WorksheetsLife Science CAST Review
Total questions: 118
Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
2.
Which structures are found in every living cell?
a)
cell membrane and cytoplasm
b)
chloroplasts and mitochondria
c)
a cell wall and nucleus
d)
chloroplasts and cell wall
3.
Which cell structure is found in plant and animals cells and controls what can come into or leave a cell?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
4.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)
to produce energy
b)
to control cell activity
c)
to remove waste products
d)
to allow molecules to enter the cell
5.
What is one basic function of the vacuoles?
a)
circulating oxygen
b)
producing food
c)
controlling cell processes
d)
storing water
6.
Chloroplasts in plant cells allow the plant to perform a function that animal cells cannot do. What is the main function of the chloroplasts found in plant cells?
a)
to absorb light energy and manufacture food
b)
to remove waste materials by active transport
c)
to manufacture chemical energy from food
d)
to control the shape of the cell
7.
All cells need energy to function. Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell?
a)
chloroplasts
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuoles
8.
What is the function of a cell wall?
a)
to protect and support the cell
b)
to perform different functions in each cell
c)
to prevent water from passing through it
d)
to prevent oxygen from entering the cell
9.
In what part of the plant cell does the process of photosynthesis take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
10.
Cells with a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles are called ____________________.
a)
prokaryotes
b)
eukaryotes
c)
bacteria
d)
protists
11.
_ are organelles responsible for digesting certain materials within the cell.
a)
vacuoles
b)
chloroplasts
c)
lysosomes
d)
cell membrane
12.
Who was the first person to see cells under the microscope and give them their name?
a)
Mattias Schleiden
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Theordor Schwann
d)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
13.
The basic unit of structure and function in a living things.
a)
chloroplast
b)
nucleus
c)
cell
d)
cell membrane
14.
Directs all cell activities through the DNA located there.
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Nucleus
c)
ribosomes
d)
Mitochondria
15.
The main purpose of the ____________ system is to break food particles into pieces that can be used.
a)
circulatory
b)
respiratory
c)
digestive
d)
skeletal
16.
What is responsible for delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body?
a)
cell nucleus
b)
excretory system
c)
nervous tissue
d)
respiratory system
17.
The __________ system directs the body to inner and outer changes.
a)
digestive
b)
circulatory
c)
nervous
d)
skeletal
18.
The __________ is the main organ of the nervous system.
a)
heart
b)
lungs
c)
brain
d)
skin
19.
___________ are the building blocks of life.
a)
cells
b)
legos
c)
blocks
d)
blood
20.
The circulatory system uses _________ to deliver oxygen to the rest of the body.
a)
blood cells
b)
lungs and nose
c)
blood vessels
d)
brain and spinal cord
21.
When tissues come together, they form ___________.
a)
cells
b)
atoms
c)
organs
d)
systems
22.
A(n) _________ is made of small parts connected together to make a whole.
a)
system
b)
problem
c)
evidence
d)
illustration
23.
Which of the following body systems work together for support, protection, and movement?
a)
respiratory and cardiovascular
b)
skeletal and muscular
c)
skeletal and integumentary
d)
digestive and respiratory
24.
Which of the following shows the levels of organization of an organism from LEAST to MOST complex.
a)
cells-tissues-systems-organs
b)
organs-cells-systems-tissues
c)
systems-organs-tissues-cells
d)
cells-tissues-organs-systems
25.
Which organelle performs PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
26.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
27.
What process occurs when light energy is captured in autotrophs and converted into sugar?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Cellular Respiration
28.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
29.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
30.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
31.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
32.
Plants need ________ for photosynthesis
a)
oxygen
b)
soil
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
sugar
33.
What is photosynthesis?
a)
The process in which humans eat their food
b)
When a photographer takes a photo.
c)
To get your pictures from the photo lab.
d)
The process in which plants make their food.
34.
Chloroplasts are...
a)
Structures of animal cells to produce ATP
b)
Organelles where lipids are elaborated
c)
Specialized structures of plants where food is made
d)
Waste organelle of plants
35.
Leaves look green because.....
a)
they eat their vegetables
b)
to blend into their environment
c)
they contain a molecule named chlorophyll
d)
they are sick
36.
