wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

End of Year Exam

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of a balanced force?

a)

a baby pushed in a stroller on a sidewalk

b)

a child running down a path

c)

a car traveling on a highway

d)

a porch swing hanging from the porch roof

2.

Which of the following results in a helpful increase of friction?

a)

sandpaper used to smooth wood

b)

wax applied to wooden skis

c)

sand applied to a slick sidewalk

d)

ball bearings added to skate wheels

3.

Which of the following results in a helpful decrease of friction?

a)

force applied while scrubbing

b)

oil added to a car engine

c)

sand applied to an icy road surface

d)

deep tread added to snow tires

4.

Which of the following are two factors that determine speed?

a)

acceleration and time

b)

velocity and time

c)

distance and time

d)

motion and time

5.

Which of the following explains the difference between speed and velocity?

a)

One has motion, and the other does not.

b)

One has direction, and the other does not.

c)

One involves time, and the other does not.

d)

One involves acceleration, and the other does not.

6.

Which of the following choices best represents force?

a)

a push or a pull always causing motion

b)

a push or a pull always causing acceleration

c)

a push or a pull acting without an object

d)

a push or a pull acting on an object

7.

When the net forces equal 0 N, they are which of the following?

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

c)

a push

d)

a pull

8.

Which of the following always causes change in speed, direction, or both?

a)

balanced forces

b)

unbalanced forces

c)

either balanced or unbalanced forces

d)

any combination of forces

9.

Which of the following causes an object to start moving?

a)

balanced forces

b)

unbalanced forces

c)

either balanced or unbalanced forces

d)

any combination of forces

10.

What is a force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are in contact?

a)

friction

b)

motion

c)

velocity

d)

acceleration

11.

Which are the two factors that determine the amount of friction?

a)

the force and the roughness of the surfaces

b)

hills and valleys and the roughness of the surfaces

c)

the force and how much surfaces come in contact

d)

the force and the weight exerted on the surfaces

12.

In which of the following activities is friction helpful?

a)

engine parts wearing out

b)

car tires moving a car forward

c)

soil erosion

d)

holes developing in your socks

13.

In which of the following activities is friction harmful?

a)

brakes stopping a car

b)

a person walking

c)

an eraser erasing

d)

car engine parts wearing out

14.

Which is does NOT reduce friction?

a)

using ball bearings

b)

sanding with paper

c)

pouring sand on ice

d)

lubricating with oil

15.

As the distance between two objects increases, the force of gravity between them

a)

decreases.

b)

does not change.

c)

increases only slightly.

d)

increases greatly.

16.

Which of the following does NOT describe mass?

a)

remains constant

b)

is a measure of matter

c)

is a measure of gravitational force

d)

is measured in kilograms

17.

Which of the following does NOT describe weight?

a)

changes as gravitational force changes

b)

is constant

c)

is a measure of gravitational force

d)

can be measured in newtons

18.

To calculate an object’s acceleration, you need to know

a)

distance traveled and speed.

b)

starting point, endpoint, and the object’s mass.

c)

starting velocity, final velocity, and time it takes to change velocity.

d)

average speed and distance.

19.

Mass is

a)

different on the moon than on Earth.

b)

a measure of gravitational force.

c)

a measure of the amount of matter.

d)

measured in newtons.

20.

When a mover puts furniture on a dolly with wheels, which type of friction is the mover using to make his job easier?

a)

static friction

b)

sliding kinetic friction

c)

rolling kinetic friction

d)

gravitational friction

21.

A hiker’s velocity begins at 1.8 m/s uphill and changes to 1.5 m/s uphill. How do you know that the hiker has a negative acceleration?

a)

His direction changed.

b)

His direction was unchanged.

c)

His speed increased.

d)

His speed decreased.

22.

A student has a weight of 420 N on Earth. What is the student’s weight on the moon. (Moon’s gravity = 1/6 of Earth’s gravity).

a)

70 N

b)

2520 N

c)

70 kg

d)

2520 kg

23.

An unbalanced force can cause an object’s motion to change by

a)

changing direction or speed; starting but not stopping motion

b)

changing direction or speed, starting or stopping motion.

c)

changing direction or speed; stopping but not starting motion

d)

changing direction or speed only.

24.

The law of universal gravitation says that gravitational force is

a)

related to mass and distance.

b)

related to weight and distance.

c)

related to mass and friction.

d)

related to weight and friction.

25.

The force of gravity is greater between two objects that

a)

have greater masses.

b)

have rougher surfaces.

c)

are farther apart.

d)

are moving at greater speed.

26.

Two forces act on an object. One force has a magnitude of 10 N and is directed toward the north. The other has a magnitude of 5 N directed toward the south. The object experiences a net force of

a)

5 N south.

b)

15 N north.

c)

50 N north.

d)

5 N north.

27.

