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Medical Anatomy Final

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What plane divides the body into right and left sections?

a)

coronal

b)

sagittal

c)

frontal

d)

transverse

2.

In what quadrant is the spleen located?

a)

right lower quadrant

b)

left lower quadrant

c)

right upper quadrant

d)

left upper quadrant

3.

Which terms are arranged from the simplest to the most complex levels of organization?

a)

organ, organism, chemical, cellular, tissue, system

b)

chemical, cellular, organ, tissue, system, organism

c)

cellular, tissue, chemical, system, organ, organism

d)

chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism

4.

Why are most homeostatic mechanisms said to act by negative feedback?

a)

stimulates reduction in all vital needs of the body

b)

stimulates responses to occur in the same direction

c)

response is opposite or counteracts stimulus

d)

inhibits all body reactions

5.

What structure separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?

a)

mediastinum

b)

epiglottis

c)

diaphragm

d)

talus

6.

What is the body's attempt to maintain a stable internal environment?

a)

deglutition

b)

homeostasis

c)

filtration

d)

catabolism

7.

What is the body's main source of energy?

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

ADH

d)

RNA

8.

What is an ion?

a)

an atom that is attracted to a north-seeking pole

b)

an atom in a gaseous state

c)

an atom that has lost or gained electrons

d)

an atom that forms a base

9.

Which is an organic compound?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbohydrates

10.

How is the concentration of acids and bases measured?

a)

eximetry

b)

electrophoresis

c)

pH

d)

carbohydrates

11.

What type of tissue binds and holds body structures together?

a)

connective

b)

nervous

c)

muscular

d)

epithelial

12.

What are the four main cell components?

a)

cell membrane, organelles, cytosol, hormones

b)

cell membrane, cytoskeleton, nucleus, organelles

c)

cell membrane cytosol, nucleus, organelles

d)

cell membrane, cytosol, nucleus, cytoskeleton

13.

What type of membrane is found in freely moveable joints?

a)

synovial

b)

cutaneous

c)

serous

d)

mucous

14.

What are sores produced by prolonged pressure on the skin?

a)

malignant melanoma

b)

warts

c)

acne

d)

decubitus ulcers

15.

Which transport processes uses energy to move ions against a concentration gradient?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

filtration

d)

active transport

16.

What type of membrane is found lining body cavities WITHOUT an opening to the external environment?

a)

serous

b)

mucous

c)

synovial

d)

cutaneous

17.

Which solution can cause lysis of the red blood cell?

a)

hypertonic

b)

filtration

c)

dialysis

d)

hypotonic

18.

Which vertebrae are the ribs attached to?

a)

thoracic

b)

cervical

c)

lumbar

d)

sacral

19.

Which bone is included in the appendicular skeleton?

a)

mandible

b)

sacrum

c)

humerus

d)

hyoid

20.

Which cell breaks down existing matrix?

a)

osteocyst

b)

osteocyte

c)

osteoblast

d)

osteoclast

21.

What is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine?

a)

scloiosis

b)

swayback

c)

hunchback

d)

osteoporosis

22.

Which of these bone markings are found ONLY in the femur?

a)

epicondyles

b)

trochanters

c)

tuberosities

d)

tubercle

23.

What hole in bone allows for the passage of nerves and blood vessls

a)

fossa

b)

foremen

c)

tuberosity

d)

tubercle

24.

What is the only bone that does not directly articulate with any other bone and anchors the tongue?

a)

scapula

b)

hyoid

c)

coccyx

d)

clavicle

25.

What type of involuntary muscle is identified by the presence of intercalated disks and gap junctions?

a)

skeletal

b)

visceral

c)

smooth

d)

cardiac

26.

Which end of the muscle is usually proximally located and attached to the body segment with the greatest mass?

a)

insertion

b)

belly

c)

origin

d)

gaster

27.

What muscle assists the prime mover?

a)

antagonist

b)

synergist

c)

fixator

d)

stabilizer

28.

What is the composition of the thin myofilaments of the muscle fiber?

a)

myosin

b)

melanin

c)

hemoglobin

d)

actin

29.

What muscle group is responsible for the extension of the lower leg?

a)

gastrocnemius

b)

quadriceps

c)

latisimus dorsi

d)

deltoid

30.

What is the theory of muscular contraction in which actin and myosin move past each other?

a)

phosphagen-system theory

b)

sidling-filament theory

c)

fascia contractility theory

d)

muscle-fatigue theory

31.

What term is used to describe a chronic, painful condition of muscles and soft tissues surrounding joints?

a)

myasthenia gravis

b)

shin splints

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

fibromyalgia

32.

What is the loss of lens transparency resulting in diminished vision and possible blindness?

a)

cataracts

b)

myopia

c)

diplopia

d)

glaucoma

33.

What are these three principle parts of a neuron?

a)

dendrite, cell body, neuroglia

b)

cell body, neuroglia, axon

c)

axon, dendrite, neuroglia

d)

axon, dendrite, cell body

34.

What is the outer layer of the meninges called?

a)

subarachnoid mater

b)

arachnoid mater

c)

dura mater

d)

pia mater

35.

What portion of the outer ear is responsible for directing sound waves to the tympanic membrane?

a)

oval window

b)

auricle

c)

cochlea

d)

auditory ossicles

36.

What structure of the eye contains the rods and cones?

a)

cornea

b)

retina

c)

sclera

d)

iris

37.

What is the largest region of the brain?

a)

hippocampus

b)

cerebellum

c)

cerebrum

d)

brainstem

38.

