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WorksheetsMonster AP Gov Review
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Typical method for proposing Constitutional amendments...
a)
2/3rds of both houses
b)
3/4ths of state legislatures
c)
2/3rds of states calling for convention
d)
3/4ths of ratifying conventions in the states
2.
Typical method for ratifying Constitutional amendments...
a)
2/3rds of both houses
b)
3/4ths of state legislatures
c)
2/3rds of states calling for convention
d)
3/4ths of ratifying conventions in the states
3.
Equal protection and due process clause, litigated often
a)
13th
b)
14th
c)
15th
d)
16th
4.
Set up federal income tax
a)
13
b)
15
c)
16
d)
17
5.
What is the social contract theory?
a)
Idea that people create government by giving up certain rights in exchange for protections
b)
Idea which says that all governments must have a balanced separation of power
c)
Theory that states people cannot overthrow the government, even if it is bad
d)
Theory that people are born with rights that cannot be violated
6.
Which of the following is supported in the Declaration of Independence?
a)
People should suffer under a cruel government
b)
God gives some people the right to rule
c)
Governments give people rights
d)
Governments are created by the people
7.
Which of these is NOT a natural right identified in the Declaration of Independence?
a)
Life
b)
Property
c)
Liberty
d)
Pursuit of Happiness
8.
Which branch of government existed under the Articles of Confederation?
a)
Legislative
b)
Executive
c)
Judicial
d)
Parliament
9.
Which philosopher believed in natural rights and the social contract theory?
a)
John Locke
b)
Thomas Hobbes
c)
Baron de Montesquieu
d)
Rousseau
10.
The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers
a)
not specifically granted to the national government nor denied to the states
b)
implied in the 5th Amendment
c)
listed specifically in the 10th Amendment
d)
exercised by both national and state governments
11.
Four basic principles that are embodied in the Constitution of 1787 are
a)
federalism, limited government, protection of immigrants from persecution, separation of powers
b)
checks and balances, federalism, limited government, separation of powers
c)
education of citizens, federalism, limited government, protection of individual property rights
d)
federalism, limited borders for the nation, limited government, separation of powers
12.
In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court established which of the following principles?
a)
states cannot interfere with or tax legitimate activities of the federal government
b)
the judicial branch cannot intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress
c)
the federal Bill of Rights places no limitations on the states
d)
the federal government has the power to regulate commerce
13.
The framers of the Constitution intended to establish
a)
a representative republic
b)
a direct democracy
c)
an authoritarian state
d)
a socialist democracy
14.
Which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?
a)
the Commerce Clause of the Constitution
b)
the habeas corpus clause of the Constitution
c)
the bill of attainder clause of the Constitution
d)
the 1st Amendment
15.
Which Supreme Court case established the concept of judicial review?
a)
Gibbons v Ogden
b)
United States v Lopez
c)
Marbury v Madison
d)
McCulloch v Maryland
16.
The most significant different between the Constitution and the Articles of Confederation was that the Constitution
a)
was difficult to amend, while the Articles was easier to process with a simple majority vote
b)
provided for a presidential system of government, while the Articles provided for a parliamentary system
c)
created a dominant national executive, while the Articles established a dominant national legislature
d)
provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the Articles had a weak central government and few powers
17.
Which of the following clauses in the Constitution justifies the implied powers doctrine?
a)
the Necessary and Proper Clause
b)
the Privileges and Immunities Clause
c)
The Contract Clause
d)
The Debts Clause
18.
The Articles of Confederation implemented the principle of
a)
a unified system of taxes
b)
universal suffrage
c)
an independent judiciary
d)
State sovereignty
19.
John Locke's Second Treatise of Civil Government advocates
a)
a divine monarchy
b)
rights for the minority
c)
majority rights
d)
natural rights
20.
The term "block grants" refers to
a)
a set or block of presidential pardons for persons convicted of violating federal law
b)
education loans named after Rhode Island Senator Clayborn Block
c)
foreign aid grants made to developing nations
d)
federal grants to states for broad programs with few restrictions
21.
A "layer cake" analogy is often used to describe
a)
sovereignty of the states
b)
dual federalism
c)
cooperative federalism
d)
block grants
22.
The terms "fiscal federalism" and "cooperative federalism" refer to situations in which
a)
states are forbidden any activity not specifically approved by the Supreme Court
b)
the federal judiciary uses its power of judicial review to ensure congressional dominance
c)
state, municipal, and local income taxes are pooled by special agreement and redistributed in accordance with individual need
d)
federal, state, and local governments work together to complete a project, with the federal government providing much of the funding
23.
State and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from
a)
categorical grants
b)
block grants
c)
project grants
d)
grants-in-aid
24.
The "Devolution Revolution" is a movement to devolve more responsibilities and powers to the
a)
House of Representatives
b)
Senate
c)
President
d)
States
25.
