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WorksheetsComprehensive Science 1 - Final Review
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. If I add milkweed to my butterfly garden, there may be an increase in butterfly reproduction. Please identify the test (independent) and outcome (dependent) variable.
a)
A. The test variable is the butterfly garden and the outcome variable is the butterfly reproduction.
b)
B. The test variable is the milkweed and the outcome variable is the butterfly reproduction.
c)
C. The test variable is the butterfly reproduction and the outcome variable is the milkweed.
d)
D. There is not enough information to determine.
2.
2. A student wants to conduct an experiment to find out how heart rate changes as the length of time spent exercising increases. The test (independent) variable will be?
a)
A. breathing rate
b)
B. heart rate
c)
C. time spent exercising
d)
D. type of exercise
3.
3. Observing the graph, identify the dependent (outcome) variable.
a)
A. Student's favorite color
b)
B. Number of Students
c)
C. Type of Fruit
d)
D. Height of the students
4.
4. A student hypothesized that the amount of sunlight a sunflower plant receives determines the number of sunflower seeds the plant produces. In her experiment, the number of seeds produced is the______
a)
A. Test (independent) variable
b)
B. Outcome (dependent) variable
c)
C. Control variable
d)
D. Control group
5.
5. Ana is in charge of studying how air quality affects the respiratory health of the citizens in her state. Which testable statement does she investigate?
a)
A. The quality of the air varies throughout the state.
b)
B. The air quality in her state is worse than it is in other states.
c)
C. The air quality has an impact on the respiratory system.
d)
D. The air quality is worsening due to increasing population and industrialization.
6.
6. Dr. Smith wanted to know if her new medication called Cold-Be-Gone would work to cure a cold. Which of these is the best research question?
a)
A. Will my medicine cure colds?
b)
B. How will I know if my new medicine works?
c)
C. Will my new medicine Cold-Be-Gone work on other diseases?
d)
D. Will Cold-Be-Gone cure colds?
7.
7. What is the difference between the independent and dependent variables in an experiment?
a)
A. The independent variable is always a number, and the dependent variable is never a number.
b)
B. The independent variable is what you control, and the dependent variable is what changes as a result.
c)
C. The dependent variable is what the investigator controls, and the independent variable is what happens as a result.
d)
D. The dependent variable is typically found in the first column of a table, and the independent variable is typically found in the second column.
8.
8. Which statement is a scientific law?
a)
A. The sun rises in the east.
b)
B. Why does the sun rise in the east?
c)
C. The sun appears in the east because of Earth’s rotation pattern.
d)
D. If the sun appears in the east, then I am in the Western Hemisphere.
9.
9. Which statement is NOT an example of a scientific law?
a)
A. Objects in motion tend to stay in motion, and objects at rest tend to stay at rest unless an outside force acts upon them.
b)
B. The rate of change of the momentum of a body is directly proportional to the net force acting on it, and the direction of the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the net force. F = ma
c)
C. Matter cannot be created nor destroyed, although it may change form.
d)
D. The universe was created sometime between 10 billion and 20 billion years ago from a cosmic explosion that hurled matter and in all directions.
10.
10. Which statement is a characteristic of a good theory?
a)
A. It is the idea of only one scientist.
b)
B. It does not change as time passes.
c)
C. It is not supported by scientific evidence.
d)
D. It changes with new observations.
11.
11. What are the requirements for a scientific theory?
a)
A. It cannot already be a scientific law.
b)
B. It must be supported by many hypotheses and observations.
c)
C. It is a good guess that can be tested by experiments.
d)
D. It must be made by scientists.
12.
12. Which of the following best describes the differences between a scientific law and theory?
a)
A. Theories are not supported by evidence while laws are proven true.
b)
B. Theories are a testable explanation for an event while laws are supported by facts.
c)
C. Laws explain why something occurs while theories describe what happens in nature.
d)
D. Theories explain why something occurs in nature while laws describe what happens in nature.
13.
13. At which point does the pendulum weight have the greatest amount of potential energy and the least amount of kinetic energy?
a)
A. Position 1
b)
B. Position 2
c)
C. Position 3
d)
D. Position 1 and 2
14.
14. Emma is riding a roller coaster. The roller coaster goes up and down several times and then finally comes to a stop. Which statement BEST describes what has happened?
a)
A. Energy has been created in the form of potential energy.
b)
B. When the roller coaster stopped the kinetic energy was destroyed.
c)
C. Energy has been transferred from one form to another.
d)
D. Energy has been created but then it has been destroyed.
15.
