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WorksheetsAnesthesia Ventilator/Monitoring
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Mechanical requirement depend on all EXCEPT:
a)
Type of surgery
b)
Length of Surgery
c)
Patient Position
d)
Tidal volume
2.
Piston-driven ventilators use what ____ as the driving force?
a)
Oxygen and Electric motor
b)
Solely Electric motor
c)
Flux capcaitor
d)
Oxygen
3.
At what pipeline pressure will the piston ventilator stop working?
a)
25 psi
b)
22 psi
c)
It does not stop working
d)
45 psi
4.
Four advantages of piston ventilators include:
a)
Quiet; No PEEP; Precise TV; Electric Driving Force
b)
Quiet; Audible alarms; SIMV; Pressure support
c)
Lack of visible bellows; harder to hear; Potential for negative pressure
d)
Very fast; Consume less oxygen; patient works less
5.
At what pressure should the relief valve open on a piston ventilator?
a)
40 cm H2O
b)
26 psi
c)
75 cm H20
d)
60 cm H2O
6.
Elevation in mean airway pressure (Paw) could indicate?
a)
PEEP too high
b)
Bronchospasm
c)
Tube in the right main bronchus
d)
All the above
7.
True or False: Apena/Disconnect Alarms are based on both Chemical and Mechanical monitoring
a)
True
b)
False
8.
What is the current standard weight base for tidal volume?
a)
6-10 ml/kg Ideal Body weight
b)
3-5 ml/kg Total body weight
c)
4-8 ml/kg Ideal Body Weight
d)
4-8 ml/kg Total body weight
9.
True or False the lowest FiO2 setting should be achieved to produce a SpO2 < 95% and PaO2 > 80 mm Hg.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
Increasing the I to E ratio from 2:1 to 4:1 will most likely cause what?
a)
Breath stacking PEEP intrinsic
b)
Prolonged Expiratory volume demand
c)
Extrinsic PEEP
d)
Expiratory Oxygen syndrome
11.
What is physiological PEEP ____ and what does it do?
a)
1-2 cm H20; Maintain alveoli patency
b)
6-10 cmH20; increase Tidal volume
c)
3-5 cm H20; push oxygen down to the lungs
d)
3-5 cm H20; maintain alveoli patency
12.
Intrinsic PEEP causes?
a)
elevation of preload, decrease in CO
b)
Increase work of breathing, decrease CO and hypotension
c)
Collapse of Alevoli
d)
Laryngospasm
13.
At what pressure is inspiration terminated in modern ventilators?
a)
It never stops
b)
1000 cm H2O
c)
60 to 100 cm H2O
d)
40 to 50 cm H2O
14.
Below is
•VT 4-8 ml/kg •RR 6-12 bpm •I:E ratio 1:2 •Peep: 4- 5 cm H2O
•VT 4-8 ml/kg •RR 6-12 bpm •I:E ratio 1:2 •Peep: 4- 5 cm H2O
a)
Pediatric settings only
b)
Normal/Ideal ventilatory settings for VCV
c)
Ventilation settings you never want to choose
d)
5,300 Dollars
15.
PCV normal setting is:
a)
20 cm H2O (Minimum setting); 20-30 RPM; I;E ratio 1:4
b)
20 cm H20 (Minimum Setting); RR 6-12; I:E ratio 1:2
c)
20 cm H2O (Max setting); RR 6-12; I:E ratio 1:2;
d)
20 cm H2O (Max setting); RR 40; I:E ratio 1:2
16.
Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) is uncontrolled and varies what pressure should you avoid?
a)
Greater than 35 cm H2O
b)
Less than 35 cm H2O
c)
PIP does not matter
d)
Greater than 60 cm H2O
17.
If Respiratory rate is too high, the risk include all the following EXCEPT:
a)
Inadequate expiratory time
b)
Breath Stacking
c)
Development of Intrinsic PEEP
d)
Prolonged Expiatory time
18.