Which represents the theoretical definition of federalism?
a)
a division of power between the federal government and state governments
b)
a strict separation of power between the federal government and state governments
c)
a division of power between the federal government and state governments, where the states hold the most power
d)
a singular relationship that is characterized by control emanating one way from a central government
26.
The constitutional basis of dual federalism can be found in
a)
the Necessary and Proper Clause
b)
the 10th Amendment
c)
the Elastic Clause
d)
the Implied Power provision
27.
Which of the following term refers to a type of power given specifically to the federal government?
a)
Implied
b)
Inherent
c)
Expressed
d)
Reserved
28.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a reserved power?
a)
Licensing doctors, lawyers, and barbers
b)
Managing local, state and federal elections
c)
Regulating INTRASTATE commerce
d)
Negotiating foreign treaties
29.
Which of the following is a type of congressional law such as a requirement that all public schools have wheelchair ramps that may or may not come with money?
a)
Block grants
b)
Mandates
c)
Categorical grants
d)
Executive orders
30.
What amendment reserves powers not given to the federal government to the states?
a)
1st
b)
10th
c)
24th
d)
Trick Question: No amendment does this
31.
Which of the following groups preferred stronger state governments?
a)
New Deal Democrats in the 1930s
b)
Antifederalists
c)
the Supreme Court under Earl Warren
d)
Whig Party supporters of the American system
32.
Which of the following refers to the process of transferring powers from the federal government to state governments?
a)
Devolution
b)
Monetarism
c)
Reconstruction
d)
Centralization
33.
Which of the following was true of courts under the Articles government?
a)
Individual states did not have their own court systems
b)
There were no federal courts
c)
US legal procedures borrowed practices largely from France.
d)
American states generally did not have state constitutions
34.
Which decision below gave the federal government exclusive power to regulate interstate commerce?
a)
McCulloch v. Maryland
b)
Gibbons v. Ogden
c)
Dred Scott v. Sandford
d)
Plessy v. Ferguson
35.
What program below is an example of a categorical grant?
a)
Welfare
b)
Medicaid
c)
Temporary Aid to Needy Families
d)
The US Department of Defense
36.
The power to tax is a(n)
a)
implied power
b)
concurrent power
c)
reserved power
d)
abused power
37.
The power to print money is a(n)
a)
reserved power
b)
concurrent power
c)
implied
d)
expressed power
38.
The power to run public schools is a(n)
a)
concurrent power
b)
expressed power
c)
reserved power
d)
implied power
39.
Which of the following is NOT a principle of a valid public opinion poll?
a)
representative sample
b)
sampling error
c)
emotional language
d)
"I don't know" responses
40.
Most Americans fall here on the Political Spectrum sharing ideas from both political parties.
a)
Liberal
b)
Moderate
c)
Conservative
41.
A set of ideas, beliefs... about how government should operate and how much government should be involved in our day to day lives.
a)
Political Ideology
b)
Political Party
c)
Political Spectrum
d)
Two Party System
42.
What is political socialization?
a)
All the people who might be interest group members because they share the same common interest.
b)
The process through which an individual acquires his/her particular orientations - his/her knowledge, feelings, and evaluations regarding his/her political world.
c)
How similar cases have been decided in the past.
d)
The distribution of the population's beliefs about politics and policy issues.
43.
The most important factor that influences gain our basic attitudes that shape our political opinions is
a)
the media
b)
church
c)
friends
d)
family
44.
This is the belief that citizens understand politics (political culture) and can influence politics; this is also the amount of faith citizens have in their government.
a)
political socialization
b)
political efficacy
c)
political culture
d)
political ideology
45.
Which person probably has the most political efficacy?
a)
A person who never votes
b)
A person who votes early
c)
A person who votes early and donates money to candidates
d)
A person who votes on election day if it isn't raining
46.
"It is vital that the United States have a large military in order to protect all Americans from threats by terrorist groups."
a)
Liberal
b)
Conservative
47.
"Corporations can't be trusted to treat people fairly they need to be regulated in order to protect workers."
a)
Liberal
b)
Conservative
48.
"Taxes are too high! The government should be smaller and taxes should be lower!"
a)
Liberal
b)
Conservative
49.
Which of the following is true of southern states?
a)
They have always leaned Republican
b)
They have always leaned Democratic
c)
They have no political leaning
d)
They were once loyal to the Democratic Party but now loyal to the Republicans
50.
Of the following, which group typically has the lowest voter turnout?
a)
wealthy persons
b)
18-25 year olds
c)
persons with graduate degrees
d)
persons with high political efficacy
51.
Which of the following citizens is most likely to participate in politics?
a)
A 65 year old male high school graduate
b)
a 35 year old college educated woman
c)
a 70 year old female college professor
d)
a 40 year old man with an associate's degree
52.