All living things do which of the following?
a)
Chemosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
all of the answers
37.
What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
energy
b)
glucose
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
38.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
39.
What happens to your breathing rate when you exercise?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It stays the same
40.
Which organ excretes carbon dioxide?
a)
Lungs
b)
Liver
c)
Heart
d)
Kidney
41.
What type of respiration requires oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
42.
What are the products of aerobic respiration?
a)
Glucose and oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide and water
c)
Lactic acid
d)
Carbon monoxide
43.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
44.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
45.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
46.
The expression "feel the burn" means that a person exercising is doing
a)
lactic acid fermentation
b)
alcoholic fermentation
c)
photosynthesis
d)
aerobic respiration
47.
you breathe in oxygen for
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
fermentation
d)
aerobic respiration
48.
A __________ includes all living and non-living things in an environment.
a)
population
b)
niche
c)
abitotic
d)
ecosystem
49.
_______ are consumers that eat only meat.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
50.
Which best explains why many kinds of plants and animals can live together in an ecosystem?
a)
The plants and animals are all part of a food chain and depend on each other to live.
b)
Plants and animals are interdependent of one another.
c)
One species may overpopulate, killing all plant life.
d)
Over population of a species results in a biodiversity.
51.
________ are consumers that eat plants and meat.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Carnivore
52.
Which group do fungi, bacteria, and termites belong to?
a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
herbivores
d)
omnivores
53.
What are interconnected food chains called?
a)
consumers
b)
predators
c)
food web
54.
If the population of prey increases, the population of predators will ________because of the availability of food.
a)
decrease
b)
stay the same
c)
increase
55.
What would most likely happen if an ecosystem no longer received sunlight?
a)
The number of herbivores would increase
b)
The number of plants would increase
c)
all organisms would adapt
d)
All living organisms would eventually die
56.
Examples of how humans negatively affect local ecosystems are
a)
Building dams, deforestation (cutting down trees), adding point sources to nearby streams to allow for run-off, building roads and structures, and salting roads.
b)
Creating laws to prohibit fishing from local streams.
c)
Planting trees and other plants to attract native species.
d)
Removing non-native species from the environment.
57.
All food chains_____________________
a)
have more consumers than producers
b)
produce and use same amount of energy
c)
begin with a producer
d)
are unhealthy
58.
How does energy enter an ecosystem?
a)
sunlight
b)
soil
c)
animals
d)
invasive species
59.
Pollution is anything that people add to the environment that__________________.
a)
disappearing particles
b)
benefits an ecosystem
c)
produces plants
d)
harms living things
60.
A lion, captures and eats other animals. What is he considered?
a)
prey
b)
predator
c)
producer
d)
healthy
61.
How do consumers get their energy?
a)
laying in the sun
b)
eating other organisms
c)
providing food for other organisms
d)
surviving in an ecosystem
62.
Why does sexual reproduction result in more genetic diversity than asexual reproduction?
a)
Traits from two parents are combined.
b)
More organisms reproduce this way.
c)
Offspring grow in different environments.
d)
Offspring come from identical parents.
63.
Organisms that reproduce asexually generally have offspring that are
a)
unicellular.
b)
multicellular.
c)
genetically varied.
d)
genetically identical.
64.
A plant that has traits identical to the parent plant provides evidence that the plant
a)
resulted from sexual reproduction.
b)
resulted from asexual reproduction.
c)
will develop many seeds.
d)
will have large leaves.
65.
Daffodils are plants that can perform both asexual and sexual reproduction. How does a daffodil population benefit more by reproducing sexually?
a)
It can reproduce more rapidly.
b)
It can adapt faster to its environment.
c)
It can increase the diversity of inherited traits.
d)
It can eliminate unfavorable traits from the gene pool.
66.
Which is the greatest benefit of sexual reproduction?
a)
capable of reproducing by meiosis
b)
ability to reproduce without a mate
c)
ability to produce genetically different offspring
d)
capable of producing offspring genetically identical to parent
67.
In order to grow two of the exact same plants, a person would reproduce them asexually because the
a)
genetic diversity is greater.
b)
offspring would be genetically identical.
c)
recessive traits would emerge.
d)
negative traits are suppressed.
68.