15. Which of the statements best describes the law of conservation of energy?
a)
A. Energy is created but can not be destroyed unless it is transformed into another form.
b)
B. Energy is created and destroyed as long as the object starts and stops.
c)
C. Kinetic creates energy and potential destroys energy.
d)
D. Energy is not created and it is not destroyed, it just gets transformed into another form.
16.
16. Which term describes potential energy?
a)
A. stored energy
b)
B. moving energy
c)
C. invisible energy
d)
0
17.
17. A car driving on the road has:
a)
A. kinetic energy.
b)
B. potential energy.
c)
0
d)
0
18.
18. The picture shows the path of a ball on a track. Where is the ball's potential energy at its maximum and its kinetic energy at its minimum?
a)
A. R
b)
B. T
c)
C. V
d)
D. Z
19.
19. Which of these is an example of kinetic energy?
a)
A. wind blowing
b)
B. water in a glass
c)
C. a can of vegetables
d)
D. the walls of a building
20.
20. The statements below describe four airplanes that have identical masses. Which airplane has the greatest amount of gravitational potential energy?
a)
A. an airplane traveling at 700 kilometers per hour (km/h) at an altitude of 3,000 meters
b)
B. an airplane traveling at 400 km/h at an altitude of 5,000 meters
c)
C. an airplane traveling at 600 km/h at an altitude of 5,000 meters
d)
D. an airplane traveling at 350 km/h at an altitude of 6,000 meters
21.
21. Which section of the graph has the greatest speed?
a)
A. from point A to point B
b)
B. from point B to point C
c)
C. from point C to point D
d)
0
22.
22. Which section of the graph has the greatest distance?
a)
A. from point A to point B
b)
B. from point B to point C
c)
C. from point C to point D
d)
0
23.
23. The train left the Station A at 9:10 p.m. and traveled, without stopping, 6 miles to Station B. What additional information do you need to find the average speed of the train from Station A to Station B?
a)
A. the direction the train traveled
b)
B. the number of passengers onboard
c)
C. the initial and maximum speeds of the train
d)
D. the time the train arrived at Union Station
24.
24. Blair and Aaron competed in a 400-m running race. Blair finished the race in 55 s and came in first. Aaron finished the race in 58 s and came in second. Which of the following must have been greater for Blair than for Aaron?
a)
A. maximum speed during the race
b)
B. average speed for the entire race
c)
C. speed for the last 100 m of the race
d)
D. speed for the first 100 m of the race
25.
25. What factors affect the gravitational force between two objects?
a)
A. Their masses and the distance between them
b)
B. Their rotational speeds
c)
C. Their atmospheres
d)
D. Their magnetic strengths
26.
26. Which statement is true?
a)
A. Objects with only a little mass are not affected by gravity.
b)
B. Any two objects exert a gravitational force on each other.
c)
C. Objects with smaller mass have more gravity acting on them.
d)
D. Objects that are further apart have more gravity acting on them.
27.
27. Identify the false statement about forces.
a)
A. A force is a push or a pull.
b)
B. Magnetic forces require contact between objects.
c)
C. Friction is a contact force that can slow down an object’s motion.
d)
D. Electrical forces can be non-contact forces.
28.
28. High and low tides are caused when the sun’s gravity and the moon’s gravity pull on ocean water. The moon’s gravity has a greater effect on Earth’s oceans than the sun’s gravity. Why would the moon have a greater effect than the sun?
a)
A. The moon is not as hot as the sun.
b)
B. The moon has less mass than Earth.
c)
C. The moon has less mass than the sun.
d)
D. The moon is closer to Earth than the sun.
29.
29. Two objects have a certain gravitational force between them. What would happen if the mass of one of the objects suddenly increased but the distance between them stayed the same?
a)
A. The gravitational force would decrease between the two objects.
b)
B. The gravitational force would increase between the two objects.
c)
C. The gravitational force would remain constant between the two objects.
d)
D. The mass of the other object would double.
30.
30. The objects shown in the following diagrams have different masses and are different distances apart. Which diagram shows the two objects that have the greatest force of gravity acting between them?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
31.
31. Which statement correctly describes weathering?
a)
A. breaks down rocks into sediments
b)
B. moves sediments to a new location
c)
C. drops sediments
d)
D. wind, rain, snow, etc.
32.
