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Objective sem 2

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

An acid is defined by Arrhenius as

a)

an agent for proton donor

b)

a compound which ionises to form H+

c)

an agent of electron acceptor to form a covalent compound

d)

a species that has more H+ compared to other reactants

2.

Calculate the degree of dissociation of acetic acid in a 0.1 M solution, if the concentration of H+ ion in the solution is 1.3 x 10-3 M.

a)

0.007

b)

0.013

c)

0.016

d)

0.020

3.

What is the concentration of NaOH solution which has a pH of 9.50?

a)

3.16 x 10-3 M

b)

3.16 x 10-5 M

c)

3.16 x 10-6 M

d)

3.16 x 10-10 M

4.

Choose a correct statement about ammonium chloride, NH4Cl.

a)

It is a basic salt with pH>7.

b)

The salt will undergo partial dissociation.

c)

Its anion will undergo hydrolysis.

d)

The salt will undergo partial hydrolysis.

5.

The table below shows the relation between indicators and pH ranges used in the acid base titration. Based on the information given in the table above, we can infer that

a)

congo red is suitable indicator for a titration of aqueous ammonia with acetic acid.

b)

methyl yellow is not a suitable indicator for the titration of aqueous ammonia with hydrochloric acid.

c)

diphenol purple is a suitable indicator for the titration of aqueous sodium hydroxide with acetic acid.

d)

congo red and methyl yellow are the only suitable indicators for the titration of hydrochloric acid against sodium hydroxide

6.

Which type of titration below will result in a basic solution at equivalent point?

a)

Strong acid against strong base.

b)

Strong acid against weak base

c)

Weak acid against strong base.

d)

Weak acid against weak base.

7.

Consider the reaction :

4NH3 (aq) + 7O2(g) → 4NO2 (g) + 6H2O (l)

The equilibrium constant, Kc for the reaction should be written as

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

Which of the following equilibrium equations would be shifted towards the right when the pressure is raised at constant temperature?

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.

When the system H2(g) + Br2(g) <=> 2HBr(g) is in equilibrium at 550 K at 1.0 atm pressure, the value of the equilibrium constant, Kp is 10. What is the value of Kp at a pressure of 2.0 atm at the same temperature?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

10.

An equilibrium is represented by the following equation :

2SO2(g) + O2(g) <=> 2SO3(g) ∆H = -y kJ mol-1

Which of the following changes would affect both the value of the equilibrium constant, Kp and the proportion of sulphur trioxide present at equilibrium?

a)

Reducing the temperature

b)

Adding a catalyst of vanadium (V) pentoxide

c)

Increasing the pressure

d)

Increasing the mass of oxygen

11.

When aqueous copper (II) bromide is electrolysed using carbon electrodes, the products formed are copper at the cathode and bromine at the anode. This shows that,

a)

bromine ion is reduced at the anode.

b)

copper (II) ion is reduced at the cathode.

c)

water is more easily oxidised than bromide ion.

d)

water is more easily reduced than copper (II) ion

12.

Calculate the mass of zinc metal that can be plated on a cathode if a solution of Zn2+ is electrolysed by a current of 1.0 A for 60 minutes. Given Ar of Zn = 65.4.

a)

0.61 g

b)

1.22 g

c)

2.22 g

d)

2.43 g

13.

A zinc electrode is submerged in an acidic 0.8 M Zn2+ solution which is connected to a 1.3 M Ag+ solution containing a silver electrode by a salt bridge. Determine the initial voltage of cell at 298 K. Given :

Zn2+ (aq) + 2e → Zn (s) E° = – 0.76 V

Ag+ (aq) + e → Ag (s) E°= + 0.80 V

a)

0.47 V

b)

1.55 V

c)

1.56 V

d)

1.57 V

14.

Given two half – cell potential :

Fe2+ (aq) + 2e → Fe (s) E° = – 0.44 V

Ni2+ (aq) + 2e → Ni (s) E° = – 0.25 V

Which of the following statements is true, when both half - cells are coupled to form a galvanic cell?

a)

The nickel electrode is the cathode and gains mass

b)

The iron electrode is the cathode and gains mass

c)

The nickel electrode is the anode and loses mass

d)

The iron electrode is the cathode and loses mass.

