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Med Tech Final Exam Review

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The word root for liver is...

a)

mast

b)

hepat

c)

oste

d)

my

e)

trache

2.

The word root in a medical term usually indicates a(n)...

a)

position

b)

number

c)

condition

d)

anatomical stucture

e)

procedure

3.

The term stomatitis means...

a)

inflammation of the stomach

b)

inflammation of the liver

c)

inflammation of the face

d)

inflammation of the mouth

e)

inflammation of the skin

4.

The combining form for joint is...

a)

osteo

b)

chondro

c)

-ist

d)

arthro

e)

-osis

5.

Which suffix means inflammation?

a)

-megaly

b)

-oma

c)

-itis

d)

-ia

e)

-ous

6.

In medical terminology, a suffix usually indicates...

a)

position, direction, color, number or negation

b)

procedure, condition, disease, or part of speech

c)

position, direction or color

d)

color, number, condition or disease

e)

procedure, condition or negation

7.

Which word means inflammation of the joints?

a)

Osteitis

b)

Chondritis

c)

Arthritis

d)

Osteoarthritis

e)

Osteochondritis

8.

Which prefix means before or in front of?

a)

Retro-

b)

Pre-

c)

Super-

d)

Micro-

e)

Post-

9.

What does the following element mean: "arthro"?

a)

after

b)

inflammation

c)

enlargement

d)

joint

e)

muscle

10.

What does the following element mean: "dermato"?

a)

tumor

b)

skin

c)

muscle

d)

under, below

e)

in, within

11.

What does the following element mean: "gastro"?

a)

enlargement

b)

after

c)

stomach

d)

condition

e)

many, much

12.

What does the following element mean: "musculo"?

a)

tumor

b)

joint

c)

inflammation

d)

cell

e)

muscle

13.

What does the following element mean: "naso"?

a)

nose

b)

mouth

c)

under, below

d)

enlargement

e)

many, much

14.

What does the following element mean: "nephro"?

a)

stomach

b)

skin

c)

tumor

d)

kidney

e)

cell

15.

What does the following element mean: "stomato"?

a)

mouth

b)

muscle

c)

nose

d)

backward, behind

e)

condition

16.

What does the following element mean: "-cyte"?

a)

tumor

b)

cell

c)

skin

d)

condition

e)

in, within

17.

What does the following element mean: "-itis"?

a)

condition

b)

enlargement

c)

inflammation

d)

many, much

e)

tumor

18.

What does the following element mean: "-oma"?

a)

stomach

b)

cell

c)

condition

d)

tumor

e)

in, within

19.

What does the following element mean: "-megaly"?

a)

inflammation

b)

tumor

c)

cell

d)

condition

e)

enlargement

20.

What does the following element mean: "an-"?

a)

without, not

b)

many, much

c)

backward, behind

d)

in, within

e)

under, below

21.

What does the following element mean: "-ia"?

a)

in, within

b)

condition

c)

tumor

d)

inflammation

e)

after

22.

What does the following element mean: "intra-"?

a)

many, much

b)

joint

c)

skin

d)

in, within

e)

under, below

23.

What does the following element mean: "poly-"?

a)

in, within

b)

enlargement

c)

inflammation

d)

condition

e)

many, much

24.

What does the following element mean: "post-"?

a)

after

b)

backward, behind

c)

in, within

d)

joint

e)

without, not

25.

What does the following element mean: "sub-"?

a)

in, within

b)

many, much

c)

without, not

d)

backward, behind

e)

under, below

26.

What does the following element mean: "retro-"?

a)

enlargement

b)

in, within

c)

backward, behind

d)

many, much

e)

under, below

27.

Which structure supports and connects the cells of the nervous system?

a)

myelin sheath

b)

neuron

c)

neurolemma

d)

neuroglia

e)

dendrite

28.

Which protective mechanism blocks chemicals from entering brain tissue?

a)

ganglia

b)

neuroglia

c)

blood-brain barrier

d)

neurilemma

e)

cell body

29.

The anterior root of the spinal cord is composed of:

a)

mixed nerves

b)

motor fibers

c)

sensory fibers

d)

neuroglia

e)

microglia

30.

The unmyelinated spaces between adjacent segments of myelin sheath are called:

a)

cell bodies

b)

axons

c)

dendrites

d)

nodes of Ranvier

e)

meninges

31.