Which of the following citizens is most likely to vote?
a)
A 65 year old African American high school graduate
b)
A 25 year old hispanic with an associate's degree
c)
a 45 year old white college professor
d)
an 18 year old African-American just starting college
53.
The 26th amendment greatly increased voter turnout because
a)
it eliminated discriminatory voting laws
b)
lowered the voting age to 18
c)
passing grandfather clauses
d)
required voters to pass a literacy test
54.
A poll that takes place as voters leave the primary election is
a)
a push poll
b)
a straw poll
c)
a random sampling poll
d)
an exit poll
55.
The most important determinant of who someone will vote for in an election is:
a)
Candidate's financial status
b)
Candidate Appeal
c)
Candidate's partisan identification (party)
d)
Candidate's platform on issues
56.
Which of the following Supreme Court decisions made it dramatically easier for PACs to spend money in campaigns?
a)
Buckley v. Valeo
b)
Citizens United
c)
Reed v. Reed
d)
Korematsu
57.
Which of the following is MOST important for protecting interest group activities?
a)
3rd amendment
b)
Supremacy Clause
c)
14th amendment
d)
1st amendment
58.
Which of the following is an interest group that lobbies on behalf of the elderly?
a)
AARP
b)
NAACP
c)
NRA
d)
AFL-CIO
59.
Which of the following is a way interest groups can lobby the courts?
a)
File a writ of mandamus
b)
Submit certiorari
c)
Petition in forma pauperis
d)
File an amicus curiae brief
60.
What is one way minor parties affect American politics?
a)
they get voters to vote for major party candidates
b)
they get the attention of newspapers, television, and radio
c)
they win state and local elections
d)
they influence the outcomes of elections
61.
goods that a group can restrict to those who are members
a)
selective benefits
b)
group benefits
c)
actual benefits
d)
free rider benefits
62.
"friend of the court"; legal brief submitted by interest groups to inform the court of their position on a case
a)
litigation
b)
amicus curiae brief
c)
going public
d)
class action suit
63.
argues that interest group activities provide additional representation and compete against each to acheive political outcomes
a)
elite theory
b)
pluralist theory
c)
Olson's Theory
d)
hyperpluralist theory
64.
The official statement of a party's policy goals, released as party of the national party convention, is known as
a)
grassroots organization
b)
the party in the electorate
c)
the party platform
d)
the party pyramid
65.
Which of the following helped create the soft money loophole of campaign donations?
a)
Buckley v. Valeo
b)
Baker v. Carr
c)
Citizens United v. FEC
d)
U.S. v Nixon
66.
When fewer voters support one of the two major parties and begin to think of themselves as "independent" voters, we have seen
a)
realignment
b)
dealignment
c)
abstention
d)
straight-ticket voting
67.
A shift in party allegiances, such as Southerners leaving the Democratic Party and moving support to the Republican Party , is known as
a)
realignment
b)
dealignment
c)
coattail effect
d)
proportional representation
68.
The __________ problem occurs when people fail to join a groupbecause they can get the benefits the group offers without contributing to the group’s efforts.
a)
pluralist
b)
free-rider
c)
group coordination
d)
group formation
69.
Increasing public attention to specific problems is a core feature of the media’s __________ power.
a)
gate-keeping
b)
agenda-setting
c)
investigative
d)
watchdog
70.
An intentional news leak for the purpose of assessing the political reaction to that news is called a(n) __________.
a)
press conference
b)
trial balloon
c)
talking head
d)
media event
71.
Television, radio, newspapers, magazines, the Internet, and other forms of communication are collectively referred to as the __________.
a)
fourth branch of government
b)
mass media
c)
world of high-tech politics
d)
World Wide Web
72.
James Madison described how a government could be designed to control the effects of __________.
a)
political parties
b)
factions
c)
monarchies
d)
representative government
73.
The Democratic and Republican candidates for president are formally nominated by the __________.
a)
national party conventions
b)
presidential caucuses
c)
national committees
d)
Electoral College
74.
The trading of votes between legislators so that each legislator gets what s/he wants.
a)
Logrolling
b)
Pork-barrelling
c)
Cloture
d)
Filibustering
75.
A piece of legislation before it becomes a law.
a)
An Great Idea!
b)
Constituent Service
c)
A Proposal
d)
A Bill
76.
Senate bills are subject to unlimited debate unless 3/5 of the Senate (60 Senators) votes for...
a)
Filibuster
b)
Ridership
c)
Veto
d)
Cloture
77.
Which is not a major function of Congress?
a)
Enforcement
b)
Oversight
c)
Lawmaking
d)
Representation
78.
Who typically wins a Congressional election?
a)
Incumbents
b)
Former Senators
c)
Former House Representatives
d)
Political Newcomers
79.
The Chair of a committee is likely the...
a)
Member of the majority party with the most constituents
b)
Oldest
c)
Member of the Minority Party with the most seniority
d)
Member with the most expertise
80.