32. Which statement correctly describes erosion?
a)
A. breaks down rocks into sediments
b)
B. moves sediments to a new location
c)
C. drops sediments
d)
D. wind, rain, snow, etc.
33.
33. Which statement correctly describes deposition?
a)
A. breaks down rocks into sediments
b)
B. moves sediments to a new location
c)
C. drops sediments
d)
D. wind, rain, snow, etc.
34.
34. What can result when acids in groundwater weather limestone rocks underground?
a)
A. Caves can form as the acids dissolve rocks over time.
b)
B. Crystals can grow as the water deposits minerals on the rocks.
c)
C. Sand formations can build up as the water causes abrasion of the rocks.
d)
D. Molten rock can form as the chemical reactions with the acids heat the rocks.
35.
35. Over long periods of time, deposition may change the Earth’s surface by?
a)
forming new land features.
b)
breaking down large rocks into smaller ones.
c)
washing away beaches.
d)
moving topsoil.
36.
36. Which of the following processes forms dunes?
a)
A. the transport and deposition of sediment by ice
b)
B. the transport and deposition of sediment by water
c)
C. the transport and deposition of sediment by wind
d)
D. the transport and deposition of sediment by gravity
37.
37. The diagram shows how a crack in a rock gets bigger. What process is shown in step 2?
a)
A. abrasion
b)
B. precipitation
c)
C. physical weathering
d)
D. chemical weathering
38.
38. At what point would a river form a delta?
a)
A. when the river enters the ocean
b)
B. when the river leaves the mountains
c)
C. when the river meanders across a plain
d)
D. when the river is in the mountains
39.
39. Which of the following actions causes the deposition of sand at a delta?
a)
A. river water slowing as it enters the ocean
b)
B. salt water and fresh water mixing together
c)
C. ocean waves transporting sand toward land
d)
D. ocean water slowing as it reaches the coast
40.
40. The roof of a cave eroded and became thinner over time. The roof then collapsed and formed a:
a)
A. canyon
b)
B. cavern
c)
C. channel
d)
D. sinkhole
41.
41. In places where there is loose sand and strong wind, the wind can pick up the sand and carry it. When the wind slows, it deposits the sand. Which of the following is formed by this process?
a)
A. dunes
b)
B. glaciers
c)
C. mudflows
d)
D. rockfalls
42.
42. Which of these answers describes Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
A. all living and once-living things
b)
B. the mixture of gases that surrounds Earth
c)
C. a mixture of nickel and iron below the mantle
d)
D. all the salt and fresh liquid water on Earth’s surface
43.
44. The picture shows parts of the Earth system. Which is an example of the biosphere interacting with the hydrosphere?
a)
A. The cloud starting to rain
b)
B. The wind moving the trees
c)
C. The raccoon drinking water
d)
D. The river flowing over the ground
44.
43. Which part of the Earth system includes the water in the Everglades?
a)
A. geosphere
b)
B. cryosphere
c)
C. atmosphere
d)
D. hydrosphere
45.
45. When plants take carbon dioxide from the air and exchange it for oxygen, which spheres are interacting?
a)
Geosphere and atmosphere
b)
Geosphere and cryosphere
c)
Cryosphere and biosphere
d)
Atmosphere and biosphere
46.
46. Which process of heat transfer is shown in the diagram?
a)
A. radiation
b)
B. convection
c)
C. conduction
d)
D. condensation
47.
47. Which of the following processes transfers energy over a distance through electromagnetic waves (from the sun to the earth)?
a)
radiation
b)
conduction
c)
convection
d)
both conduction and convection
48.
48. The following diagram shows the water cycle. Four different parts of the cycle are labeled A, B, C, and D. What process is demonstrated by A?
a)
A. water vapor (gas) changes to liquid water - evaporation
b)
B. liquid water changes to water vapor (gas) - evaporation
c)
C. liquid water changes to water vapor (gas) - condensation
d)
D. liquid water falls to Earth – precipitation
49.
49. Which part of the water cycle represents precipitation?
a)
A. A
b)
B. B
c)
C. C
d)
D. D
50.
50. Clouds form when water vapor cools and forms back into droplets of liquid water. Which process creates clouds?
a)
A. precipitation
b)
B. transpiration
c)
C. evaporation
d)
D. condensation
51.
51. On a weather map, the letter L represents a low-pressure system. The letter H indicates a high-pressure system. Which of the following is true?
a)
A. High pressure = happy weather – sunny, clear, warm
b)
B. High pressure = lousy weather – rain, storms, cool
c)
0
d)
0
52.
