WorksheetsCPAS 2 Review
Total questions: 133
Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following nutrients is important for body, cell, and muscle growth and repair?
a)
vitamins
b)
fats
c)
proteins
d)
carbohydrates
2.
Which nutrient supplies the most calories per gram?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
fats
c)
protein
d)
water
3.
An athlete is preparing to run a marathon (26.2 miles), decide which of the following meals she should eat the night before to provide the most energy for the race?
a)
eat a steak and drink a coffee
b)
load up on candy bars and chips
c)
eat pasta and drink water
d)
eat a bowl of cereal and drink an energy drink
4.
Why would a person want to limit their intake of sodium (salt)?
a)
sodium weakens bones and teeth
b)
sodium can lead to high blood pressure
c)
sodium is linked to cancer
d)
sodium causes a person to be diabetic
5.
How many calories would you consume if you ate the entire product?
a)
50
b)
200
c)
990
d)
110
6.
A student ate a chicken breast, green beans, brown rice and a glass of milk for dinner. According to “MyPlate.gov” which food group is not included in her meal?
a)
vegetables
b)
fruits
c)
protein
d)
grains
7.
If a nurse suctions a patient with a tracheostomy who is diagnosed with HIV and blood-tinged sputum gets in the nurse's eyes, the nurse may contact the virus.
a)
True
b)
False
8.
The two oncologic conditions that occur most often in persons with HIV infection include:
a)
Kaposi Sarcoma and lymphoma
b)
lymphoma and lung cancer
c)
brain and liver cancer
d)
Kaposi Sarcoma and bone cancer
9.
For a blood pressure reading, the number on top measures...
a)
Diastolic Pressure
b)
Systolic Pressure
c)
Diastemic Pressure
d)
Systemic Pressure
10.
Plaques in the blood vessel cased by damage to the arterial wall is called...
a)
Atherosclerosis
b)
Anteriorsclerosis
c)
Your mom
d)
Angioplasty
11.
What is the leading cause of death in America?
a)
Cancer
b)
Cardiovascular disease
c)
Diabetes
d)
Accidents
12.
TRUE OR FALSE? A terminal illness is one that is certain to end in death?
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
13.
Which of the following would describe a cancerous tumor?
a)
malignant
b)
biopsy
c)
benign
d)
infectious
14.
Individuals on the ___ diet should not consume: fried foods, highly seasoned, carbonated beverages, olives and smoked meats.
a)
soft
b)
low-residue
c)
bland
d)
low-cholesterol
15.
essential nutrients, build/repair tissue, provide heat/energy
a)
proteins
b)
calcium
c)
cholesterol
d)
vitamin C
16.
Saturated fats are __________ at room temperature.
a)
liquid
b)
gases
c)
plasma
d)
solid
17.
Unsaturated fats are __________ at room temperature.
a)
liquids
b)
solids
c)
toxic
d)
saturated
18.
Which of the following are examples of a lipids?
a)
Fats and Oils
b)
Pepsi products
c)
Carbon
d)
Cellulose
19.
When calling 911 you need to tell them...
a)
How old you are
b)
Your location
c)
Your mother's name
d)
Why the emergency happened
20.
Tips of crutches should be located where, when deciding length of crutches?
a)
6" out, 2" up from foot
b)
2" out, 6" up from foot
c)
30 degrees from foot
d)
Shoulder width apart
21.
What angle should the elbow be in?
a)
15 degrees
b)
30 degrees
c)
45 degrees
d)
None of the above
22.
What is a Terminal Illness?
a)
A disease that cannot be cured and will result in death.
b)
A temporary illness such as a sinus infection.
c)
An illness that only happens when you are old.
d)
An illness that only happens when you are young.
23.
What stage is it when you cannot accept the reality of death.
a)
tension
b)
needs
c)
acceptance
d)
denial
24.
Esteem is when a person _____________.
a)
feels a an uncomfortable inner sensation or feeling.
b)
feels important and worthwhile.
c)
feels stimulated to act.
d)
feels a warm and tender feeling for another person.
25.
______________ is care that meets the needs of a dying person.
a)
Displacement
b)
Hospice
c)
Bargaining
d)
Cultural Diversity
26.
These needs are required by every human to sustain life. Ex: food, water, oxygen, etc
a)
Physiological needs
b)
Cultural diversity
c)
Terminal Illness
d)
Rationalization
27.
Patients understand and accept the fact that they are going to die
a)
Withdrawal
b)
Affection
c)
Motivated
d)
Acceptance
28.
Mood disorder that causes extreme mood changes that alternate between manic and depressive episodes.
a)
Bipolor
b)
Schizophrenia
c)
Hypocondria
d)
Autism
29.