When an egg and sperm form an embryo, the offspring that is formed will have genetic traits that are
a)
inherited from only one parent.
b)
created by the environment.
c)
passed on from two parents.
d)
learned from siblings.
69.
Survival of the Fittest and Evolution were proposed by what scientist?
a)
Charles Darwin
b)
Albert Einstein
c)
Steven Hawking
d)
Isaac Newton
70.
Behavioral changes of individuals of a species that allow for better survival. (Acquired traits)
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
71.
When every organism of a species has died.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artificial Selection
72.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
73.
What are the most studied animals in the galapagos?
a)
Finches
b)
Tortoises
c)
Turtles
d)
Lizards
74.
The theory of evolution by natural selection means that what is changing over time?
a)
The inherited traits of a population.
b)
The acquired traits of a population.
c)
Hair color and eye color
d)
Attractive features.
75.
Mutations are a change in what?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
genotype
d)
phenotype
76.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
77.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
78.
What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
79.
What is the study of organisms at the early stages of development?
a)
DNA studies
b)
embryology
c)
extinction
d)
fossil record
80.
What is this an example of?
a)
diversity of species
b)
variation
c)
vestigial structures
d)
DNA studies
81.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
82.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light
b)
dark
83.
The cause of artificial selection is…
a)
The environment
b)
Humans
c)
Mutation
d)
Gene Flow
84.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
85.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
86.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
87.
What mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift
88.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
89.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
90.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
91.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
92.
DNA is often considered the "______________" of life.
a)
Blueprint
b)
Mistake
c)
Swimming Pool
d)
Smelly Cheese
93.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
94.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
95.
What molecule is shown in the double helix diagram shown?
a)
DAN
b)
RAN
c)
DNA
d)
RNA
96.
If you are a boy, what percent of your genes did you get from your dad?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
97.
What is it called when body cells grow uncontrollably
a)
Spinal Stenosis
b)
Anemia
c)
Cancer
98.
Which of these bases does not exist in RNA?
a)
C
b)
T
c)
U
d)
A
99.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription?
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
100.
What is embryology?
a)
Adaptation.
b)
The study of fetus and embryo development, and fertilization.
c)
Evolution.
d)
The study of fossils.
101.
How does embryology support the Theory of Evolution?
a)
It shows that they have a common ancestor because of their similarities.
b)
I'm not sure.
c)
Animals change over time.
102.
Why is embryology evidence important?
a)
It shows that we are people.
b)
We can figure out why things evolved.
c)
So that we know how things evolved.
d)
It helps us understand that we are related to other creatures.
103.
Name an example of embryology.
a)
When a dolphin embryo grows.
b)
Porcupines stabbing people.
c)
When male seahorses get pregnant.
d)
Giraffes giving birth.
104.
How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
105.
How many alleles (letters) does a child get from each parent for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
106.
What is a punnett square?
a)
graph used to predict the possible genotypes of offspring in a given cross
b)
a graph used to predict the possible birth rate of offspring.
c)
a graph used to predict the possible behavioral characteristics an offspring could have
d)
None of the above
107.
In a punnet square where are the parent alleles written?
a)
Top and inside the boxes
b)
Only on the left and right side of the boxes.
c)
outside of the boxes (top and left side)
d)
All on the top side of the boxes
108.
Each one of the boxes on the Punnett Square represents what probability of an offsprings' genotype?
a)
25%
b)
1%
c)
10%
d)
0%
109.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
110.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
111.
What ratio of the offspring from the cross shown will be homozygous recessive for the trait of tallness?
a)
0 in 4
b)
1 in 4
c)
2 in 4
d)
4 in 4
112.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
113.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
Bb
b)
BB
c)
bb
d)
B
114.
In a flowering plant species, red flower color (R) is dominant over white flower color (r). What is the genotype of any red-flowering plant resulting from this species?
a)
rr
b)
R
c)
RR
d)
RR or Rr
115.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
116.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
117.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
118.
Which choice best represents the genotype of this cross?
a)
1 Yy: 2 yy: 0 YY
b)
2 Yy: 2 yy: 0 YY
c)
3 Yy: 1 yy: 0 YY
d)
1 Yy: 3 yy: 0 YY
100 %