52. During most of the year, the air over Daytona Beach contains a great amount of moisture. The air is said to be humid. Which of the following best explains why there is high humidity in this area?
a)
A. Daytona Beach is close to a warm ocean
b)
B. Daytona Beach is at a high elevation
c)
C. Daytona Beach is near a lot of mountains
d)
D. Daytona Beach is north of the Equator
53.
53. How can the polar jet stream influence weather?
a)
A. The jet stream moves air masses from east to west.
b)
B. The jet stream pulls warm air down from Canada into the United States.
c)
C. The jet stream pulls cold air from Canada into the United States.
d)
D. The jet stream moves in a straight-line path as the strong winds flow from west to east.
54.
54. What is the jet stream?
a)
A. the spinning of the air in the same direction as Earth’s rotation
b)
B. the spinning of the air in the opposite direction of Earth’s rotation
c)
C. the movement of air from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure
d)
D. a narrow band of strong winds that blow in the upper region of the atmosphere and is a border between hot and cold air masses
55.
55. Which of the following statements is false?
a)
A. Wind is the movement of air that results from differences in air pressure.
b)
B. Precipitation is a form of water that falls to Earth’s surface from the clouds.
c)
C. Air typically moves from areas of lower pressure to areas of higher pressure.
d)
D. Condensation is the process where water vapor (gas) changes to liquid water
56.
56. The earth is different temperatures in different places. What causes this uneven heating?
a)
A. kinetic energy from tides
b)
B. kinetic energy from ocean currents
c)
C. energy transfer within Earth’s crust
d)
D. electromagnetic radiation from the sun
57.
57. Which process transfers energy over a distance through electromagnetic waves (from the sun to the earth)?
a)
A. radiation
b)
B. conduction
c)
C. convection
d)
D. both conduction and convection
58.
58. Which best explains how the sun’s energy indirectly causes winds?
a)
A. The sun’s energy causes condensation, which causes winds.
b)
B. The sun’s energy causes differences in humidity, which causes winds.
c)
C. The sun’s energy causes uneven heating of the atmosphere, which leads to differences in air pressure, which cause winds.
d)
D. The sun’s energy causes precipitation, which causes winds.
59.
59. Alan is making a list of organisms. Which of the following should he include on his list?
a)
A. air
b)
B. lung
c)
C. heart
d)
D. grass
60.
60. Select the letter of the response that correctly fills in the blanks of this organizational chart of living things, using the words provided (in the correct order):
a)
A. Molecule; Organ; Organism
b)
B. Organism; Molecule; Organ
c)
C. Molecule; Organism; Organ
d)
D. Organism; Organ; Molecule
61.
61. Which statement is true?
a)
A. Tissues are made up of organs.
b)
B. Organs are made up of organisms.
c)
C. Cells are made up of organ systems.
d)
D. Organ systems are made up of organs.
62.
62. Which is not a component of cell theory?
a)
A. All cells come from existing cells.
b)
B. The cell is the basic unit of all living things.
c)
C. All cells contain hereditary information.
d)
D. All organisms are made of one or more cells.
63.
63. All living things are made up of:
a)
A. stimuli
b)
B. organisms
c)
C. 1 or more cells
d)
D. chemicals
64.
64. According to cell theory, which one of the following is the basic unit of life?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
65.
65. Pedro was comparing animal and plant cells under the microscope. He drew the diagram shown to the right. Which is correct?
a)
A. The structure labeled A is found only in animal cells.
b)
B. The structure labeled A produces nutrients in plant cells.
c)
C. The structure labeled A is where cellular respiration occurs.
d)
D. The structure labeled A has a role in directing all cell organelles.
66.
66. What term describes the organelles in plant and animal cells which contains the cell’s genetic material?
a)
A. chloroplast
b)
B. cytoplasm
c)
C. nucleus
d)
0
67.
67. Which structure separates the inside of the cell from the environment, allowing nutrients in and out of the cell?
a)
A. nucleus
b)
B. cytoskeleton
c)
C. cell membrane
d)
D. genetic material
68.
68. The mitochondrion is an organelle found in both animal and plant cells. Which cellular process occurs inside this organelle?
a)
A. photosynthesis
b)
B. energy production
c)
C. storage of material
d)
D. passing material out of the cell
69.