Which structure is located outside of the cranium?

a)

anterior root

b)

diencephalon

c)

cerebrum

d)

corpus callosum

e)

thalamus

32.

Fight-or-flight situations are dominated by the ...

a)

parasympathetic nuervous system

b)

somatic nervous system

c)

neurotransmitters

d)

sympathetic nervous system

e)

accessory ganglia

33.

Nerves that conduct impulses toward the brain or spinal cord are called...

a)

afferent

b)

efferent

c)

motor

d)

mixed

e)

cranial

34.

Chemicals that facilitate movement of impulses at synapses are called...

a)

opiates

b)

sedatives

c)

hypnotics

d)

neurotransmitters

e)

analgesics

35.

Which structure joins the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

thalamus

b)

corpus callosum

c)

brain stem

d)

diencephalon

e)

pons

36.

All functions of the cerebellum are concerned with...

a)

visual activity

b)

auditory activity

c)

pain perception

d)

movement

e)

taste perception

37.

The ventral nervous system is composed of the ...

a)

spinal cord and nerve roots

b)

brain stem and spinal cord

c)

spinal nerves and medulla

d)

brain and spinal cord

e)

cranium and spine

38.

The small space between neurons is called the ...

a)

dendrite

b)

syncope

c)

axon

d)

pons

e)

synapse

39.

The protective coverings of the brain and spinal cord are called the...

a)

meninges

b)

neurolemmas

c)

ependymas

d)

sella turcicas

e)

myelin sheaths

40.

Which neuroglial cell possesses phagocytic properties?

a)

ependyma

b)

microglia

c)

oligodendroglia

d)

microcyte

e)

oligodendrocyte

41.

The thalamus is a structure of the ...

a)

cerebrum

b)

diencephalon

c)

spinal cord

d)

medulla

e)

corpus callosum

42.

What does "lexo" mean?

a)

learn

b)

read

c)

thin, slender

d)

word, phrase

e)

thick

43.

What does "meningo" mean?

a)

meninges

b)

dura mater

c)

pia mater

d)

sheath

e)

arachnoid

44.

What does "myelo" mean?

a)

head

b)

bone marrow; spinal cord

c)

back bone

d)

vertebrae

e)

back

45.

What does "cerebro" mean?

a)

head

b)

spinal cord

c)

brain

d)

bone marrow; spinal cord

e)

cerebrum

46.

What does "glio" mean?

a)

glue; neuroglial tissue

b)

ganglion

c)

knotlike mass

d)

fissure

e)

support

47.

What does "tono" mean?

a)

sound

b)

pitch

c)

loud

d)

tension

e)

deafness

48.

What does "theco" mean?

a)

thick

b)

sheath

c)

surround

d)

spinal cord

e)

vertebrae

49.

What does "-esthesia" mean?

a)

ether

b)

easy, normal

c)

feeling

d)

numb

e)

unfeeling

50.

What does "-kinesia" mean?

a)

feeling

b)

movement

c)

strong

d)

weak

e)

debility

51.

What does "-lepsy" mean?

a)

leap

b)

speech

c)

numb

d)

feeling

e)

seizure

52.

What does "-plegia" mean?

a)

movement

b)

order

c)

paralysis

d)

coordination

e)

permanent

53.

What does "-asthenia" mean?

a)

weakness, debility

b)

strength

c)

seizure

d)

paralysis

e)

movement

54.

What does "para-" mean?

a)

with

b)

joined

c)

through

d)

near, beside, beyond

e)

thick

55.

What does "syn-" mean?

a)

false

b)

near, beside, beyond

c)

single

d)

multiple

e)

union, together, joined

56.

What does "uni-" mean?

a)

unit

b)

single

c)

one

d)

part

e)

piece

57.

An injury resulting from impact with an object is called...

a)

torpor

b)

sciatica

c)

transient ischemic attack

d)

syncope

e)

concussion

58.

Chronic, recurring seizures are called...

a)

tonic spazms

b)

epilipsies

c)

stroke

d)

apoplexy

e)

clonic spasms

59.

Which mental disorder is characterized by extreme withdrawal and abnormal absorption in fantasy?

a)

agnosia

b)

aura

c)

autism

d)

alzheimer disease

e)

seizure

60.

