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Animal Science II Large Unit 5

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As Sally prepares to medicate her calf she locates the jugular vein. What route of injection is she preparing to administer?

a)

Intravenous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Intranasal

d)

Subcutaenous

2.

The castrating tool used to crush the cords above the testicles without cutting the scrotum is the:

a)

Burdizzo

b)

Elastrator Bands

c)

Knife

d)

Razor Blade

3.

When new cattle are brought to the farm, they should be vaccinated:

a)

Immeditately

b)

In one week

c)

In two weeks

d)

In 30 days

4.

Sanitation and good health management practices are very important in poultry production because many diseases:

a)

Are passed to humans

b)

Increase poultry profits

c)

Have no treatment

d)

Increase the number of live birds

5.

When new animals are brought to a farm, which preventive maintenance procedure should be used to keep from spreading diseases?

a)

Mix new animals with other animals

b)

Isolate new animals

c)

Spray other animals

d)

Vaccinate other animals

6.

Which prevention maintenance procedure should a beef cattle farmer perform to make the male cattle unable to breed?

a)

Castrate

b)

Dehorn

c)

Deworm

d)

Dock

7.

Which preventative maintenance procedure should be done on baby pigs to prevent injury to sows when pigs are nursing?

a)

Castrate

b)

Clip needle teeth

c)

Dock tails

d)

Ear notch

8.

Modified live and killed are two types of

a)

Immunity

b)

Infectious disease

c)

Vaccines

d)

Non-infectious disease

9.

Castrating male slaughter cattle and swine at an early age compared to waiting until they are more mature:

a)

Increases shock

b)

Reduce selling price

c)

Reduces shock

d)

Requires more labor

10.

The purpose of vaccination is to develop immunity which is:

a)

killing pain

b)

producing diseases

c)

producing parasites

d)

resistance to diseases

11.

The type of immunity of a newborn calf obtains from its mother’s milk is:

a)

Active

b)

infectious disease

c)

modified live

d)

passive

12.

It is easier and causes less stress to dehorn calves when their horns are:

a)

Fully developed

b)

Past the button stage

c)

In the button stage

d)

Six inches long

13.

The recommended treatment for cattle with Brucellosis is:

a)

Antibiotics in the water

b)

Disposal of sicks animals

c)

Spraying of insecticides

d)

Vaccination in the ear

14.

The recommended treatment for cattle that have Shipping Fever is:

a)

Antibiotics and sulfa drugs

b)

Disposal of sicks animals

c)

No treatment

d)

Spraying with insecticides

15.

Which method of injection would have the slowest absorption rate?

a)

Intravenuous

b)

Intramuscular

c)

Subcutaenous

16.

If the vaccine bottle suggests that you can inject the vaccine either subcutaneous or intramuscular, which method would be the safest and most cost effective way to inject a vaccine in a livestock animal that will be sold as meat?

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Intramuscular

17.

If an animal was in an emergency situation and needed fluids and medication quickly, which method of injection would you suggest the farmer use to ensure survival.

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intradermal

c)

Intranasal

d)

Intravenous

18.

A major advantage of synchronization of estrus is cows and heifers is:

a)

Higher conception rates

b)

Less uniform calf crop

c)

Lower level of management required

d)

Reduced breeding and calving season

19.

Genetically engineered bovine somatotrophin (bST) given to dairy cattle results in:

a)

Increased milk production

b)

More fat and weight increases

c)

More fat and weight losses

d)

Reduced milk production

20.

One of the major advantages of embryo cloning is:

a)

Genetically uniform offspring

b)

Genetically diverse offspring

c)

High costs

d)

Low success rates

21.

The technology that opened the door for biotechnology to be used in animal reproduction is:

a)

Bioengineered vaccines

b)

Cloning

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Monoclonal antibody technology

22.

An area of biotechnology that uses monoclonal antibodies to improved animal health by increasing accuracy and reducing time is:

a)

Diagnostic testing

b)

Disease prevention

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Parasite prevention

23.

The biotechnology activity that can most rapidly increase the uniformity of cattle in a herd is:

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Cloning

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Purebreeding

24.

In embryo transfer, the embryos are removed from the female donor by a process called:

a)

Drenching

b)

Flushing

c)

Infusion

d)

Sterilization

25.