What is the condition of elevated pressure in the eye?

a)

conjunctivitis

b)

cataracts

c)

strabismus

d)

glaucoma

39.

What brain region controls balance and coordination?

a)

cerebellum

b)

diencephalon

c)

brainstem

d)

cerebrum

40.

What are the three structures of the brainstem?

a)

medulla, pons, midbrain

b)

pons, limbic system, corpora quadrigemina

c)

infundibulum, cerebellum, cerebrum

d)

midbrain, infundibulum, cerebellum

41.

What is the name of the pigmented portion of the eye responsible for controlling the size of the pupil?

a)

lens

b)

sclera

c)

cornea

d)

iris

42.

What endocrine gland is often referred to as the Master Gland?

a)

pancreas

b)

pituitary

c)

thyroid

d)

adrenal

43.

What gland does NOT belong in the endocrine system?

a)

lacrimal

b)

adrenal

c)

pituitary

d)

thyroid

44.

What is the hormone that helps to influence metabolism and metabolic rate?

a)

growth hormone

b)

thyroxine

c)

epinephrine

d)

insulin

45.

What are the triangular glands located on each kidney which regulate stress?

a)

parathyroids

b)

adrenals

c)

ovaries

d)

testes

46.

Which are all formed elements of blood?

a)

leukocytes, thrombocytes, plasma

b)

erythrocytes, leukocytes,thrombocytes

c)

plasma, erythrocytes, leukocytes

d)

thrombocytes, plasma, erythrocytes

47.

What valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

a)

bicuspid

b)

aortic semilunar

c)

pulmonary semilunar

d)

tricuspid

48.

What is the liquid component of blood?

a)

plasma

b)

cytosol

c)

lymph

d)

thrombocyte

49.

What is the destruction of nervous tissue caused by a blocked or ruptured blood vessel supplying blood to the brain?

a)

murmur

b)

stroke

c)

meningitis

d)

dementia

50.

How are neutrophils and lymphocytes classified?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

leukocytes

c)

osteocytes

d)

thrombocytes

51.

What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a)

A-V Node

b)

Purkinjie fibers

c)

Bundle of His

d)

S-A node

52.

What genetic condition lacks blood clotting factors?

a)

anemia

b)

polycythemia

c)

leukemia

d)

hemophilia

53.

What weakening of an arterial wall may result in rupture of the vessel?

a)

murmur

b)

aneurysm

c)

arrhythmia

d)

hypertension

54.

In which blood vessels does nutrient exchange occur?

a)

capillaries

b)

arteries

c)

aorta

d)

veins

55.

What is the force that is exerted on the walls of the blood vessels?

a)

cardiac output

b)

minute ventilation

c)

blood pressure

d)

pulse deficit

56.

What disorder can result in lock jaw by bacteria entering through a wound in the skin?

a)

rubella

b)

mumps

c)

influenza

d)

tetanus

57.

What is the general role of B cells in the immune system?

a)

insulin production

b)

produce antibodies

c)

blood clotting

d)

blood cell formation

58.

Which disorder is characterized by the lungs filling with pus, fluids, or mucus?

a)

cancer

b)

bronchitis

c)

pneumonia

d)

emphysema

59.

An increase in the destruction of alveolar walls is better known as:

a)

Asthma

b)

SIDS

c)

Emphysema

d)

Influenza

60.

What are the structures of the respiratory system from external to internal?

a)

Bronchi - bronchioles - alveoli - trachea

b)

trachea - bronchi - alveoli - bronchioles

c)

trachea - bronchi - bronchioles - alveoli

d)

bronchi - trachea - bronchioles - alveoli

61.

Which serous membrane surrounds the lungs?

a)

peritoneum

b)

pleura

c)

synovial

d)

mucous

62.

What is the primary stimulus for breathing?

a)

increased blood temperature

b)

low water concentration in the blood

c)

low oxygen concentration in the blood

d)

high carbon dioxide concentration in the blood

63.

In the lungs, where does gas exchange occur between the air and the blood?

a)

bronchi

b)

alveoli

c)

lobes

d)

hilus

64.

What is another term for chewing?

a)

peristalsis

b)

excretion

c)

degluition

d)

mastication

65.

Which structure is NOT part of the small intestine?

a)

iluem

b)

jejunum

c)

colon

d)

duodenum

66.

What are the wave-like smooth muscle contractions of the alimentary canal?

a)

degluition

b)

macerition

c)

segmentation

d)

peristalsis

67.

Bile functions to break-down:

a)

Amino acids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

fats

68.

What are crater-like lesions in the mucous membrane of the stomach?

a)

ulcers

b)

boils

c)

tumors

d)

hernias

69.

What anatomical structure stores and concentrates bile?

a)

gallbladder

b)

pancreas

c)

liver

d)

stomach

70.

What is the inability to maintain bladder control?

a)

incontinence

b)

renal ptosis

c)

cystitis

d)

glomerulonephritis

71.

Which processes are involved in urine formation?

a)

thermoregulation, secretion, filtration

b)

reabsorption, mastication, peristalsis

c)

erythropoiesis, filtration, mastication

d)

filtration, reabsorption, secretion

72.

Which urinary structure stores urine?

a)

urethra

b)

bladder

c)

kidneys

d)

ureters

73.

Which term does NOT describe the elimination of urine?

a)

micturition

b)

urination

c)

mastication

d)

voiding

74.

What is the inner lining that is shed in the monthly menstrual cycle?

a)

myometrium

b)

body

c)

endometrium

d)

cervix

75.

What STI causes a yellow-greenish discharge?

a)

toxic shock syndrome

b)

yeast infection

c)

genital warts

d)

gonorrhea