When a version of a bill is passed in the House and different version is passed in the Senate, it goes to...
a)
The Majority Leader
b)
Servicing
c)
The President
d)
Conference Committee
81.
When a member of Congress gets a project passed that will bring jobs or other benefits to her district/state, it's called...
a)
Riding
b)
Pork-Barrel Spending
c)
Servicing
d)
Gerrymandering
82.
This is an amendment to a Senate bill that deals with an issue unrelated to the content of the bill.
a)
Cloture
b)
Rider
c)
Pork-Barrel
d)
Option
83.
A tactic to block legislation that involves one or more Senators holding the floor indefinitely is called...
a)
Filibustering
b)
Riding
c)
Logrolling
d)
Hot-Airing
84.
The reallocation of seats in the House of Representatives (completed after each census).
a)
Redistricting
b)
Gerrymandering
c)
None of these
d)
Reapportionment
85.
A Senate panel holds hearings on how the Department of the Interior is allocating its budget. This is part of...
a)
Oversight
b)
Federalism
c)
Politicking
d)
Apportionment
86.
A person who lives in the district or state being represented in Congress is called a/an
a)
Serviced Citizen
b)
Constituent
c)
Voter
d)
Rider
87.
The highest-ranked member of the House of Representatives is the...
a)
Majority Leader
b)
Whip
c)
Nae-Nae
d)
Speaker
88.
Most legislation introduced in Congress
a)
is passed
b)
is vetoed
c)
never makes it out of committee
d)
gets stuck in conference committee
89.
The Framers of the Constitution assumed that most national power would be held by the
a)
executive branch.
b)
legislative branch.
c)
Department of Defense.
d)
judicial branch
90.
The division of a legislature into two separate assemblies is called
a)
representative democracy.
b)
checks and balances.
c)
a two-party system.
d)
bicameralism.
91.
A representative who is performing the role of a trustee is
a)
mirroring the views of the majority of the constituents who elected him or her.
b)
supporting the president on all of his or her legislative problems.
c)
acting according to the broad interests of the entire society.
d)
supporting his or her political party.
92.
A legislator from Florida who votes, against his or her personal beliefs, to support subsidies for orange growers would be acting
a)
as a trustee
b)
as a logroller
c)
as an instructed delegate
d)
on what he or she believes is best for the entire society.
93.
Oversight is
a)
the process by which Congress follows up on the laws it has enacted.
b)
the process by which Congress reviews the actions of subcommittees.
c)
the time of the year that Congress chooses its leadership.
d)
when Congress passes legislation.
94.
Which of the following is NOT a function of Congress?
a)
Determining if laws are constitutional.
b)
Educating the public through hearings and debates.
c)
Representing constituents.
d)
Resolving conflicts between different groups.
95.
The necessary and proper clause
a)
has provided the basis for an expanded role of the national government.
b)
has greatly expanded the presidential powers.
c)
was in the original Constitution, but was eliminated as a consequence of the Twenty-Seventh Amendment.
d)
is located in the Constitution in the text of the Tenth Amendment.
96.
The largest occupational group among members of Congress is
a)
lawyers.
b)
educators.
c)
businesspersons.
d)
lobbyists.
97.
Which of the following statements about midterm elections is true?
a)
Voter turnout increases in midterm elections.
b)
The President's party will usually gain seats in Congress.
c)
Voter turnout falls sharply in midterm elections.
d)
Incumbents are more likely to lose midterm elections.
98.
Gerrymandering is
a)
legislation passed in southern states to limit African American participation in elections.
b)
the drawing of legislative district boundary lines to give the dominant party an advantage.
c)
known to give the minority party an electoral advantage at the expense of the dominant party.
d)
a process that attempts to limit debate on a bill in the Senate.
99.
Members of Congress are granted generous franking privileges that
a)
permit them to mail letters to their constituents for free.
b)
allow them to charge items to a special expense account.
c)
allow members unlimited phone calls to their district without charge.
d)
permit them to receive four, round-trip airfares to their district.
100.
The president of the Senate is
a)
the leader of the majority party in the Senate.
b)
the senator with the most seniority, regardless of party.
c)
the fourth person in line to succeed the president.
d)
the vice president of the United States.
101.
According to the Constitution, the minimum age to be a Senator is
a)
25
b)
30
c)
35
d)
40
102.
In order for a treaty to go into effect, it must be
a)
signed by the members of the UN Security Council.
b)
approved by 3/4 of the state legislatures.
c)
passed by a Supreme Court majority.
d)
approved by a 2/3 vote in the Senate.
103.
Congress can remove the president from office.
a)
True
b)
False
104.
A _____ is a temporary committee established to deal with issues that either overlap or fall outside the areas of expertise of standing committees.
a)
standing
b)
conference
c)
joint
d)
select
105.
