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Mock Exam

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 72 year-old man is admitted for a COPD exacerbation and is doing well. During physical therapy he develops sudden onset of left facial droop, left arm weakness, and left leg weakness. His mental status appears to be normal. Vital signs remain normal at this time, with BP 155/95, P 80, RR 18, and O2 sat 90% on 2L O2 (the patient’s baseline). Which of the following should be the first step in the management or evaluation of this patient?

a)

Consult to interventional radiology for intra-arterial thrombolysis

b)

Aggressive blood pressure control

c)

IV tPA

d)

Aspirin 325mg PO

e)

Noncontrast Head CT

2.

A 75 year old woman with known COPD complains of worsening exertional dyspnea following a recent hospitalization for an acute exacerbation. CT scan obtained in the hospital demonstrated hyperinflation with emphysematous changes predominantly in the lower lobes. An ABG obtained several weeks after hospitalization demonstrates a PaO2 of 50 mmHg and PaCO2 of 42 mmHg. A course of oral prednisone started in the hospital has been tapered off. Which of the following treatments for COPD considered in this patient has been proven to prolong survival?

a)

Inhaled corticosteroids

b)

Oral corticosteroids

c)

Pulmonary rehabilitation

d)

Long-term oxygen therapy

e)

lung volume reduction surgery

3.

A 40 year old white male presents to your office complaining of increased shortness of breath. He has a history of repeated pulmonary and sinus infections. Physical exam is significant for crackles bilaterally. chest x-ray are shown

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

c)

Hypogammaglobulinemia

d)

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

e)

HIV

4.

A 48-year-old man with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ICU with sepsis, worsening weakness, and hypercapnea. He reports having recurrent UTI caused by Pseudomonas species that have previously required treatment with IV antibiotics. His current urinalysis results reveal many WBCs and gram-negative rods. He has received a dose of vancomycin. Which of the following empirical antibiotic regimens should be initiated while awaiting culture results?

a)

Meropenem plus amikacin.

b)

Cefepime plus ciprofloxacin.

c)

Piperacillin-tazobactam plus gentamicin.

d)

Ceftazidime plus meropenem.

5.

Which of the following is true regarding tuberculosis, pregnancy, and lactation?

a)

Tuberculosis in a pregnant woman is an indication for therapeutic abortion.

b)

Breast feeding should be discouraged in women who are receiving antituberculosis treatment.

c)

tuberculosis in pregnancy should be treated with combination of isoniazid and rifampin.

Pyrazinamide and ethambutol should be added immediately after delivery.

d)

Initial treatment of tuberculosis in pregnancy should consist of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol.

6.

A 43-year-old man presents to the ED with tongue and lip swelling due to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. The swelling significantly worsens and he is intubated for airway protection. In addition to his history of hypertension, he was placed on therapy 1 month ago for newly diagnosed pulmonary TB. Upon transfer to the ICU, he is placed on a nicardipine drip for BP control and a propofol infusion for continued agitation. The next morning, the ICU nurse calls with concerns about the patient’s urine.

What is the most likely cause of this finding?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Propofol

d)

Nicardipine

7.

A 43-year-old man recently was found to have an asymptomatic atrial septal defect that was closed using a percutaneous patch 1 month ago without complication. He is undergoing a root canal at the dentist next week and calls his primary care office to determine if antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated. Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotic prophylaxis in this patient?

a)

No prophylaxis is indicated Currently.

b)

avoid dental procedures for 12 months.

c)

Routine antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for bacteremic dental procedures, particularly if the patch is less than 6 months old.

d)

Routine antibiotic prophylaxis is indicated for bacteremic dental procedures whenever foreign material is present.

8.

52-year-old woman has been having worsening cough for the past month. She is a nonsmoker. The cough is nonproductive and present throughout the day and night. It worsens when lying on her back. She has also noticed some upper chest pain and dyspnea on exertion for the past week. A chest radiograph shows a large mass (>5 cm) confined to the anterior mediastinum. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

a)

Hodgkin's lymphoma

b)

Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

c)

Teratoma

d)

Thymoma

e)

Thyroid carcinoma

9.