Which life-threatening emergency involves the whole cortex?

a)

clonic spasm

b)

tonic spasm

c)

status epilipticus

d)

partial seizure

e)

general seizure

61.

Which acute infectious disease in adults is caused by the same organism responsible for chicken pox in children?

a)

huntington chorea

b)

guillain-barre syndrome

c)

cerebral palsy

d)

reye syndrome

e)

herpes zoster

62.

The term pachymeningitis refers to inflammation of the..

a)

dura mater only

b)

pia mater only

c)

arachnoid only

d)

arachnoid and pia mater

e)

dura mater and pia mater

63.

An abnormal activity or a lack of response to normal stimuli is called...

a)

paralysis

b)

asthenia

c)

lethargy

d)

transient ischemic attack

e)

anesthesia

64.

Brain lesions associated with Alzheimer disease are called...

a)

buboes

b)

neurostates

c)

scales

d)

sheaths

e)

plaques

65.

Another term for stroke is..

a)

cerbral palsy

b)

paraplegia

c)

closed head trauma

d)

cerebrovascular accident

e)

pakinsonism

66.

The term syncope means...

a)

seizure

b)

pain

c)

depression

d)

bipolarism

e)

fainting

67.

Which cognitive deficit includes memory impairment?

a)

psychosis

b)

plaque

c)

neurosis

d)

manic depression

e)

dementia

68.

Inflammation of a nerve root associated with the spinal column is called..

a)

cerebritis

b)

radiculopathy

c)

dyskinesia

d)

neuralogia

e)

paraplegia

69.

The results of a stroke would most likely affect:

a)

both hands

b)

both legs

c)

either the left or right side of the body

d)

both arms

e)

both arms and legs

70.

Which disorder is associated with demyelination?

a)

multiple sclerosis

b)

parkinson disease

c)

epilepsy

d)

guillain-barre syndrome

e)

huntington chorea

71.

Pain in one part of the body resulting from injury in another part is called...

a)

paralysis

b)

synalgia

c)

heteralgia

d)

analgesia

e)

epilepsies

72.

Poor muscle coordination, especially with voluntary movements, is called...

a)

anaplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

ataxia

d)

dystonia

e)

dysesthesia

73.

A sudden, uncontrollable urge to sleep at an inappropriate time is called...

a)

somnambulism

b)

somnolence

c)

narcolepsy

d)

narcohypnosis

e)

narcotic

74.

A difficulty with reading or an inability to read is called...

a)

dementia

b)

dyskinesia

c)

dysgraphia

d)

dyslexia

e)

dysesthesia

75.

Pain radiating down the leg due to nerve compression is called...

a)

sciatica

b)

parial paralysis

c)

claudication

d)

neuroma

e)

neurolemma

76.

Which sensory phenomenon acts as a warning signal of an imminent seizure?

a)

clonic seizure

b)

ataxia

c)

tonic seizure

d)

grand mal

e)

aura

77.

Which mental disorder is characterized by unusual shifts in mood, emotion, energy and the ability to function?

a)

mania

b)

neurosis

c)

panic attack

d)

bipolar disorder

e)

anxiety

78.

Swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure is called...

a)

papilledema

b)

papilloma

c)

macular degeneration

d)

optic neuroma

e)

retinopathey

79.

A sudden and violent conraction of one or more voluntary muscles is called a(n)...

a)

coma

b)

concussion

c)

epilepsy

d)

convulsion

e)

spasm

80.

An inherited disease of the CNS with involuntary movements, speech disturbances, and mental deterioration is called...

a)

reye syndrome

b)

guillain-barre syndrome

c)

spina bifida

d)

palsy

e)

huntington chorea

81.

The most severe form of spina bifida, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through the spine, is called...

a)

meningocele

b)

myelomeningocele

c)

occulta

d)

myeloma

e)

myelostenosis

82.

Which classification of drugs depresses central nervous system functions, promotes sedation and sleep, and relieves restelessness?

a)

hypnotics

b)

antipsychotics

c)

antidepressants

d)

psychostimulants

e)

anesthetics

83.

Which classification of drugs treats multiple symptoms of depression by increasing levels of specific neurotransmitters?

a)

Anesthetucs

b)

antipsychotics

c)

hypnotics

d)

antidepressants

e)

psychostimulants

84.