A major advantage of embryo transfer is that it speeds the genetic improvement of a herd of beef cattle from the:

a)

Bull

b)

Dam

c)

Siblings

d)

Sire

26.

The genetics of cloned animals are:

a)

Different

b)

Identical

c)

Randomly mixed

d)

Recessive

27.

The major problem that most people have with the use of biotechnology in animal production is the:

a)

Cost of development

b)

Education needed to use it

c)

Fear of the unknown

d)

Profits made by farmers

28.

Brucellosis testing, pregnancy diagnosis testing and treating scours are applications of:

a)

Bioengineered vaccines

b)

Bovine somatotrophin production

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Monoclonal antibody technology

29.

Removing a nucleus from an embryo before the embryo is implanted in the uterus wall and placing the nucleus into a mature, unfertilized egg cell is nuclear transfer or:

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Crossbreeding

c)

Embryo cloning

d)

Palpation

30.

The highest percentage of all reproductive failures in cows is caused by what?

a)

Diseases

b)

Parasites

c)

Unconditioned, thin cows

d)

Weather conditions

31.

Body conditioning and its effects on conception in cows are very important because cows should have an wean a calf every:

a)

6 months

b)

12 months

c)

18 months

d)

24 months

32.

Which preventative maintenance procedure is performed as a part of breeding flock management to prevent the spread of diseases from eggs?

a)

Adding vitamins to feed

b)

Fumigating with formaldehyde

c)

Spraying with insecticides

d)

Storing eggs at 80% humidity

33.

A major advantage of synchronization of estrus in cows and heifers is what?

a)

Higher conception rates

b)

Less uniform calf crop

c)

Lower level of management required

d)

Reduced breeding and calving seasons

34.

Since a person compares the feel and size of various parts of the reproductive tract to determine the stages of pregnancy, an accurate diagnosis requires what?

a)

Experience

b)

Knowledge

c)

Speed

d)

Veterinarian's License

35.

A disadvantage of multiple farrowing compared to other farrowing systems is that multiple farrowing:

a)

Increases investment per pig

b)

Makes less efficient use of facilities

c)

Requires better management

d)

Spreads income throughout the year

36.

The process of feeling the reproductive tract of a cow to determine pregnancy is what?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Palpation

c)

Parturition

d)

Sterilization

37.

When a beef cow is artificially inseminated, a gloved hand is inserted into the animal's rectum to guide the inseminating rode through the:

a)

Cervix

b)

Fallopian tube

c)

Infundibulum

d)

Vas deferens

38.

What type of breeding is used because of the low fertility problems and the large size of male turkeys?

a)

Artificial insemination

b)

Confinement breeding

c)

Embryo transfer

d)

Natural breeding

39.

An advantage of using artificial insemination compared to natural breeding of beef cattle is that:

a)

A trained inseminator is needed

b)

A wider variety of superior bulls can be used

c)

More equipment is required

d)

More time is required

40.

Arranging the breeding schedule so that groups of sows farrow at regular interval throughout the year is called:

a)

Double farrowing

b)

Multiple farrowing

c)

Seasonal farrowing

d)

Single farrowing

41.

Hatching eggs are fumigated to help prevent the spread of:

a)

Egg-borne diseases

b)

External parasites

c)

Internal parasites

d)

Nutritional disorders

42.

Equipment needed for palpation includes:

a)

Coveralls and boots

b)

Obstetrical chains and ropes

c)

Plastic sleeves and lubricant

d)

Thermometer and watch

43.

In confinement swine production, a management practice that increases conception rates is to:

a)

Breed females at least twice each head period

b)

Breed females once each heat period

c)

Breed gilts during the first head period

d)

Check for standing heat each week

44.