What would you call a building if you compared it with a moving student?

a)

a reference point

b)

a compass

c)

a ruler

d)

a beacon

28.

What is the SI unit for speed?

a)

kilogram

b)

newton

c)

m/s

d)

m/s/s

29.

Which is true about the reaction force of a chair you are sitting on?

a)

The force is greater than your weight.

b)

The force is equal to your weight.

c)

The force is determined by many factors.

d)

The force varies.

30.

Which is a common unbalanced force acting on objects in motion?

a)

inertia

b)

acceleration

c)

friction

d)

speed

31.

When a train increases its velocity, its momentum

a)

decreases.

b)

remains unchanged.

c)

increases.

d)

is transferred to it surroundings.

32.

A car with a mass of 1400 kg moves along the ice with a constant velocity of 18.0 m/s. What is the car’s momentum?

a)

77.8 N

b)

25,200 N

c)

77.8 kg • m/s

d)

25,200 kg • m/s

33.

When a bowling ball collides with a bowling pin, the momentum of the ball

a)

increases slightly as the velocity of the pin increases.

b)

decreases slightly as the velocity of the pin increases.

c)

decreases slightly as the velocity of the pin decreases.

d)

does not change at all.

34.

If a moving boxcar gently collides with a boxcar at rest and the two boxcars move together, their combined momentum will be

a)

greater than the original momentum of the moving boxcar.

b)

equal to the original momentum of the moving boxcar.

c)

less than the original momentum of the moving boxcar.

d)

zero.

35.

If an action force is a cue ball hitting a billiard ball, then the reaction force is

a)

exerted on the table.

b)

exerted on all the other billiard balls.

c)

not present.

d)

exerted by the billiard ball on the cue ball.

36.

If a tennis ball, a solid rubber ball, and a solid steel ball were dropped at the same time from the same height, which would hit the ground first? (Assume there is no air resistance.)

a)

All would hit at the same time.

b)

The solid rubber ball would hit first.

c)

The solid steel ball would hit first.

d)

The tennis ball would hit first.

37.

Which of the following objects has the least acceleration?

a)

an empty shopping cart pushed with a hard force

b)

a full shopping cart pushed with a hard force

c)

an empty shopping cart pushed with a light force

d)

a full shopping cart pushed with a light force

38.

A crumpled piece of paper hits the ground before a flat sheet of paper because

a)

the acceleration of gravity is greater on the crumpled paper.

b)

there is more air resistance against the flat paper.

c)

the crumpled paper is more massive.

d)

the crumpled paper is less massive.

39.

Orbital motion is a combination of forward motion and

a)

frictional resistance.

b)

free fall.

c)

horizontal acceleration.

d)

weightlessness.

40.

According to Newton’s first law of motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will

a)

remain in motion.

b)

eventually come to a stop.

c)

change its momentum.

d)

accelerate.

41.

Why do astronauts in orbiting spacecraft appear weightless?

a)

Nothing in space exerts a force of gravity on the astronauts.

b)

The astronauts are in free fall along with the spaceship.

c)

The astronauts have no mass in space.

d)

The spaceship exerts equal force on an astronaut from all sides.

42.

An ice skater with a mass of 65 kg moves along the ice with a constant velocity of 2.0 m/s. What is the skater’s momentum?

a)

130 kg • m/s

b)

32 kg • m/s

c)

130 N

d)

32 N

43.

Why does a ball thrown horizontally follow a path that is curved downward?

a)

There is no acceleration on the ball.

b)

The ball is accelerated in the horizontal direction only.

c)

The ball is accelerated by gravity in the vertical direction only.

d)

The ball is accelerated in both the vertical and horizontal directions.

44.

Air resistance causes the speed of a falling object to

a)

increase.

b)

decrease.

c)

remain unchanged.

d)

become zero.

45.

A feather is in free fall when the force of gravity

a)

is greater than the force of air resistance.

b)

is less than the force of air resistance.

c)

is equal to the force of air resistance.

d)

is the only force acting on it.

46.

A falling object’s terminal velocity is reached when the force of gravity

a)

is greater than the force of air resistance.

b)

is less than the force of air resistance.

c)

is equal to the force of air resistance.

d)

is the only force acting on the object.

47.

What is a device that makes work easier by changing the size or direction of force?

a)

power

b)

watt

c)

machine

d)

force

48.

What is the work done by a machine on an object?

a)

power

b)

work input

c)

work output

d)

lever

49.

What is the work that you do on a machine?

a)

power

b)

work input

c)

work output

d)

lever

50.

What is the number of times the machine multiplies force?

a)

power

b)

output force

c)

mechanical efficiency

d)

mechanical advantage

51.