Which classification of drugs controls tremors and muscle rigidity by increasing dopamine in the brain?

a)

antipsychotics

b)

antiparkinsonian agents

c)

antidepressants

d)

psychostimulants

e)

anesthestics

85.

Which classification of drugs acts upon the brain to produce a complete loss of feeling and consciousness?

a)

local anesthetics

b)

nerve blocks

c)

general anesthetics

d)

hypnotics

e)

antipsychotics

86.

Which classification of drugs includes general, local, and nerve blocks?

a)

antiseptics

b)

anesthetics

c)

psychostimulants

d)

hypnotics

e)

keralytics

87.

Which abbreviation refers to stroke symptoms that resolve within 24 hours?

a)

CP

b)

CSF

c)

TIA

d)

LOC

e)

AD

88.

Which abbreviation refers to a state of unconsciousness?

a)

CSF

b)

LOC

c)

TIA

d)

CP

e)

AD

89.

Which abbreviation refers to a recording of electrical activity in the brain to help locate seizure activity?

a)

EMG

b)

NCV

c)

CTA

d)

MRI

e)

EEG

90.

Which abbreviation refers to a type of paralysis that affects movement and body position and sometimes speech and learning ability?

a)

CSF

b)

AD

c)

TIA

d)

CP

e)

MS

91.

Which abbreviation refers to the fluid found in the ventricles and within the meninges of the brain and spinal cord?

a)

CP

b)

CSF

c)

TIA

d)

LOC

e)

AD

92.

A circular opening cut into the skull to reveal brain tissue and decrease intracranial pressure is called a ...

a)

tractotomy

b)

thalamotomy

c)

cryosurgery

d)

trephination

e)

streotaxy

93.

Which medical procedure records electrical activity of the brain?

a)

electromyography

b)

electroencephalography

c)

electrostimulation

d)

electrodissection

e)

electroresection

94.

Which test measures the speed at which impulses travel through a nerve?

a)

neurogaphy

b)

neurometry

c)

electromyometry

d)

nerve conduction velocity

e)

electroneurography

95.

Which technique destroys tissue using extreme cold?

a)

cryogenics

b)

cryoextraction

c)

cryosurgery

d)

cryophilic

e)

cryectomy

96.

A surgical treatment for intractable pain, involuntary movements, tremors, or emotional disturbances is called...

a)

tractotomy

b)

thalamotomy

c)

trephination

d)

encephalotomy

e)

radiculotomy

97.

Which diagnostic procedure produces high-resolution, three-dimensional vascular images of blood vessels?

a)

angiography

b)

computed tomography angiography

c)

vascular scan

d)

doppler scan

e)

position emission tomography

98.

Which diagnostic procedure is used to pinpoint the specific location where seizures originate?

a)

cerebral angiography

b)

computed tomography angiography

c)

vascular scan

d)

magnetic source imaging

e)

positron emission tomography

99.

Which imaging procedure uses radiopharmaceuticals to diagnose such disorders as schizophrenia, brain tumors, and epilepsy?

a)

myelography

b)

magnetic source imaging

c)

echoencephalography

d)

computed tomography angiography

e)

positron emission tomography

100.

Which surgical treatment relieves pressure on a nerve root?

a)

radiculotomy

b)

myelotomy

c)

revision

d)

decompression

e)

spinal alignment

101.

Which procedure involves needle puncture of the spinal cavity to extract spinal fluid for diagnostic purposes?

a)

meningotomy

b)

meningocentesis

c)

cervicotomy

d)

venipuncture

e)

lumbar puncture

102.

An incision of the cranium to gain access to the brain during neurosurgical procedures is called a...

a)

craniotomy

b)

craniectomy

c)

craniocentesis

d)

cranioplasty

e)

craniography

103.

Which procedure involves destruction of nervous tissue?

a)

neurodynia

b)

neuralgia

c)

neurotomy

d)

neurolysis

e)

neuresthenia

104.

Removal of a ganglion is called...

a)

gangliectomy

b)

gliectomy

c)

glionectomy

d)

gangliotomy

e)

ganglionostomy

105.

Which procedure involves measurement of the dimensions of the brain?

a)

encephaloplasty

b)

encephalotomy

c)

encephalometer

d)

encephalometry

e)

encephalocele

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