Every two years, _____ of the Senate must stand for reelection
a)
one-half
b)
three-quarters
c)
two-thirds
d)
one-third
106.
Until 1913, U.S. senators were selected by
a)
the people
b)
the House of Representatives
c)
state legislatures
d)
the Electoral College
107.
If the president neither signs nor vetoes a bill within 10 days while Congress is in session, the bill
a)
is pocket vetoed
b)
becomes law
c)
is killed
d)
is sent back to Congress
108.
Which body originates ALL bills concerning revenue and taxes?
a)
House
b)
Senate
c)
Congress
d)
Supreme Court
109.
How long must you be a U.S. citizen to serve in the House of Representatives?
a)
7 years
b)
9 years
c)
3 years
d)
5 years
110.
Which describes a standing committee of Congress?
a)
Committees on which both senators and representatives serve.
b)
Congressional committees appointed for a specific purpose, such as the Watergate investigation.
c)
Permanent committees found in both houses of Congress that are responsible for legislation and oversight within a specific policy area
d)
Small committees within another committee of Congress designed to specialize in a sub-category
111.
The House consists of _____ members.
a)
100
b)
270
c)
435
d)
50
112.
The necessary and proper clause is outlined in which section of Article I?
a)
section 3
b)
section 5
c)
section 8
d)
section 9
113.
How long does a Congress last?
a)
1 year
b)
2 years
c)
4 years
d)
6 years
114.
Each Congress is divided into two
a)
baseball teams
b)
sessions
c)
terms
115.
A member of the House is elected for a term of how many years?
a)
1 year
b)
2 years
c)
4 years
d)
6 years
116.
Who is the most powerful person in the Senate?
a)
Majority Leader
b)
President
c)
President pro tempore
d)
Speaker
117.
Which position is an honorary one given to the longest serving member of the majority party in the Senate?
a)
Majority Leader
b)
President
c)
President pro tempore
d)
Speaker
118.
Who is next in line to become President of the United States if the Vice President is unable to take over?
a)
Majority Leader of the Senate
b)
President of the Senate
c)
President pro tempore of the Senate
d)
Speaker of the House
119.
How many members are in Congress?
a)
100
b)
270
c)
435
d)
535
120.
The Standing Committee that raises revenue in the House is the
a)
Appropriations Committee
b)
Revenue Committee
c)
IRS Committee
d)
Ways and Means Committee
121.
The House committee that allocates funds is the
a)
Ways and Means Committee
b)
Authorization Committee
c)
Appropriations Committee
d)
Allocations Committee
122.
One party controls the White House and another party controls one or both houses of Congress.
a)
Ad Hoc Structure
b)
Pyramid Structure
c)
Divided Government
d)
Gridlock
123.
The president's use of his prestige and visibility to guide or enthuse the American public.
a)
Lame Duck
b)
Bully pulpit
c)
cabinet
d)
electoral college
124.
Charges against a president approved by a majority of the House of Representatives
a)
Eviction
b)
Conviction
c)
Resignation
d)
Impeachment
125.
Not officially a power in the Constitution, this is the idea that the President is allowed to withhold information from Congress, media, the public in general etc. in the best interest of protecting the government and public. As a result, the President can potentially block subpoenas or other congressional interventions (refer to US v. Nixon)
a)
executive privilege
b)
executive order
c)
executive agreement
d)
executive decision
126.
Which amendment limits presidents to have two terms?
a)
19
b)
22
c)
21
d)
20
127.
The Pocket Veto can be used only when
a)
Congress is in session.
b)
Congress is adjourned.
c)
when a new president is about to take office.
d)
the President forgets about the bill.
128.
The 3-Member body appointed by the President to advise on economic issues is the
a)
Council of Economic Advisors.
b)
Congressional Budget Office.
c)
National Economic Council
d)
Office of Management and Budget
129.
The Office of Management and Budget has the primary responsibility for doing which of the following?
a)
Implementing federal unemployment policy
b)
Preparing the budget
c)
Appropriating funds for the budget
d)
Approving the budget
130.
How many Senators must agree to remove a President or Federal Judge?
a)
all of them
b)
unanimity
c)
supermajority of 2/3rds
d)
supermajority of 3/4ths
131.
Presidents can appoint ambassadors to foreign countries. Who must approve these appointments?
a)
Both houses of Congress
b)
US Senate, by 2/3rds majority
c)
US Senate, by simple majority
d)
US Supreme Court
132.
People chosen to cast each state's votes in a presidential election. Georgia has 16 people that represent our vote. This number is based on population.
a)
Congress
b)
Cabinet
c)
Executive Agency
d)
Electoral College
133.
The heads of the fifteen executive branch departments of the federal government.
a)
electoral college
b)
Congress
c)
Cabinet
d)
Supreme Court Justices
134.
