)

10° to 15°

b)

20° to 25°

c)

30° to 40°

d)

45°

41.

Which aspect of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products along with water, vitamins, and minerals?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large Intestine

d)

Pancreas

42.

How would a technologist know when a small bowel exam is complete?

a)

Barium fills the duodenum

b)

Barium fills the jejunum

c)

Barium fills the ileocecal valve

d)

Barium fills the ileum

43.

A patient comes to radiology for an IVU. His laboratory report indicates a creatinine level of 0.7 mg/dL. What should be the technologist's next step?

a)

Proceed with the study.

b)

Notify the radiologist of an elevated creatinine level.

c)

Notify the referring physician of an elevated creatinine level.

d)

Escort the patient to the ED right away.

44.

Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint?

a)

Subluxation

b)

Luxation

c)

Apposition

d)

Angulation

45.

Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone?

a)

Bayonet

b)

Torus

c)

Avulsion

d)

Greenstick

46.

A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment fractured at both ends, is termed a _____ fracture.

a)

Segmental

b)

Butterfly

c)

Impacted

d)

Splintered

47.

_____ is employed to reduce exposure during C-arm fluoroscopy.

a)

Intermittent fluoroscopy

b)

Road-mapping

c)

Magnification mode

d)

Boost exposure

48.

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

a)

Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)

b)

Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum

c)

Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane

d)

Parallel to the midsagittal plane

49.

The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is:

a)

pancreatitis.

b)

jaundice.

c)

biliary calculi.

d)

hepatitis

50.

A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed:

a)

spinal fusion.

b)

diskectomy.

c)

vertebroplasty.

d)

laminectomy.

51.

Fear and combative resistance from a young child are common initial responses to a radiographic procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following terms is commonly applied in describing child abuse?

a)

Battered child syndrome (BCS)

b)

Pediatric intentional trauma (PIT)

c)

Nonaccidental trauma (NAT)

d)

Suspected child abuse (SCA)

53.

Which of the following factors should be the first consideration in controlling motion for the pediatric patient?

a)

Parent holding child

b)

Sandbags and tape

c)

High kV techniques

d)

Short exposure time

54.

Which of the following pathologies is best demonstrated with a radiographic chest procedure?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Wilms’ tumor

c)

Celiac disease

d)

Crohn’s disease

55.

Which modality is commonly used for evaluating and staging of tumors in young children without providing a high patient dose?

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Nuclear Medicine

d)

Sonography

56.

How much rotation and which oblique are required to best demonstrate the left sternoclavicular joints?

a)

15 degree LAO

b)

35 to 45 degrees LAO

c)

15 degrees RAO

d)

5 to 10 degrees RAO

57.

Which aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body?

a)

Neck

b)

Tubercle

c)

Head

d)

Facets

58.

Which two projections must be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?

a)

AP and LPO

b)

AP and RAO

c)

PA and LPO

59.

During an examination of the lumbar vertebrae with the patient in a 45-degree LPO position, the anatomy best demonstrated in the image is the:

a)

Right zygapophyseal joints

b)

Left zygapophyseal joints

c)

Left intervertebral foramina

d)

Right intervertebral foramina

60.

What is the primary or preferred term for the superior margin of the sternum?

a)

Sternal notch

b)

Manubrial notch

c)

Suprasternal notch

d)

Jugular notch

61.

What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?

a)

Cancellous portion

b)

Periosteum

c)

Diploë

d)

Medullary portion

62.

Which positioning line must be placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR for an AP projection of the upper airway?

a)

Mentomeatal

b)

Midcoronal

c)

Acanthiomeatal

d)

Orbitomeatal

63.

Which aspect of the large intestine is found between the left and right colic flexures?

a)

Transverse colon

b)

Descending colon

c)

Ascending colon

d)

Sigmoid colon

64.

A patient comes to radiology with a clinical history of a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following abdominal projections would best demonstrate this condition?

a)

Left lateral decubitus

b)

Dorsal decubitus

c)

Right lateral decubitus

d)

AP erect

65.

A nonvisible posterior fat pad on a well-exposed, correctly positioned lateral elbow radiograph generally suggests:

a)

a congenital defect.

b)

injury to the synovial joint.

c)

fracture of one of the bones of the elbow.

d)

negative study for injury.

66.

Local or generalized infection of bone or bone marrow caused by bacteria introduced by trauma or surgery is a condition termed:

a)

Paget’s disease.

b)

osteomyelitis.

c)

osteoarthritis.

d)

cellulitis.

67.

Why is it recommended that the PA oblique (with medial rotation) projection be performed rather than the PA oblique (with lateral rotation) for the second digit of the hand?

a)

Minimizes optimal immunomodulating dose (OID).

b)

Is more comfortable for the patient.

c)

Minimizes object image-receptor distance (OID).

d)

Opens up joints better.

68.

The CR placement for an AP axial projection (modified Robert’s method) of the thumb is at the:

a)

first proximal interphalangeal joint.

b)

first distal interphalangeal joint.

c)

midproximal phalanx of the first digit.

d)

first carpometacarpal joint.

69.

Which of the following factors will enhance the visibility of the vertebral bodies during a lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

a)

Use a high kV.

b)

Increase SID.

c)

Use an orthostatic (breathing) technique.

d)

Flex the spine.

70.

The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of _____ in relation to the midsagittal plane.

a)

45°

b)

30° to 35°

c)

70° to 75°

d)

90°

71.

The zygapophyseal joints of the upper lumbar vertebrae are ____ in relationship to the midsagittal plane.

a)

30°

b)

50°

c)

45°

d)

90°

72.