69. Fish, snails, zebras, and fruit flies are all organisms. Although they look very different, they belong to the same kingdom. Which kingdom do they belong to, and what is a characteristic shared by all organisms in this kingdom?
a)
A. Animal; All animals are multicellular.
b)
B. Eubacteria; All eubacteria have eukaryotic cells.
c)
C. Animal; All animals live in a marine environment.
d)
D. Protist; All protists can move around in their environment.
70.
70. Which statement explains why scientists classify organisms into groups based on shared characteristics?
a)
A. Classification helps scientists understand how the parts of a cell work together.
b)
B. Classification helps scientists understand the chemical reactions that are necessary for organisms to live.
c)
C. Classification helps scientists understand the relationships between different species.
d)
D. Classification helps scientists understand how ecosystems can be organized into levels of complexity.
71.
71. Which of the following statements correctly describes a kingdom of Domain Eukarya?
a)
A. Kingdom Protista includes single-celled organisms that lack nuclei.
b)
B. Kingdom Plantae includes multicellular organisms that can move independently.
c)
C. Kingdom Animalia includes multicellular organisms that make their own food.
d)
D. Kingdom Fungi includes organisms that get energy by decomposing materials in their environment.
72.
72. Based on the table, which of the organisms likely have the most characteristics in common?
a)
A. 1 and 2
b)
B. 1 and 3
c)
C. 2 and 4
d)
D. 3 and 4
73.
73. What are the functions of the skeleton?
a)
A. support, protection, movement, blood cell production, and storage
b)
B. gas exchange, digestion, and development
c)
C. waste removal, regulation, and stimuli response.
d)
D. removal of pathogens, blood transport, and movement.
74.
74. What is the function of the skeletal system in relation to the muscular system? (how does the skeleton help muscles?)
a)
A. Provide points for muscles to attach
b)
B. Assist muscles in growth and development
c)
C. Produce muscle cells inside the bone marrow
d)
D. Produce enzymes that help the muscles repair themselves
75.
75. Which of the following is an example of the SKELETAL system interacting with the CIRCULATORY system?
a)
A. The diaphragm muscle moving up and down to help you breathe
b)
B. The bones in your skull protecting your brain
c)
C. Your heart pumping blood to your leg muscles
d)
D. Your bones producing red blood cells in their bone marrow
76.
76. What are smooth muscles?
a)
A. Found in heart, keep heart pumping blood
b)
B. Found attached to bones, move skeleton
c)
C. Found in organs and blood vessels, move things through the body
d)
0
77.
77. Which of the following is a main function of the muscular system?
a)
A. to trigger electrical impulses through nerves
b)
B. to move food through the digestive tract
c)
C. to store fats and proteins in tissues
d)
D. to move certain bones in different directions
78.
78. Which option describes the general function of the respiratory system?
a)
A. To deliver oxygen to other cells around the body
b)
B. To eliminate waste from the body
c)
C. To move and support our body
d)
D. To exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide in our body
79.
79. Which part of the respiratory system interacts with the circulatory/cardiovascular system to exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide in the blood?
a)
A. Trachea
b)
B. Pharynx
c)
C. Larynx
d)
D. Alveoli
80.
80. How are the functions of the circulatory and respiratory system related?
a)
A. The circulatory system provides the push that the respiratory system needs to obtain oxygen
b)
B. The respiratory system provides the oxygen, and the circulatory system delivers it to the body cells
c)
C. The circulatory system provides the oxygen, and the respiratory system delivers it to the body cells
d)
D. The circulatory system carries the blood to the respiratory system, and the respiratory uses blood for homeostasis
81.
81. What is the main function of the Digestive System?
a)
A. To get rid of waste
b)
B. To circulate nutrients
c)
C. To break down food
d)
D. To get energy from cellular respiration
82.
82. What is the main function of the Excretory System?
a)
A. To get rid of waste
b)
B. To circulate nutrients
c)
C. To break down food
d)
D. To get energy from cellular respiration
83.
83. How do kidneys work with other body systems to maintain homeostasis?
a)
A. They help the other systems digest food.
b)
B. They help the other systems by delivering food to them.
c)
C. They get rid of feces.
d)
D. They clean/filter the blood and take out the waste.
84.
84. How does the digestive system work with the excretory system?
a)
A. The excretory system gets rid of oxygen from cells and the digestive system breaks down food for cells.
b)
B. The digestive system breaks down food for cells and the excretory system removes waste.
c)
C. The excretory system breaks down food for cells and the digestive removes waste.
d)
D. The digestive system provides food for the excretory system to circulate to the rest of the body.
85.