Must be 35 years old
Must be a natural/native born citizen
Must be a resident of the US for 14 years
Must be a natural/native born citizen
Must be a resident of the US for 14 years
a)
Requirements for judge
b)
Requirements for Pres. and V.Pres of the US
c)
Requirements for a House of Representative Member
d)
Representatives for Congress
135.
This person is the President’s closest assistant (maybe even more than the VP). He oversees the executive office of the President, selects White House staff, manages what is going in and out of the White House, and lobbies on behalf of the President.
a)
Secretary of State
b)
Speaker of the House
c)
White House Chief of Staff
d)
First Lady
136.
This is a command made by the President that has the force of law. However, it is not actually a law in and of itself. He is basically telling the agencies in his branch how he expects certain existing laws to be enforced.
a)
marked up bill
b)
executive agreement
c)
executive order
d)
judicial review
137.
Annual speech that the President gives to Congress (and the rest of the nation) in January where he describes the current status of our nation and sets forth his agenda for the upcoming year
a)
national convention speech
b)
acceptance speech
c)
state of the union address
d)
do you really have to think about this?
138.
An agreement the President makes with another country that is “poltically” binding. It is not legally binding which makes it different from an actual treaty. This is a way that Presidents can make agreements with other countries without having to get Senate approval.
a)
treaty
b)
executive agreement
c)
bully pulpit
d)
multilateral agreement
139.
Also known as the EOP, this consists of the President and his immediate White House staff and support staff (Chief of State, VP, National Security Council, Council of Economic advisors, etc.
a)
White House Staff
b)
Office of Management and Budget
c)
Executive Order of the President
d)
Executive Office of the President
140.
According to the U.S. Constitution, if no one candidate receives a majority vote of the Electoral College, who chooses the president?
a)
the U.S. Senate
b)
the U.S. House of Representatives
c)
both the Senate and House in joint session
d)
the people in a runoff election
141.
A president is most successful passing legislative initiatives when Congress is
a)
in recess.
b)
acting in an election year as opposed to a year when no federal election is scheduled to be held.
c)
controlled by the president’s own party.
d)
concentrating on domestic policy issues as opposed to foreign policy issues.
142.
The president’s constitutional roles, such as chief executive and commander-in-chief
a)
are based on very precise constitutional grants of power.
b)
are rooted in tradition only; they have no basis in the language of the Constitution.
c)
have expanded in practice to be more powerful than the writers of the Constitution intended.
d)
are absolute powers under the Constitution.
143.
The War Powers Act was enacted in order to
a)
allow the president more leeway in committing U.S. troops to combat.
b)
define the relationship between the United States and its allies.
c)
limit the president’s war-making power.
d)
weaken Congress in foreign policy matters.
144.
How many presidents have been impeached in U.S. history?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
145.
The most important factor influencing the level of a president’s support is typically
a)
world conditions.
b)
the condition of the nation’s economy.
c)
the national crime rate.
d)
is in the president’s skill in the use of television.
146.
The right to keep executive communication confidential, especially if they relate to National Security
a)
Executive privilege
b)
Executive Order
c)
Diplomatic immunity
147.
Federal District courts were originally set up by:
a)
State Governments
b)
Article III of the Constitution
c)
Congress
d)
1st President (George Washington)
148.
Federal Court Judges will have to run for re-election:
a)
every 4 years
b)
every 10 years
c)
every 4-8 years depending on the state
d)
never, they have life terms
149.
A case in which a person has been accused of breaking a law.
a)
Criminal Case
b)
Federal Case
c)
Civil Case
d)
Corporal Case
150.
District Judges are appointed by ___________ and approved by the Senate.
a)
the State's Governor
b)
the President
c)
the citizens, via a vote
d)
House of Representatives
151.
The court with the authority to hear and decide a case for the first time is said to have:
a)
Jurisdiction
b)
Original Jurisdiction
c)
Premier Jurisdiction
d)
E Pluribus Unum
152.
A case in which two parties are having a disagreement and cannot resolve the issue.
a)
Criminal Case
b)
Federal Case
c)
Civil Case
d)
Double Jeopardy C
153.
A court’s authority to hear and decide cases
a)
judicial review
b)
writ of certiorari
c)
jurisdiction
d)
stare decisis
154.
Which of the following has no original jurisdiction?
a)
District court
b)
US Court of Appeals
c)
Supreme Court
155.
Amicus curiae briefs are
a)
a form of inside lobbying that attempts to influence the Court’s agenda
b)
A form of outside lobbying that attempts to influence the Court’s decisions
c)
A form of outside lobbying that attempts to influence the Court’s reputation
d)
A form of inside lobbying that attempts to influence the Courts decisions
156.
The opinion written by the judges on the winning side is known as the ...
a)
majority opinion
b)
prevailing opinion
c)
disenting opinion
d)
fina opinion
157.