Ventilators have two major functions?
a)
Volume; SIMV
b)
Volume; Pressure
c)
Pressure; PSV-Pro
d)
Barotrauma alert; Volume alert
19.
During PCV delivered VT will decrease substantially in which situations
a)
Bronchospasms; Laryngospam
b)
Auto-PEEP; Alevolar collapse
c)
Pulmonary edema; V/Q=0.8
d)
Bronchospasm; kinked endotracheal tube
20.
PCV should be used clinically for all the procedures below EXCEPT:
a)
Pregnancy
b)
Laparoscopic Surgery
c)
Morbid Obesity
d)
Fixed Volume required ventilation
21.
SIMV supports ______ breathing patient and can be used in _______ and _______ modes
a)
Paralyzed; Volume; Pressure
b)
Spontaneous Volume; Pressure
c)
Spontaneous; Pressure; Inverse ratio
d)
Controlled; Volume; Vaporized oxydation
22.
PSV-PRO the pro stands for ______; in how many seconds will the ventilator respond to apnea?
a)
Protection; 10-30 seconds
b)
Protection: 20-40 seconds
c)
Provide; 10-30 seconds
d)
Provide; 20-40 seconds
23.
When should you use PCV-VG pressure control volume guaranteed setting?
a)
Thoracic Surgery
b)
Laparoscopic surgery
c)
Orthopedic surgery
d)
I have no idea
24.
Ventilator pressure should be kept below 20 cm H2O in what airway device ______. For that device what is only major mode you can use?
a)
uncuffed ETT; Pressure
b)
LMA; Volume
c)
Cuffed ETT; volume
d)
LMA; Pressure
25.
Resistive Pressure is ______ what the normal value of resistive pressure?
a)
Addition of Peak and Plateau pressure; <10 cm H2O
b)
The difference between Peak and Plateau pressure; <10 cm H2O
c)
Addition of Peak and Plateau pressure; > 10 cm H20
d)
The difference between Peak and Plateau pressure; > 10 cm H2O
26.
What do you never want to press during inspiration, as it can cause risk of barotrauma and volutrauma?
a)
O2 Flush valve
b)
Vaporizer dial
c)
Ventilator mode button
d)
Demand pressure now button
27.
Function of any breathing circuit is to?
a)
Deliver oxygen, and deliver carbon dioxide
b)
Eliminate oxygen
c)
Deliver oxygen and anesthetic gases, and eliminate carbon dioxide
d)
eliminate anesthetic gases and carbon dioxide
28.
An example of an open circuit is
a)
Nasal Cannula
b)
Endotracheal tube attached to a circuit
c)
Anesthesia machine
d)
Unidirectional valves
29.
True or False: Semi-open circuits lack unidirectional valves
a)
False
b)
True
30.
Semi-closed circuits have the following:
a)
Reservoir bag; Complete re-breathing
b)
Reservoir bag; Partial re-breathing
c)
No reservoir bag; no re-breathing
d)
Reservoir bag; complete re-breathing
31.
True or False: Closed circuits have reservoir bags and partial re-breathing
a)
True
b)
False
32.
The picture above is a ______. What is the spontaneous MV
a)
Mapleson B; 1
b)
Mapleson C ; 2
c)
Mapleson A; 1
d)
Mapleson D; 3
33.
What type of system is above _____. What is the control MV
a)
Mapleson F; 5
b)
Mapleson B; 4
c)
Mapleson B; 2.5
d)
Mapleson A; 1
34.
What is the circuit above? What is the spontaneous and control MV
a)
Mapleson D; Spontaneous: 2L Controlled: 2L
b)
Mapleson F; Spontaneous: 3L Controlled: 3L
c)
Mapleson C; Spontaneous: 4L controlled: 3L
d)
Mapleson E; Spontaneous: 3L Controlled: 3L
35.
Using Bohr's equation what is the VD?