85. How does the small intestine interact with the cardiovascular/circulatory system to maintain homeostasis?
a)
A. The small intestine exchanges carbon dioxide for oxygen which it gives to the circulatory system
b)
B. The small intestine filters the blood to make urine
c)
C. The small intestine pumps the blood around the body
d)
D. The small intestine absorbs nutrients which it gives to the circulatory system
86.
86. All of your human body systems work together to maintain a stable internal balance called ________.
a)
A. Energy
b)
B. Circulation
c)
C. Homeostasis
d)
D. Lymphatics
87.
87. As you are sleeping, which of the following is true about the systems of your body?
a)
A. All of your systems shut down.
b)
B. Only your nervous system continues to function.
c)
C. All of your systems speed up.
d)
D. All of your systems continue to function to maintain homeostasis
88.
88. Which of the following describes the function of the nervous system?
a)
A. To excrete (get rid of) waste from the entire body
b)
B. To circulate oxygen and nutrients to all the cells in the body
c)
C. To respond to stimuli from the environment
d)
D. To use oxygen and sugar to make energy and carbon dioxide
89.
89. Sense organs, such as the eyes, nose, tongue, and ears, are vital parts of nervous system. Which of the following is a main function of the nervous system that these sense organs perform?
a)
A. They build muscles for strong movements while the body moves.
b)
B. They allow a person to think.
c)
C. They store wastes for removal.
d)
D. They provide information to the body about the outside world.
90.
90. When you get a fever, your body temperature rises which can cause sweating. What two systems are interacting here?
a)
A. Nervous System and Digestive System
b)
B. Immune System and Excretory System
c)
C. Excretory System and Respiratory System
d)
D. Nervous System and Excretory System
91.
91. How is the skeletal system interacting with the nervous system?
a)
A. The skeleton protects the brain and spinal cord.
b)
B. The brain produces bones for the skeleton.
c)
C. The brain and spinal cord hold the skeleton together.
d)
D. The skeletal system works as a part of the nervous system.
92.
92. The respiratory system supplies oxygen to the blood in the body, while removing carbon dioxide. Which system directly interacts with the respiratory system to maintain homeostasis?
a)
A. the excretory system when it sends out liquid waste as urea
b)
B. the skeletal system when oxygen and glucose around the ribs are absorbed
c)
C. the nervous system when the brain regulates the body's breathing and heart rate
d)
D. the digestive system when food is broken down to provide nutrients for growth and repair
93.
93. What could happen if the reproductive system did not maintain homeostasis?
a)
A. offspring will not be produced
b)
B. the body will not defend against pathogens
c)
C. wastes will build up in the body
d)
D. nutrients will not circulate in the blood
94.
94. What is the function of the male reproductive system?
a)
A. to produce egg cells
b)
B. to defend the body against disease
c)
C. to produce sperm cells
d)
D. to break down food into nutrients
95.
95. What is the function of the female reproductive system?
a)
A. to produce egg cells
b)
B. to defend the body against disease
c)
C. to produce sperm cells
d)
D. to break down food into nutrients
96.
96. What is the primary function of the immune system?
a)
A. to defend the body against infectious agents (pathogens) and disease
b)
B. to communicate information between the systems
c)
C. to extract energy from food, and deliver it to muscle groups
d)
D. to organize information received from the sense organs
97.
97. How does the immune system help the body maintain homeostasis?
a)
A. It circulates pathogens for use in the body
b)
B. It helps the body by sending signals to and from the brain
c)
C. It protects the body from pathogens so you stay healthy
d)
D. It removes excess waste from the body so you don't get sick
98.
98. How do the immune and circulatory systems work together?
a)
A. You breathe in oxygen and it goes around your body
b)
B. The body makes white blood cells (B and T cells) that circulate in the blood to fight against germs or pathogens
c)
C. Waste is removed from the blood and exits the body
d)
D. They do not work together.
99.
99. How do the immune and respiratory systems work together?
a)
A. The immune system keeps lungs free of pathogens; the respiratory system supplies oxygen to white blood cells
b)
B. The immune system supplies oxygen to white blood cells; the respiratory system keeps lungs free of pathogens
c)
C. The immune system supplies blood to the lungs; the respiratory system creates white blood cells
d)
D. They do not work together.
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