A written opinion of the Supreme Court is best defined as
a)
a press release.
b)
advice to the President.
c)
the Court's ruling on the issue presented, its reasoning, and applicable law.
d)
a ruling when it hears oral arguments.
158.
A Supreme Court justice who disagrees with the majority opinion may
a)
ask the Court to hear the case again.
b)
send the case back to a lower court.
c)
write a dissenting opinion.
d)
file an amicus curiae brief.
159.
The concept of senatorial courtesy refers to the
a)
Senate approving judges only if they belong to the same party that is in control of the Senate.
b)
practice of allowing senators to have the exclusive right to nominate candidates for the federal district courts in their state.
c)
Senate's deferring to the president and routinely approving his or her nominees.
d)
practice of allowing a senator to veto a judicial appointment for federal district courts in his or her state.
160.
How does the executive branch "check" the Supreme Court?
a)
appointing members of Congress to committee
b)
appointing Supreme Court justices
c)
appointing members to The Cabinet
d)
appointing The Speaker of the House
161.
Agreement among four justices on the Supreme Court is always sufficent to
a)
decide the outcome of the case
b)
write a majority opinion
c)
set a precedent
d)
accept a case for consideration
162.
Which of the following best describes a precedent?
a)
Any previous ruling issued by the court
b)
The earlier term of the presiding justice
c)
When a prior ruling sets the standard for future rulings of a similar type
d)
The ruling issued by a lower court on the same or similar issue
163.
The most important factors influencing the president’s selection of judges and justices appear to be ________.
a)
geography and religion
b)
ideology and partisanship
c)
race and gender
d)
judicial and elective experience
164.
A formal acceptance by the Supreme Court to review a decision of a lower court is called ________.
a)
pendit lite
b)
juri prudens
c)
amicus curiae
d)
writ of certiorari
165.
The Judiciary Act of 1789 ________.
a)
established qualifications for federal judges
b)
reversed the Marbury v. Madison decision
c)
amended the U.S. Constitution
d)
established the federal court system
166.
An oral argument ________.
a)
is used in place of submitting a brief
b)
is opposing lawyers presenting their cases in 30 minutes
c)
can take up to a full day for complex cases
d)
must be heard by all sitting justices
167.
Who represents the US before the Supreme Court
a)
Solicitor General
b)
Attorney General
c)
Surgeon General
d)
Lawyer General
168.
The 3 part test for parochial schools to get government funding is called the
a)
Litmus Test
b)
Fairness Doctrine
c)
Lemon Test
d)
None of the choices are correct
169.
The Supreme Court case that said school led prayer is unconstitutional is
a)
New Jersey v TLO
b)
Tinker v Des Moines
c)
Engel v Vitale
d)
Fudd v Bunny
170.
Tinker v Des Moines established
a)
symbolic speech
b)
pure speech
c)
right to counsel
d)
protection from self-incrimination
171.
The 5th Amendment deals with
a)
search & seizure
b)
self-incrimination & double jeopardy
c)
establishment & exercise clauses
d)
none of the choices are correct
172.
Selective Incorporation is
a)
bringing the States under the limits of the Bill of Rights
b)
unconstitutional according to the Heart of Atlanta v US case
c)
allows the government to censor the media in times of national security
d)
the protection against being tried twice for the same crime
173.
Gideon v Wainright dealt with
a)
the right to remain silent
b)
the right to fair and speedy trial
c)
the right to an attorney
d)
cruel and unusual punishment
174.
The Exclusionary Rule says
a)
you can practice your religion as long as you don't break the law
b)
government cannot support nor hinder religion
c)
illegal evidence is not admissible in court
d)
profiling is legal in times of national crisis
175.
The First Amendment includes the freedoms of
a)
speech and the right to bear arms
b)
religion, press, and right to counsel
c)
petition, assembly, press, speech, and religion
d)
press, petition, and the right to vote
176.
The power of the courts to determine which acts of Congress, the executive branch, and the state legislatures are constitutional is known as
a)
Judicial Review
b)
Stare Decisis
c)
Precedent
d)
Original Jurisdiction
177.
The decision in Texas v. Johnson prevented governments from banning flag burning because such laws violates
a)
Property Rights
b)
Free Speech
c)
Free religion rights
d)
Public Opinion polls
178.
Schenck v. United States established that "Clear and Present Danger" could limit which basic right?
a)
Freedom of Speech
b)
Freedom of Press
c)
Freedom of Religion
d)
Cruel and Unusual Punishment
179.
What are civil liberties?
a)
make up the unwritten Constitution
b)
the rights to vote and participate in the political process
c)
laws that provide and set limits on one's freedoms
d)
individual legal and constitutional protections against the government
180.
Where are American civil liberties found?
a)
the Preamble
b)
the Bill of Rights
c)
the Declaration of Independence
d)
Article IV
181.