-Vt:500ml
-RR: 15 BPM
-PaCO2:10
-PeCO2:4
-Vt:500ml
-RR: 15 BPM
-PaCO2:10
-PeCO2:4
a)
150
b)
280
c)
300
d)
350
36.
Ture or False: A venturi effect fills the reservoir bag if the inner tube is patent in a Bain circuit or Mapleson D
a)
True
b)
False
37.
What is the Spontaneous and Controlled Liters of oxygen for a Mapleson C
a)
2 and 2 repsectively
b)
1 and 2 repectively
c)
2 and 2.5 respectively
d)
2 and 3 respectively
38.
All are advantages of the circle system EXCEPT:
a)
Constant Inspired concentrations
b)
Useful for all ages (may use down to 10kg)
c)
Converse respiratory heat and humidity
d)
Increase dead space
39.
What are the four types dead spaces?
a)
Anatomic, Functional, Mechanical, Physiological
b)
Anatomic, Alveolar, Mechanical, Physiological
c)
Capillary, Alveolar, Physiological, Mechanical
d)
Anatomic, Mechanical, Ventilator, General
40.
Factors that increase dead space include the following EXCEPT:
a)
General Anesthesia
b)
Artificial Airways
c)
Pulmonary embolus
d)
Spontaneous Breathing
41.
Where does mechanical dead space start?
a)
Common Gas outlet
b)
APL valve
c)
Y-piece bifurcation
d)
Unidirectional Valves
42.
What Standard Monitors Ventilation?
a)
Standard V b
b)
Standard V a
c)
Standard VI
d)
Standard IV
43.
True or False: capnography is a continuous monitoring of a patient
a)
False
b)
True
44.
Capnogram is defined as?
a)
Numeric valve
b)
A continuous waveform
c)
Concentration time display of CO2 with continuous waveform
d)
Beep sound on the monitor
45.
IR spectrography; Raman spectrography; Mass spectrography; Photo acoustic spectrography; Chemical colorimetric analysis are methods of
a)
Measuring O2, and some other gases
b)
Measuring healthy lungs
c)
Ancient anesthesia measurements
d)
Measuring CO2, and Volatile agent
46.
Which is more accurate in capnography measurement side stream or main stream
a)
Side Stream
b)
Main Stream
c)
Both
d)
Neither
47.
What is the following capnography
a)
Normal
b)
Obstructive, Bronchospasm
c)
Esophageal intubation
d)
I did not read Negalhout
48.
What is potentially happening to your patient with the image above
a)
Normal Waveform
b)
Obstructive disorder the patient has asthma
c)
Patient is waiting for Anesthesia
d)
Curare Cleft, patient is waking up
49.
What is the waveform above
a)
Normal Wave Form
b)
Bronchospasm
c)
Esophageal Intubation
d)
Patient is holding their breath
50.
How is ETCO2 correlated with Cardiac Output?
a)
Inversely Related
b)
Directly Related
c)
No Correlation
d)
5 mm Hg difference
51.
Initiation of expiration, CO2 free gas from anatomic dead space is which phase of ETCO2
a)
Phase I
b)
Phase II
c)
Phase III
d)
Phase IV
52.
Expiration of mixture of dead space and alveolar gas is which phase of ETCO2
a)
Phase I
b)
Phase II
c)
Phase III
d)
Phase IV
53.
Alveolar plateau; CO2 rich gas from alveoli is which phase of ETCO2
a)
Phase I
b)
Phase II
c)
Phase III
d)
Phase IV
54.
Inspiration is which Phase on ETCO2
a)
Phase I
b)
Phase II
c)
Phase III
d)
Phase IV
55.
Above the Beta Angle at the end of phase III is
a)
Partial capnography
b)
ETCO2 Measurement
c)
Total oxygen requirement
d)
Maximal point of CO2 against the alveoli
56.
Using the estimation FiO2 equation how much FiO2 would 5 lpm via Nasal Cannula give?
a)
42
b)
38
c)
40
d)
41
57.