Anxiety disorder that develops after exposure to a terrifying, traumatic event.
a)
Schizophrenia
b)
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
c)
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
d)
Seasonal Affective Disorder
30.
Anxiety disorder where there is a lasting fear caused by a thought, object, or situation that poses little or no danger.
a)
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
b)
Seasonal Affective Disorder
c)
PTSD
d)
Phobia
31.
Mood disorder where a person experiences hopelessness, sadness, and worthlessness for long periods of time.
a)
Seasonal Affective Disorder
b)
Depression
c)
Bipolar
d)
Autism
32.
Somatoform disorder where a person is excessively worrying about becoming seriously ill and has no physical symptoms.
a)
Hypochondria
b)
Seasonal Affective Disorder
c)
Phobias
d)
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
33.
Anxiety disorder where the person has unwanted thoughts and repeatedly performs tasks to get rid of the thoughts.
a)
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
b)
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
c)
Seasonal Affective Disorder
d)
Bipolar
34.
Prescribed drugs to relieve symptoms and allow patients to function normally.
a)
Pharmacotherapy
b)
Outpatient Therapy
c)
Detoxification
d)
Inpatient Therapy
35.
Professional who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, but cannot prescribe medication.
a)
Psychologist
b)
Psychiatrist
c)
Neurologist
d)
Counselor
36.
What does AIDS stand for?
a)
Acquired Ignored Disease Sometimes
b)
Anti Immune Disease Sickness
c)
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
d)
Another Immune Deficiency Sickness
37.
What is the relationship between HIV and AIDS?
a)
HIV weakens the body's immune system:AIDS weakens the lymphatic system
b)
HIV is the virus that causes AIDS symptoms
c)
AIDS is the virus that causes HIV symptoms
d)
AIDS is usually diagnosed first and can be followed by a diagnosis of HIV
38.
Contact precautions must be used for those with microorganisms that cause disease ( by direct or indirect contact)
a)
true
b)
false
39.
Hand must be washed _____after removing gloves
a)
never
b)
sometimes
c)
always
40.
Reverse isolations means
a)
walk in the room backwards
b)
protect the pt. from any contaminates I may bring
41.
A ______ inch border must be kept on a sterile field
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
42.
The first step in donning PPE
a)
wash your hands
b)
mask
c)
gown
d)
gloves
43.
Gloves are put on before a gown
a)
true
b)
false
44.
Which condition is a diuretic used to treat?
a)
Edema
b)
Hyperlipidemia
c)
Pyschosis
d)
Depression
45.
What is the medical term for farsightedness?
a)
Presbyopia
b)
Myopia
c)
Hyperopia
d)
Strabismus
46.
The Snellen Eye exam measures what?
a)
Near sighted vision
b)
Far sighted vision
c)
Night blindness
d)
Old age
47.
Lack of what nutrient can lead to osteoporosis
a)
Vitamin B
b)
Potassium
c)
Calcium
d)
Folic Acid
48.
Which type of exercise would be suitable for an elderly person?
a)
Running
b)
Boxing
c)
Swimming
d)
Walking
49.
At which stage should you eat foods that are softer on the teeth?
a)
Infancy/Preschool
b)
Adult
c)
Later Years (Elderly)
d)
Teenager
50.
According to Abraham Maslow, what is the most important need that must be fulfilled first?
a)
esteem needs
b)
physiological needs
c)
love and belongingness needs
d)
safety needs
51.
The base for Maslow's hierarchy of needs pyramid is
a)
Self-actualization
b)
Esteem
c)
Safety
d)
Physiological
52.
Which theorist believed in a pyramid-shaped Hierarchy of Needs
a)
Maria Montessori
b)
Erik Erikson
c)
Abraham Maslow
d)
Lev Vygotsky
53.
Maslow's hierarchy has 5 steps?
a)
True
b)
False
54.
Made up of ongoing processes beginning at birth and ending at death
a)
human growth and development
b)
life stages
c)
evolution
d)
Dying
55.
Early Childhood is ages ____ to ____
a)
1-6
b)
6-12
c)
12-18
d)
1
56.
At what stage is our physical development complete?
a)
Adolescence
b)
Late Childhood
c)
Young Adulthood
d)
Middle Adulthood
57.
The stage that occurs between birth and one year of age is concerned with:
a)
Initiative vs. Guilt
b)
Trust vs. Mistrust
c)
Identity vs. Role Confusion
58.
How many stages of psychosocial development did Erikson describe?
a)
4
b)
7
c)
8
59.