Which equation would you use to find mechanical advantage?

a)

MA = work output/work input ´ 100

b)

MA = output force/input force

c)

MA = work input/work output ´ 100

d)

MA = input force/output force

52.

In which situation is a person doing work on an object?

a)

A school crossing guard raises a stop sign that weighs 10 N.

b)

A student walks while wearing a backpack that weighs 15 N.

c)

A man exerts 350 N force on a rope attached to a house.

d)

A worker holds a box 1 m off the floor.

53.

If a barbell weighs 160 N, what other information do you need to calculate how much work it takes to lift it?

a)

the shape of the weights

b)

how high the barbell is being lifted

c)

the strength of the person doing the lifting

d)

the amount of output force

54.

How does a ramp make lifting a heavy object easier?

a)

The object is moved over a shorter distance.

b)

The ramp increases the amount of work you do.

c)

Less force is needed to move the object over a longer distance.

d)

More force is needed to move the object over a longer distance.

55.

If an identical stack of books is lifted the same distance and one person does the job twice as fast, which of the following is done twice as much?

a)

work input

b)

work output

c)

power

d)

efficiency

56.

If the work output of a machine is always less than the work input, where does the missing work go?

a)

It is used to get the machine started.

b)

It is used to overcome the friction created by the machine.

c)

It is used to keep the machine running.

d)

There isn’t enough power present.

57.

Greg applies a force of 100 N to move a box 5 meters. How much work did he do?

a)

100 J

b)

500 J

c)

5 J

d)

500 N

58.

If you exert 20 N of force on a screwdriver and it exerts 40 N on a paint can lid, what is the screwdriver’s mechanical advantage?

a)

2

b)

20

c)

1

d)

40

59.

What two things must happen for work to be done?

a)

The object must move and there must be an output force.

b)

The object must move in the opposite direction of the force.

c)

The object must move in the same direction as the force.

d)

The object must move and the mechanical advantage must be greater than 1.

60.

A construction worker is lifting a load of bricks onto a truck. He does 200 J of work in 40 seconds. What is his power output?

a)

50 J

b)

5 J

c)

50 W

d)

5 W

61.

When a machine increases the size of the force exerted, what happens to the distance?

a)

it must increase

b)

it must decrease

c)

it must stay the same

d)

it must double

62.

Chris and Jane are lifting boxes to put them on shelves. Chris does 200 J of work in 5 minutes and Jane does 200 J of work in 4 minutes. What is the difference between the two jobs?

a)

the input force

b)

the output force

c)

the work

d)

the power

63.

Which energy is caused by an object’s vibrations?

a)

solar energy

b)

electrical energy

c)

chemical energy

d)

sound energy

64.

Which of the following is the energy that comes from changes in an atom’s nucleus?

a)

thermal energy

b)

light energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

chemical energy

65.

When you stretch a rubber band on a toy airplane, what type of energy does the rubber band have?

a)

kinetic energy

b)

elastic potential energy

c)

thermal energy

d)

mechanical energy

66.

In a hair dryer, electrical energy is changed into which type of energy that is used to dry your hair?

a)

light

b)

nuclear

c)

thermal

d)

chemical

67.

When a bat hits a baseball, what is transferred from the bat to the ball?

a)

work

b)

energy

c)

force

d)

electrical energy

68.

As a baseball flies through the air after being hit, which type of energy does it have?

a)

potential energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

mechanical energy

d)

chemical energy

69.

Which of the following is a conversion from light energy to chemical energy?

a)

turning on a stove to heat dinner

b)

turning on a lamp

c)

growing an apple tree

d)

making toast in a toaster

70.

When is the potential energy the greatest in a roller coaster?

a)

at the bottom of the first hill

b)

at the top of the first hill

c)

at the top of the second hill

d)

at the bottom of the second hill

71.

Any time an energy conversion takes place, some of the original energy is converted to which one of the following?

a)

sound

b)

potential

c)

light

d)

thermal

72.

Suppose you are jumping on a trampoline. At the top of your jump, which of these is true?

a)

The mechanical energy is zero.

b)

The potential energy is at a maximum.

c)

The kinetic energy and potential energy are equal.

d)

The potential energy is zero.

73.

You turn on a lamp and the light bulb becomes warm. Which energy conversion causes this heating of the light bulb?

a)

thermal energy to electrical energy

b)

light energy to thermal energy

c)

electrical energy to thermal energy

d)

electrical energy to light energy

74.

Waves transfer

a)

energy and matter.

b)

energy only.

c)

matter only.

d)

neither energy nor matter.

75.

Which of the following types of waves requires a medium?

a)

visible light

b)

X-rays

c)

microwaves

d)

sound waves

76.