In the mnemonic COVERABCD what does V and E mean
a)
Variable; Estimate
b)
Vaporizer; ETO2
c)
Ventilation; ETCO2
d)
Values; Exact
58.
Leads I, II, and III are?
a)
Insignificant leads
b)
Unidirectional
c)
Roman numerals
d)
Bipolar cardiac leads
59.
What is the maximum time before you have to take a blood pressure
a)
Q 3 Minutes
b)
Q 4 Minutes
c)
Q 5 Minutes
d)
Q 1 minute
60.
What is the allowable percentage of B/P drop from normal before treatment options?
a)
20%
b)
15%
c)
18%
d)
25%
61.
The American heart Association recommends that the bladder of the B/P cuff have what dimentions
a)
If it fits we are good to go
b)
35% circumference width; 60% encirclement length
c)
20% circumference width; 70% encirclement length
d)
40% circumference width; 80% encirclement length
62.
The modern B/P cuff uses what physic principle to obtain measurement
a)
Korotkoff
b)
Oscillation
c)
Ultrasound
d)
Coulomb's Law
63.
The CRNA obtains a PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, what should the CRNA expect the ETCO2 to be in the healthy patient?
a)
40
b)
32
c)
35
d)
There is no correlation
64.
An increase in ETCO2 indicates all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Hypothermia
b)
Hyperthyroidism
c)
Hyperventilation
d)
Sepsis
65.
What is based off of Beer's Lambert Law:
a)
ECG
b)
PaCO2 relationship
c)
Vaporizers
d)
SpO2
66.
Raman scattering analysis utilizes what principle of physics?
a)
X-ray
b)
low frequency laser beam
c)
high intensity beam using EMR frequency
d)
ionizes magnetic fields
67.
Piezoeletric gas analysis uses what principle of physics
a)
Vibration of crystals altered in the presence of gas
b)
Vibration of crystals altered in the presence of solid matter
c)
plasma quantum spectrometer absorbs gas and analysis it
d)
What is Piezoeletric for 200
68.
Mass spectrometry uses what physics principle?
a)
Atomic weight to absorb and analysis gas
b)
A magnetic field that deflect charge particles
c)
Infrared laser systematically weights and distributes particles
d)
It's a freakin' Laser
69.
Red and infrared absorb refracted light at what wavelength respectively?
a)
620;940
b)
930;660
c)
940;660
d)
660;940
70.
A left shift on the oxyhemoglobin disassociation curve means all the follow EXCEPT:
a)
Increase in pH
b)
Decrease in Temparture
c)
Increase in 2-3 DPG
d)
Decrease in 2-3 DPG
71.
Clinical locations for SpO2 monitors are
a)
Ears
b)
Nose
c)
Feet
d)
All the above
72.
Monitoring temperature all of the following are considered core body temperatures EXCEPT:
a)
Pulmonary Artery
b)
Tympanic
c)
Axillary
d)
Esophageal
73.
Hypothermia risks include
a)
Increased wound healing
b)
Shivering, Decreased O2 consumption
c)
Decreased risk of MI
d)
Prolonged Stay in PACU
74.
Number 1 is showing a ____ Flow-Volume curve
a)
Obstructive
b)
Normal
c)
Restrictive
d)
Upper airway obstruction
75.
Number 2 is showing a ____ flow-volume curve
a)
Severe Obstructive
b)
Restrictive
c)
Normal
d)
Kyphoscoliosis
76.
Number 3 is showing a _____ flow-Volume curve
a)
Normal
b)
Obstructive
c)
Severe Obstructive
d)
Restrictive
77.
Number 4 is showing a ____ Flow-volume curve
a)
Intrathoracic upper airway obstruction
b)
Both intra and extra thoracic upper airway obstruction
c)
Restrictive kyphoscoliosis
d)
Normal
78.