Intimacy vs. Isolation occurs at what stage?
a)
infancy
b)
young adulthood
c)
maturity
60.
According to Erikson, what is the major conflict faced during adolescence?
a)
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
b)
Intimacy vs. Isolation
c)
Identity vs. Role Confusion
d)
Generativity vs. Stagnation
61.
The crisis that arises in young adulthood is concerned with:
a)
Trust vs. Mistrust
b)
Industry vs. Inferiority
c)
Integrity vs. Despair
d)
Intimacy vs. Isolation
62.
An associate is unsure of what the letters in HIPAA stand for. Which "spell-out" below is correct?
a)
Health Information Personal Accountability Act. Incorrect Reason: HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
b)
Health Insurance Privacy and Portability Act. Incorrect Reason: HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
c)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
63.
The associate considers an individuals' past, present or future medical condition as PHI. Is this correct?
a)
Yes, she is correct. An individuals past, present or future medical condition is PHI.
b)
No, she is incorrect. Incorrect Reason: An individual's past, present or future medical condition is PHI.
64.
The bone most anterior if this patient were laying on their back
a)
Femur
b)
Fibula
c)
Patella
d)
Tibia
65.
The gastrocnemius is anterior or posterior
a)
anterior
b)
posterior
66.
The muscle's ability to work over a long period of time is
a)
flexibility
b)
body composition
c)
intensity
d)
muscular endurance
67.
What does RICE stand for?
a)
Whole Grains
b)
Remove, Ice, Cold, Exercise
c)
Reduce Impact, Carry Energy
d)
Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
68.
Turning the foot outward
a)
ulnar deviation
b)
rotation
c)
pronation
d)
eversion
69.
Turning the hand so the palm is up
a)
supination
b)
dorsiflexion
c)
flexion
d)
inversion
70.
excessive straightening of a body part
a)
pronation
b)
hyperextension
c)
adduction
d)
abduction
71.
Turning the head from side to side
a)
rotation
b)
extension
c)
supination
d)
inversion
72.
Provides information to people with inherited conditions:
a)
Family doctor
b)
Pshychiatrist
c)
Orthopedist
d)
Genetic counselor
73.
The occupational therapist conducted a mobility device assessment on a patient. After reviewing the record, the health insurance specialist assign a CPT code for:
a)
charges
b)
diagnosis
c)
procedure
d)
supplies used
74.
A patient is only drinking water and having broth after surgery-which abbreviation would be used to document this dietary restriction?
a)
cl liq
b)
NPO
c)
pc
d)
po
75.
ICD-9 codes refers to
a)
charges
b)
diagnoses
c)
procedure
d)
supplies
76.
Medical Transcriptionist transcribe (print out) medical reports recorded by physicians and other healthcare practitioners using different devices, covering office visits, emergency room visits, diagnostic imaging studies, operations, chart reviews, and final summaries.
a)
Health Informatics
b)
Diagnostic Services
c)
Therapeutic Services
d)
Biotechnology Research and Development
77.
Term
This patient position
places a person flat on his or her back,
facing up
This patient position
places a person flat on his or her back,
facing up
a)
Sitting Position
b)
Fowler's Position
c)
Supine Position
d)
Prone Position
78.
Term
This patient position
places a person flat on his or her stomach,
facing down
This patient position
places a person flat on his or her stomach,
facing down
a)
Sitting Position
b)
Fowler's Position
c)
Supine Position
d)
Prone Position
79.
Term
This patient position
has the patient supine
with the body tilted so that the head is
lower than the legs
This patient position
has the patient supine
with the body tilted so that the head is
lower than the legs
a)
Trendelenburg's Position
b)
Modified Trendelenburg's Position
c)
Dorsal Recumbent Position
d)
Sim's Position
80.
Term
This patient position
places the patient supine with his or her knees bent up
This patient position
places the patient supine with his or her knees bent up
a)
Trendelenburg's Position
b)
Modified Trendelenburg's Position
c)
Dorsal Recumbent Position
d)
Sim's Position
81.
Term
This patient position has the
person face down on his
or her left side with the left arm behind the back and the left knee bent
This patient position has the
person face down on his
or her left side with the left arm behind the back and the left knee bent
a)
Trendelenburg's Position
b)
Modified Trendelenburg's Position
c)
Dorsal Recumbent Position
d)
Sim's Position
82.
Term
This patient position
has the person supine with legs placed on supports
which hold the ankles and spread out the legs
This patient position
has the person supine with legs placed on supports
which hold the ankles and spread out the legs
a)
Lithotomy Position
b)
Knee-Chest Position
c)
Fowler's Position
d)
Sim's Position
83.