A section of a longitudinal wave where the particles are crowded together is called a

a)

rarefaction.

b)

compression.

c)

vibration.

d)

surface wave.

77.

When the crests of one wave overlap the crests of another wave or waves, this occurs.

a)

diffraction

b)

destructive interference

c)

constructive interference

d)

resonant frequencies

78.

Part of a longitudinal wave where the particles are spread apart is called is called a

a)

rarefaction.

b)

compression.

c)

vibration.

d)

surface wave.

79.

An example of a mechanical wave is a(n)

a)

light wave.

b)

radio wave.

c)

ocean wave.

d)

X ray.

80.

What happens to a wave when it is refracted?

a)

It is bent.

b)

It is transmitted.

c)

It is reflected.

d)

It is radiated.

81.

A substance through which a wave can travel is a

a)

A substance through which a wave can travel is a

a. longitudinal wave.

b)

vibration.

c)

medium.

d)

rarefaction.

82.

The medium through which sound waves travel affects the

a)

speed of the sound.

b)

the amplitude of the waves.

c)

the number of waves per second.

d)

the sound quality.

83.

Sound waves are best reflected off which surfaces?

a)

bumpy, soft

b)

smooth, soft

c)

smooth, hard

d)

bumpy, hard

84.

What does the frequency of a sound wave affect?

a)

pitch

b)

loudness

c)

sound quality

d)

sound quality

b. loudness d. type of interference

85.

An electromagnetic wave

a)

never moves.

b)

can travel only through empty space.

c)

cannot travel through matter.

d)

can travel through empty space or matter.

86.

What wave interaction occurs when waves combine and the resulting wave has a greater amplitude than the individual waves had?

a)

regular reflection

b)

diffuse reflection

c)

constructive interference

d)

destructive interference

87.

Refraction can separate white light into

a)

infrared waves.

b)

different colors.

c)

ultraviolet light.

d)

longer wavelengths.

88.

Whether an object is transparent, translucent, or opaque is determined by its ability to

a)

refract light.

b)

diffract light.

c)

transmit light.

d)

increase the speed of light.

89.

Colors of opaque objects are determined by

a)

the color of light they transmit.

b)

the color of light they reflect.

c)

the color of light they refract.

d)

the color of light they diffract.

90.

Colors of translucent and transparent objects are determined by

a)

the color of light they transmit.

b)

the color of light they reflect.

c)

the pigments they transmit.

d)

the pigments they reflect.

91.

When pigments are mixed the result is called

a)

color addition.

b)

color subtraction.

c)

color absorption.

d)

color scattering.

92.

Electromagnetic waves are arranged by

a)

speed.

b)

color.

c)

wavelength.

d)

usefulness.

93.

When white light is refracted, the amount that the light bends depends on what?

a)

the light’s amplitude

b)

the light’s wavelength

c)

the light’s brightness

d)

the light’s interference

94.

What separates white light into different colors?

a)

diffraction

b)

refraction

c)

scattering

d)

transmission

95.

If a material does not allow charges to move through it easily, what is it called?

a)

insulator

b)

conductor

c)

static electricity

d)

electric discharge

96.

As resistance goes up, what happens to the current?

a)

Current goes up.

b)

Current goes down.

c)

Current stays the same.

d)

Current disappears.

97.

Circuits need three basic parts, an energy source, wires, and what else?

a)

charge

b)

force

c)

load

d)

energy

98.

How many pathways are there for moving charges in a series circuit?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

99.

Why are protons and electrons attracted to each other?

a)

because protons have a positive charge and electrons have a negative charge

b)

because protons have a negative charge and electrons have a positive charge

c)

because they both are positively charged

d)

because they both are negatively charged

100.

What happens if you rub a glass rod with a piece of silk and the rod becomes positively charged?

a)

Electrons on the rod are destroyed.

b)

The silk becomes negatively charged.

c)

Protons move to the rod.

d)

The glass attracts more protons.

101.

Good conductors have low

a)

voltage.

b)

resistance.

c)

current.

d)

temperature

102.

When is an object magnetic?

a)

when it only has a north pole

b)

when it only has a south pole

c)

when it is free to rotate

d)

when it attracts iron

103.

Whether a material is magnetic or not depends on which of the following?

a)

the material’s weight

b)

the material’s mass

c)

the material’s atoms

d)

the material’s density

104.

Increasing the number of loops per meter in the coils of a solenoid is one way to

a)

increase the wire’s electric current.

b)

decrease the wire’s electric current.

c)

strengthen the solenoid’s magnetic field.

d)

weaken the solenoid’s magnetic field.

105.

Where are the strongest magnetic effects on magnets?

a)

In the middle of the magnet.

b)

At both poles of the magnet.

c)

At only the magnet’s north pole.

d)

Only at the magnet’s south pole