The _________ Amendment says that just because there is a special listing of SOME rights (certain rughts are ennumerated), does NOT mean that OTHER rights do not exist.
a)
1st
b)
3rd
c)
5th
d)
9th
182.
Established precedent for the doctrine of selective incorporation, thus extending most of the requirements of the Bill of Rights to the states.
a)
Gitlow v. United States
b)
Miranda v. Arizona
c)
Roe v. Wade
d)
Barron v. Baltimore
183.
Extended the exclusionary rule to the states. Illustrated the process of selective incorporation through the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
a)
Mapp v. Ohio
b)
Gitlow v. United States
c)
Tinker v. Des Moines Independent School District
d)
Oregon v. Smith
184.
Which clause of the 14th Amendment is used as the basis for selective incorporation?
a)
Citizenship
b)
Equal Protection
c)
Due Process
d)
Privileges and Immunities
185.
The doctrine of separate but equal was ruled unconstitutional in
a)
Plessy v. Ferguson
b)
Brown v. Board of Education
c)
Citizens United v. FEC
d)
Mapp v. Ohio
186.
The Civil Rights Act of 1964
a)
Banned racial discrimination in housing
b)
Banned discrimination in public facilities
c)
Allowed 'separate but equal' facilities based on race
d)
Banned discrimination in hotels and restaurants
187.
The Voting Rights Act of 1965
a)
Granted women the right to vote
b)
Banned race based discrimination
c)
Suspended use of literacy tests at voting centers
d)
Grants African Americans the right to vote
188.
Which Amendment guarantees the right to bear arms
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
4th
d)
5th
189.
Which Amendment protects you from cruel and unusual punishment?
a)
6th
b)
7th
c)
8th
d)
9th
190.
What gave women the right to vote?
a)
1st Amendment
b)
15th Amendment
c)
26th Amendment
d)
19th Amendment
191.
(1883) Bill of Rights does not apply to the states
a)
Barron v. Baltimore
b)
Brandenburg v. Ohio
c)
Buckley v. Valeo
d)
Gibbons v. Ogden
192.
(1824) Steamboats on the Hudson River. The Constitution gives the Federal government power to regulate commerce. Opened door to the use of commerce clause by the Federal government to control states.
a)
Gideon v. Wainwright
b)
Gibbons v. Ogden
c)
Griswold v. Connecticut
d)
Korematsu v. US
193.
(1819) US Constitution is "the supreme law of the land." This case began the process of expanding the power of the federal government through the necessary and proper clause. (Implied powers; since Congress has the power to tax and spend, the creation of a nation bank is implied [necessary and proper] to that end).
a)
McCulloch v. Maryland
b)
Marbury v. Madison
c)
Miller v. Johnson
d)
Plessy v. Ferguson
194.
(1973) A first amendment case. The Court defined obscenity. To be obscene, the work, taken as a whole, must be judged by "the average person applying contemporary community standards" to appeal to the "prurient interest" or to depict "in a patently offensive way, sexual conduct specifically defined by applicable state law" and to lack "serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value"
a)
Miller v. California
b)
Mapp v. Ohio
c)
Griswold v. Connecticut
d)
New York Times v. Sullivan
195.
(1990) Case determined that the state could deny unemployment benefits to a person fired for violating a state prohibition on the use of peyote, even though the use of the drug was part of a religious ritual. Stats may accommodate otherwise illegal acts done in pursuit of religious beliefs, they are not required to do so though.
a)
Oregon Employment Division v. Smith
b)
Powell v. Alabama
c)
Furman v. Georgia
d)
Weeks v. U.S.
196.
(1965) Citizens have an implied right to privacy, including the right to use contraceptives
a)
Griswold v. Connecticut
b)
Lemon v. Kurtzman
c)
Miller v. California
d)
Roe v. Wade
197.
(1973) Establishes a woman’s right to an abortion under specific circumstances
a)
Roe v. Wade
b)
Hazelwood v. Kuhlmeier
c)
Buckley v. Valeo
d)
Gregg v. Georgia
198.
(1978) Race can be considered in college admissions, but no racial quotas are allowed
a)
Regents of California v. Bakke
b)
Santa Fe ISD v. Doe
c)
Gratz v. Bollinger
d)
Engle v. Vitale
199.
The outcome of this case is that slaves are considered property. As property, and non-citizens, they have no legal right to go to court in the first place. As a side note, the Supreme Court also declared the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
a)
Dred Scott v. Sandford
b)
Plessy v. Ferguson
c)
Brown v. Board of Education
d)
Swann v. Charlotte Mecklenburg
200.
This case is based on the watergate scandal. The President tried to use his executive privilege to withhold information during the investigation. The court said he couldn’t do that. His executive privilege does not protect him from due process (he is not above the law).
a)
US v. Nixon
b)
Bush v. Gore
c)
Citizens United v. FEC
d)
Buckley v. Valeo
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