Term
This patient position
has the patient facing down with his or her legs bent, knees on the table and buttocks pushed up
This patient position
has the patient facing down with his or her legs bent, knees on the table and buttocks pushed up
a)
Lithotomy Position
b)
Knee-Chest Position
c)
Fowler's Position
d)
Sim's Position
84.
When transferring a patient, always stand on their _____ side.
a)
Weak
b)
Strong
c)
Right
d)
Left
85.
The doctor orders the patient can walk with assistance. What does that order look like?
a)
PWB
b)
Amb c assist
c)
NWB
d)
FWB
86.
Positioning a patient correctly includes keeping:
a)
correct body alignment
b)
the feet above the head
c)
the patient always on their side
d)
hands below their heart
87.
The R in RACE stands for
a)
run
b)
really
c)
rapid
d)
rescue
88.
Class A fire extinguishers are for
a)
wood, paper, cloth fires
b)
metal fires
c)
electrical fires
d)
flammable liquids
89.
The E in RACE stands for
a)
exciting
b)
extra
c)
evacuate
d)
everything
90.
_, fuel and oxygen are needed to start a fire.
a)
wood
b)
cloth
c)
gasoline
d)
heat
91.
The applied science that promotes safety and well-being by adapting environment
a)
body mechanics
b)
body positioning
c)
safety
d)
ergonomics
92.
If you find a damaged piece of equipment, report it _
a)
after attempting to fix it.
b)
immediately
c)
when you get a chance.
d)
never.
93.
When carrying a heavy object, hold it
a)
on your hip, supported with one arm
b)
away from your body
c)
to the side of your body
d)
close to your body
94.
Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing safety standards in the workplace?
a)
FDA
b)
EPA
c)
OSHA
d)
FBI
95.
Where should you point the nozzle of a fire extinguisher when putting out a fire?
a)
base of the fire
b)
top of the flames
c)
slightly to the side of the flames
d)
anywhere on the fire
96.
One of the last functions to be lost before death is:
a)
elimination
b)
hearing
c)
smell
d)
vision
97.
What is the most effective method to prevent transmission of infectious disease in the hospital?
a)
Good handwashing
b)
Limit visitors
c)
Place patient in isolation
d)
Use disposable equipment only
98.
How is sublingual medication absorbed?
a)
slowly through the intestinal mucosa
b)
through the mucous membranes of the nose
c)
through the numerous blood vessels in the inner cheek
d)
through the numerous blood vessels under the tongue
99.
A deficiency of potassium may result in:
a)
arrhythmias
b)
diarrhea
c)
hypotension
d)
petechiae
100.
The most significant risk factor for Type 2 Diabetes is:
a)
Hypertension
b)
Hypoglycemia
c)
Obesity
d)
Hyperglycemia
101.
A nursing assistant was accused of negligence. What did he/she MOST likely do?
a)
ambulated the patient down the hall as ordered
b)
assisted the patient with bathing
c)
failed to put up the side rails of the bed
d)
fed the patient his/her dinner late
102.
You arrive at the scene of an emergency involving a patient who is wearing a medical identification bracelet stating that the patient has diabetes. You understand that diabetes involves a problem with regulation of which of the following?
a)
fluid volume
b)
blood glucose levels
c)
brain electrical activity
d)
oxygen levels
103.
While providing care to a female patient who is conscious and talking, you suspect that the patient is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following would you do?
a)
Have the patient give herself a does of insulin
b)
Place the patient in a supine position
c)
Offer the patient fruit juice or non-diet soda
d)
use the head-tilt/chin-lift technique to open her airway
104.
A patient is experiencing tonic-clonic seizures. What is the priority when caring for this patient?
a)
Maintaining privacy
b)
preventing tongue biting
c)
protecting the patient from injury
d)
clearing the airway
105.
You arrive at the home of a 65-year-old man in response to a 9-1-1 call from his wife saying that he is having a stroke. The patient is conscious. Which of the following would you least likely expect to find with your SAMPLE history and physical exam?
a)
Facial drooping
b)
Clear speech
c)
Trouble walking
d)
Facial numbness
106.
When reading an article about the statistics related to poisoning in the United States, which of the following would you expect to find?
a)
A decrease in suicides has led to a decrease in adult poisoning death
b)
The number of child poisonings has been gradually increasing
c)
The death rate is highest in the 6-10 year old age group
d)
The majority of poisoning take place in the home
107.
Definition of Poison?
a)
A substance you take to feel better
b)
A pill the doctor gave you
c)
Any substance that causes injury, illness, or death if it enters your body
d)
Liquid you drink with your dinner
108.