Oxygen saturation=
C (HbO2)/ [ C (HbO2) + C (Hb)] x 100%
What is the equation above solving
C (HbO2)/ [ C (HbO2) + C (Hb)] x 100%
What is the equation above solving
a)
Oxyhemoglobin disassociation curve
b)
Oxygen carrying capacity
c)
Functional Saturation
d)
Infrared calibration
79.
Carboxyhemoglobin has an affinity to hemoglobin how many times more than oxygen?
a)
150
b)
20
c)
40
d)
200
80.
Methemoglobin is cause by cyanide toxicity among other things, what is the treatment?
a)
Methylene Blue; SpO2 85%
b)
No treatment options
c)
Milk of Amnesia
d)
Blue Farts (Methane Blue)
81.
Which ETCO2 samples gas
a)
Diverting (Mainstream)
b)
Non-diverting (Mainstream)
c)
Diverting ( Side stream)
d)
Non-diverting (Side Stream)
82.
According to the power point what is the most common ECG monitoring
a)
5 leads
b)
12 Leads
c)
3 Leads
d)
Pulse check
83.
3 lead configuration CANNOT detect which of the following
a)
A-fib
b)
Wide QRS complex
c)
VT and SVT
d)
ST depression
84.
What is the gold standard for monitoring patient suspected of myocardia ischemia
a)
5 Lead configuration
b)
3 Lead configuration
c)
12 Lead configuration
d)
We do not have a gold standard
85.
All of the following are unidirectional leads EXCEPT:
a)
AVF
b)
V5
c)
V1
d)
II
86.
A patient has a history of ST elevation which lead would the CRNA display First?
a)
V2
b)
III
c)
AVF
d)
V3
87.
Which 12-lead ECG has no detection of anatomic site or coronary artery supply?
a)
AVR
b)
AVF
c)
AVL
d)
AVC
88.
According the SLIDES what leads supply the septum, anterior wall?
a)
V2, I, II, III
b)
V1-V5
c)
V3-V4
d)
AVL, V4-V6
89.
Which leads monitor the Right Coronary Artery?
a)
II, III, AVL
b)
II, AVR, AVF
c)
II, III, AVF
d)
I, II, III
90.
Pg. 294 of Negalhout determines V3 has what percentage of ischemia detection?
a)
86.8%
b)
81.6%
c)
75%
d)
I did not read Negalhout
91.
Which lead is recommended for diagnosing P wave abnormalities
a)
I
b)
AVF
c)
II
92.
Normal P wave depolarization time
a)
0.05-0.6 seconds
b)
0.1-0.25 seconds
c)
0.05-0.2 seconds
d)
5-20 seconds
93.
QRS complex should be approximately
a)
0.06-0.12 seconds
b)
0.5-0.6 seconds
c)
0.12-0.7 seconds
d)
0.2 seconds
94.
The best way to measure the degree of ST depression or elevation is?
a)
Z point
b)
QRS complex
c)
Alpha point
d)
J point
95.
The lowest incidence of error in ST depression criteria is
a)
Up slope
b)
Down Slope
c)
Horizontal
d)
Vertical
96.
Peaked T Waves are indication of all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Hyperthyroidism
b)
Hyperkalemia
c)
Early Stages MI
d)
Hypermagnesemia
97.
A negative QRS complesx in lead I and a positive QRS complex in AVF indicates?
a)
Shift the left
b)
Normal
c)
Shift to the right
d)
Extreme shift to the right
98.
Based on the previous answer what is a potential complication with right axis deviation?
a)
Left Ventricle hypertrophy
b)
Right hypertrophy
c)
Atrial fibrillation
d)
V-Tach
99.
In severe alkalosis with low potassium levels what abnormal EKG may be present
a)
Tented T waves
b)
Negative QRS complex in AVF
c)
U waves
d)
Negative QRS complex in lead I
100.
Intracranial bleeding is associated with what ECG abnormality
a)
T waves
b)
T wave inversion
c)
LBBB
d)
Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome
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