15.

An electrolytic cell,

a)

has a positively charged anode.

b)

involves the formation of compounds from its elements.

c)

has a negatively charged cathode which attracts anion.

d)

able to convert chemical energy to electrical energy

16.

The overall order for the reaction

2A + B → C

is one and with respect to B the order is zero. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The rate law of the reaction is rate = k [A]2 [B]

b)

The formation of C is double the appearance of A.

c)

The rate of reaction would increase with increasing concentration of B.

d)

The half–life of the reaction is independent on the concentration of the reactants.

17.

A catalyst alters the rate of a chemical reaction by,

a)

providing an alternative pathway with a lower Ea.

b)

changing the products formed in the direction of the reaction.

c)

providing a surface on which the molecules react.

d)

increasing the frequencies of collisions between molecules.

18.

The first order rate constant for the decomposition of 0.5 M compound A at 100°C is 0.03min-1. Calculate the half–life of A.

a)

1.5 min

b)

8.3 min

c)

23.1 min

d)

66.7 min

19.

The rate constant for a second order reaction at 30°C is 2.0 x 10-6 M-1s-1. The activation energy for this reaction is 108 kJ mol-1. By using Arrhenius equation, determine

the collision frequency factor, A, for the reaction.

a)

5.0 x 1012

b)

6.0 x 1012

c)

8.0 x 1012

d)

1.0 x 1013

20.

Which of the following compounds is an amide?

a)

NH2CH2COOH

b)

CH3CH2CH2CN

c)

CH3CH2CONH2

d)

CH3CH2NHCH3

21.

The table above gives the initial concentrations and rate for three experiments of the reaction is

CO(g) + Cl2(g) → COCl2(g)

What is the rate law for this reaction?

a)

Rate = k [CO][Cl2]

b)

Rate = k [CO]2[Cl2]

c)

Rate = k [CO][Cl2]2

d)

Rate = k [Cl2]

22.

Which of the following describes the relationship for a pair of structures above?

a)

Geometrical isomers

b)

Same molecule

c)

Positional isomers

d)

Functional group isomers

23.

Which of the following reagents is an electrophile?

a)

OH-

b)

NH3

c)

AlCl3

d)

CH3OH

24.

CH3CH=CH2 + HBr → CH3CHBrCH3

for the above equation, what type of reaction that occurs?

a)

Rearrangement

b)

Electrophilic addition

c)

Nucleophilic substitution

d)

Addition polymerisation

25.

How many structural isomers that can be drawn for C4H8?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

26.

Consider the following three alkanes: pentane, 2–methylbutane and 2,2–dimethylpropane. Which is the correct increasing order of the boiling points?

a)

pentane < 2 – methylbutane < 2,2 – dimethylpropane

b)

2 – methylbutane < 2,2 – dimethylpropane < pentane

c)

2,2 – dimethylpropane < pentane < 2 – methylbutane

d)

2,2 – dimethylpropane < 2 – methylbutane < pentane

27.

The halogenation mechanism of methane to form chloromethane involves

a)

the formation of carbanion.

b)

the elimination of hydride ion

c)

the formation of carbocation.

d)

the formation of free radical.

28.

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about benzene?

a)

Benzene molecule is planar.

b)

Pi electrons in benzene are not localised.

c)

Benzene obeys the Huckel’s rule: 4N+2 with N=1.

d)

Benzene has three resonance structures since it contains three C=C bonds.

29.

What is the IUPAC name of the above aromatic compound?

a)

2– nitro–4–chloro–5–methoxybenzoic acid

b)

3– methoxy–4–chloro–6–nitrobenzoic acid

c)

4– chloro–3–methoxy–6–nitrobenzoic acid

d)

4– chloro–5–methoxy–2–nitrobenzoic acid

30.

The above structure is a

a)

copolymer

b)

homopolymer

c)

branced polymer

d)

crosslinked polymer