How can a person be poisoned?
a)
Swallowing, breathing, absorbing through skin, and injecting poison
b)
Eating a salad
c)
Eating too much dessert
d)
Looking at a closed dangerous chemical for too long
109.
If you suspect someone has swallowed a poison, find out...
a)
What type and how much poison was taken
b)
When it was taken
c)
How much the person weighs
d)
All of the above
110.
What is the number for PPC?
a)
9-1-1
b)
1-800-112-2222
c)
1-800-222-1222
d)
616-None-Your-Business
111.
What differentiates a Poison Control call from a 911 & Poison Control call?
a)
Whether the subject is breathing
b)
How long ago was the poison ingested
c)
Are symptoms showing
d)
What the poison was
112.
If the large intestine fails to absorb excess water from the food one eats, what does one experience?
a)
menorrhea
b)
diarrhea
c)
verbarrhea
d)
hematorrhea
113.
What is the single most important way you can break the chain of infection?
a)
Sterilization
b)
Handwashing
c)
Cleaning surfaces
d)
Nutrition
114.
An infection present in a health care facility and transmitted by employees to patients
a)
Endogenous
b)
Exogenous
c)
Nosocomial
d)
Opportunistic
115.
Which STDs can be spread through skin to skin contact?
a)
HPV
b)
Herpes
c)
Syphilis
d)
All of the above
116.
If you have a disease caused by bacteria, you can treat it with a ...
a)
antibiotic
b)
antigen
c)
nothing, they cannot be treated
d)
antidote
117.
Which disease is not caused by bacteria?
a)
Strep throat
b)
Pneumonia
c)
Food poisoning
d)
Influenza (the Flu)
118.
Corkscrew/spiral bacteria that causes lyme disease, syphilis/STDS
a)
cocci
b)
streptocci
c)
spirilla
d)
bacilla
119.
The common cold is caused by
a)
ring worm
b)
a virus
c)
head ache
d)
none of the above
120.
After successfully donning sterile gloves you will be sure to maintain their sterility by keeping your hands above your...
a)
elbows
b)
chin
c)
waist
d)
knees
121.
To maintain a sterile field, all of the following rules must be followed except _________.
a)
sterile items must always be kept above the waist
b)
sterile items can never touch non-sterile items
c)
never turn your back to a sterile field
d)
spilling sterile water on a sterile field is acceptable
122.
You are performing a sterile procedure and you think you broke sterility. What should you do?
a)
keep going, you might not have broke sterility
b)
stop immediately & restart with new sterile items
c)
finish the procedure & report the break in sterility to your supervisor
d)
ask another nurse to finish the procedure
123.
Proper handwashing, use of PPE, sharps safety, & using red biohazard bags to dispose of infectious waste are examples of ____.
a)
Contact precautions
b)
Droplet precautions
c)
Airborne precautions
d)
Standard precautions
124.
This is used to protect certain patients from organisms present in the environment.
a)
Airborne precautions
b)
Standard precautions
c)
Contact precautions
d)
Reverse isolation
125.
Reverse isolation would be used on which of the following patients?
a)
AIDS patients
b)
Transplant patients
c)
Patients with severe burns
d)
All of these patients may be on reverse isolation
126.
All the following related to reverse isolation is true, except ________.
a)
Patient's room must be disinfected frequently
b)
Fresh flowers & fruit may be brought into the room
c)
Anyone entering room must wear clean or sterile PPE
d)
All items coming into room must be disinfected or sterile
127.
Physical restraints are not used until
a)
Less restrictive alternatives have not worked
b)
the cranky daughter insists
c)
the nurse orders it
d)
The CNA orders a wrist restraint
128.
A medication that is given in a dose that is not considered to be therapeutic for the person and alters their behavior and movement
a)
is a chemical restraint
b)
must mean an allergic reaction
c)
Is the least restrictive choice
d)
would be written on their care plan
129.
Applying restraints without informed consent is considered
a)
false imprisonment
b)
the right thing to do
c)
OK if the nurse says so
d)
OK for confused residents
130.
When applying a restraint for someone picking at their IV, and remembering you MUST start with the LEAST restrictive option first, what would you choose
a)
Wrist
b)
Wrist and vest
c)
Mitt
d)
Mitt and wrist
131.
In relation to the shoulder, the wrist is ___ to the elbow.
a)
distal
b)
proximal
c)
inferior
d)
superior
132.
The shoulders are ___ to the feet.
a)
anterior
b)
posterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
133.
The skin is ___ to the heart.
a)
anterior
b)
posterior
c)
deep
d)
superficial
100 %