In breeding flock management, eggs are gather several times per day and packed:

a)

In random positions

b)

With dirt and manure on them

c)

With large end down

d)

With large end up

45.
Details of the amount of waste generated, the fields and crops receiving the waste, and the best management practices to be used in a livestock operation are included in the:
a)
animal mortality management plan.
b)
animal waste management plan.
c)
breeding records
d)
net worth statement
46.
Animal waste management systems that primarily rely on soil and plant systems to treat animal waste are Type:
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
47.
The waste management practice that prohibits applying animal waste within a certain distance of water, homes, and property lines is:
a)
buffers
b)
irrigation
c)
soil analysis 
d)
anaerobic lagoons
48.
Which component of a North Carolina animal waste management plan includes soil and waste analysis reports and the dates and rates of waste applied to land sites?
a)
Animal mortality management
b)
Insect control
c)
Odor control
d)
Record keeping
49.
The animal waste management system generally used to treat waste from swine is Type:
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
50.
North Carolina regulations require every farm animal operation of significant size that uses a liquid waste management system to develop and use a/an:
a)
air conditioned facility.
b)
animal disease specialist.
animal disease specialist
c)
animal waste management plan.
d)
balanced ration.
51.
Animal waste management systems that rely on anaerobic lagoon and soil/plant systems for the treatment of animal waste are Type:
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
52.
Most local regulations for animal operations deal with:
a)
health and disease
b)
waste management
c)
zoning or location
d)
water quality
53.
Even if there is no actual discharge of waste, a $10,000 per day penalty can be charged if there is a man-made structure to:
a)
house animals
b)
clean waste from buildings 
c)
route waste away from a lagoon.
d)
take waste to a lagoon.
54.
In commercial broiler operations, baby chicks need heat, which is provided by:
a)
light bulbs
b)
brooders
c)
heat lamps
d)
wood heaters
55.
The animal waste management system operator must be:
a)
A technical college graduate
b)
A university graduate
c)
Certified
d)
The owner
56.
The animal waste management system generally used to treat waste from cattle is Type:
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
57.
The component of NC animal waste management plan that describes the method of disposing of dead animals is:
a)
Animal mortality management
b)
Emergency managment
c)
Waste application rates
d)
Waste and soil testing
58.
Which is a component of a NC animal waste management plan?
a)
Amount of feed per animal
b)
Bird control
c)
Odor control
d)
Total amount of feed used
59.
It is a violation of NC law for animal waste to reach:
a)
Air
b)
Lagoons
c)
Soil
d)
Surface water
60.
Grassed waterways, buffers, and cover crops that reduce the potential for negative environmental impact are called:
a)
Anaerobic lagoons
b)
Best management practices
c)
Discharge rates
d)
Sludge
61.
Lawsuits brought against livestock operations by a neighbor are usually:
a)
State sponsored
b)
Third-party
c)
Type A
d)
Types B
62.
Which of these crops should be grown by a swine farmer who needs to grow a crop that will control soil erosion and water runoff as well as use the most nutrients from the waste applied to the land?
a)
Bermudagrass
b)
Corn
c)
Soybeans
d)
Wheat
63.
To properly handle livestock, all types of beef cattle operations should have a:
a)
barn
b)
corral
c)
lagoon
64.

Confinement turkey houses usually have dirt floors covered with:

a)

concrete

b)

wood shavings

c)

wire cages

d)

-

65.
Which type of beef cattle enterprise requires the simplest facilities?
a)
Feedlot
b)
Feeder calf
c)
Cow-calf
66.
In commercial broiler operations, baby chicks need heat, which is provided by:
a)
wood heater
b)
brooders
67.
Essential features of a corral include a holding pen, a working chute and a:
a)
Barn
b)
Headgate
c)
Pasture
68.
The MOST expensive type of beef cattle feeding facility to build is:
a)
Cold confinement barn
b)
Open barn and feedlot
c)
Warm confinement barn
69.
In most commercial laying flocks of chickens, the lights are controlled by:
a)
Automatic time clocks
b)
Shades
c)
Mirrors
70.
Ear notchers, needle teeth clippers, and castrating knives are small equipment needed for a:
a)
Farrowing house
b)
Growing facility
c)
Finishing facility
71.
Almost all the hogs produced in NC are raised:
a)
In climate controlled confinement houses
b)
In cold confinement houses
c)
On pastures with portable houses
72.
Controlling temperature, odor, moisture, and airborne disease organisms is done through:
a)
Ventilation
b)
Heating
c)
Spraying water mist
73.
The major problem in locating hog production facilities is:
a)
Odors
b)
Roads
74.
In a chicken house with new chicks the temperature should be:
a)
Very cool
b)
Very Warm
75.
The main reason automatic hog feeding and watering equipment is used is to:
a)
Decrease initial cost
b)
Increase labor
c)
Save labor