A 32-year-old woman is evaluated for anticoagulation management after an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a healthy newborn. She was diagnosed with a bilateral pulmonary embolism at 25 weeks' gestation and was treated with therapeutic LMWH . The LMWH was discontinued at the onset of labor and was restarted 6 hours after delivery. Anticoagulation for 3 months is planned. The patient wishes to breastfeed her newborn. Which of the following is the most appropriate anticoagulation option for this patient?

a)

Apixaban

b)

Dabigatran

c)

Fondaparinux

d)

Rivaroxaban

e)

Warfarin

10.

patient with metabolic acidosis, reduced anion gap, and increased osmolal gap is most likely to have which of the following toxic ingestions?

a)

Lithium

b)

Methanol

c)

Oxycodone

d)

Propylene glycol

e)

Salicylate

11.

You are examining a 25-year-old patient in clinic who came in for a routine examination. Cardiac auscultation reveals a second heart sound that is split and does not vary with respiration. There is also a grade 2–3 midsystolic murmur at the midsternal border. Which of the following is most likely?

a)

Atrial septal defect

b)

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

c)

Left bundle branch block

d)

Normal physiology

e)

Pulmonary hypertension

12.

A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the intensive care unit for the second time with meningococcal septicemia. Investigations on admission were as follows: Hb 14.8 g/dl, WCC 18000 (neutrophils 80%), Platelets 190000. What investigation would you perform to identify the cause?

a)

Neutrophil antibodies

b)

Neutrophil chemotactic factor.

c)

Serum complement level

d)

Serum immunoglobulins.

13.

What is the mechanism of action of tocilizumab?

a)

Anti-CD 20 antibody

b)

Anti-IL 1 antibody

c)

Anti-IL 6 antibody

d)

Anti TNF alpha antibody

e)

CTLA4 homologue

14.

Which of the following is the most common manifestation of MEN1?

a)

galactorrhea

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

hypertension

d)

hypoglycemia

e)

peptic ulcer

15.

In chronic hepatitis B virus infection, presence of hepatitis B e antigen signifies which of the following?

a)

Development of liver fibrosis leading to cirrhosis

b)

Dominant viral population is less virulent and less transmissible

c)

Increased likelihood of an acute flare in the next 1–2 weeks

d)

Ongoing viral replication

e)

Resolving infection

16.

A patient is followed closely by her nephrologist for stage IV chronic kidney disease associated with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Which of the following is an indication for initiation of maintenance hemodialysis?

a)

Acidosis controlled with daily bicarbonate administration

b)

Bleeding diathesis

c)

BUN >110 mg/dL without symptoms

d)

Creatinine >5 mg/dL without symptoms

e)

Hyperkalemia controlled with sodium polystyrene

17.

A 45-year-old man with ulcerative colitis has been treated for the past 5 years with infliximab with excellent resolution of his bowel symptoms and endoscopic evidence of normal colonic mucosa. He is evaluated by a dermatologist for a lesion that initially was a pustule over his right lower extremity but has since progressed in size with ulceration. The ulcer is moderately painful. He does not recall any trauma to the area. On examination, the ulcer measures 15 × 7 cm, and central necrosis is present. The edges of the ulcer are violaceous. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Erythema nodosum

b)

Pyoderma vegetans

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Pyoderma gangrenosum

18.

Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?

a)

ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma

b)

Adrenocortical adenoma

c)

Adrenocortical carcinoma

d)

Ectopic ACTH secretion

e)

McCune-Albright syndrome

19.

Which of the following joints is often spared by osteoarthritis?

a)

Cervical spine

b)

Distal interphalangeal joint

c)

Hip

d)

Proximal interphalangeal joint

e)

Wrist

20.

You are seeing a patient in follow-up in whom you have begun an evaluation for an elevated hematocrit. You suspect polycythemia vera based on a history of aquagenic pruritus and splenomegaly. Which set of laboratory tests is consistent with the diagnosis of polycythemia vera?

a)

Elevated red blood cell mass, high serum erythropoietin levels, normal oxygen saturation

b)

Elevated red blood cell mass, low serum erythropoietin levels, normal oxygen saturation

c)

Normal red blood cell mass, high serum erythropoietin levels, low arterial oxygen saturation

d)

Normal red blood cell mass, low serum erythropoietin levels, low arterial oxygen saturation