A patient comes to radiology for a follow-up study of the lumbar spine. The patient had a spinal fusion performed at the L3-4 level 4 months earlier. Which of the following would best demonstrate the degree of movement at the fusion site?

a)

Lateral hyperextension and hyperflexion projections

b)

AP and lateral erect projections

c)

Ferguson method

d)

Right and left 45° oblique projections

73.

For a lateral L5-S1 projection, the CR must be parallel to the:

a)

midsagittal plane.

b)

midcoronal plane.

c)

interiliac line.

d)

transverse plane.

74.

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

sthenic

c)

hypersthenic

d)

asthenic

75.

Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes:

a)

nothing; no patient preparation is required.

b)

NPO 4 hours before the procedure.

c)

NPO 8 hours before the procedure.

d)

NPO 24 hours before the procedure.

76.

A health professional who prepares the operating room (OR) by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a:

a)

certified surgical technologist (CST).

b)

circulator.

c)

scrub.

d)

surgical assistant.

77.

Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator?

a)

Intramedullary nail

b)

Interbody fusion cages

c)

Ilizarov device

d)

Compression screw

78.

A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed:

a)

spinal fusion.

b)

vertebroplasty.

c)

laminectomy.

d)

diskectomy.

79.

A lateral projection of the thoracic spine reveals that the upper aspect, which is a primary area of interest on this patient, is obscured by the patient's shoulders. Which of the following changes will best demonstrate this region of the spine?

a)

Use a compensating (wedge) filter and repeat the exposure with increased kV.

b)

Angle the CR 10° to 15° cephalad

c)

Perform the projection with the patient erect and holding weights in hand during exposure.

d)

Perform a cervicothoracic (swimmer's) lateral position.

80.

Another term for a breathing technique during exposure is the orthostatic technique.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The modified Law method for TMJs requires a ____ rotation of the skull and a ____ angle of the CR.

a)

15°; 15°

b)

10°; 15°

c)

5°; 0°

d)

0°; 25° to 30°

82.

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine?

a)

AP

b)

Lateral

c)

Posterior oblique positions

d)

Anterior oblique positions

83.

Which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus?

a)

Gravity and deglutition

b)

Peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation

c)

Peristalsis and gravity

d)

Deglutition and mastication

84.

What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure?

a)

Note the violation on the examination requisition.

b)

Inform the radiology supervisor.

c)

Notify a member of the surgical team once the procedure has been completed

d)

Notify a member of the surgical team immediately.

85.

Soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas is generally termed:

a)

sterile violation.

b)

strike-through.

c)

transmission.

d)

aseptic leakage.

86.

An infant is brought to the ED with a possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition?

a)

Small bowel enema

b)

Small bowel series

c)

Defecography

d)

Barium or air enema

87.

A radiograph of an AP barium enema (BE) projection reveals poor visualization of the sigmoid due to excessive superimposition of the sigmoid colon and rectum. How can this area be better visualized on the repeat exposure?

a)

Angle the central ray (CR) 30° to 40° cephalad with AP projection

b)

Increase kV

c)

Take a PA projection with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position.

d)

Take a PA projection with a 30° to 40° cephalad CR angle.

88.

A stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L1-2 would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

asthenic

c)

sthenic

d)

hypersthenic

89.

A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:

a)

intussusception.

b)

volvulus.

c)

diverticulosis.

...

d)

enteritis.

90.

The esophagus is located ____ to the larynx.

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

inferior

d)

proximal

91.

Kyphosis is defined as a(n):

a)

normal lumbar curvature.

b)

normal convex sacral curvature.

c)

normal compensatory curve of the thoracic spine.

d)

abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity.

92.

Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated _____ curvature.

a)

concave

b)

convex

c)

lateral

d)

"swayback" lumbar

93.

Another term for the intercondylar sulcus is the:

a)

articular facets.

b)

patellar surface.

c)

intercondylar fossa.

d)

intercondylar recess.

94.

A patient comes to the ER with a possible pelvic ring fracture. The initial AP pelvis projection is inconclusive. What other projection(s) can be taken to assist with the diagnosis?

a)

AP axial inlet projection

b)

AP, bilateral (modified Cleaves method) frog-leg projection

c)

Modified axiolateral projections

d)

Posterior axial oblique projections

95.

A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the clavicle demonstrates that the clavicle is within the midaspect of the lung apices. What should the technologist do to correct this error?

a)

Do nothing; this is an acceptable AP axial clavicle projection.

b)

Increase the caudal CR angle during repeat exposure.

c)

Increase the cephalic CR angle during repeat exposure.

d)

Make the exposure upon complete inspiration

96.

Sciatic type of pain resulting from a "slipped disk" indicates:

a)

spondylolisthesis.

b)

herniated nucleus pulposus.

c)

ankylosing spondylitis.

d)

spina bifida.

97.

What is a primary function of cholecystokinin?

a)

Serves as an enzyme to break down certain food nutrients

b)

Stimulates the production of bile

c)

Stimulates the gallbladder to contract

d)

Inhibits the formation of gallstones.

98.

Which of the following positions best demonstrates the left colic flexure?

a)

LPO

b)

Left lateral decubitus

c)

Left lateral

d)

Left anterior oblique (LAO)

99.

Asepsis defined as a(n):

a)

clean environment.

b)

absence of infectious organisms.

c)

sterile dressings and covers.

d)

proper handwashing.

100.

A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed a(n):

a)

luxation.

b)

contusion.

c)

apposition.

d)

subluxation.

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