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FINAL TEST REVIEW

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because

a)

prevents muscle from being placed under excessive tension

b)

increases contraction rate in muscle fibers

c)

increases muscle spindle activity in a tight muscle

d)

prevents muscles from stretching too far or too fast

2.

Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of targeting the local core stabilizers

a)

Incline reverse crunch

b)

Prone iso-ab

c)

Overhead medicine balls

d)

Back extension

3.

Which of the following resistance training systems is advised for clients who have lung disease

a)

Pyramid system

b)

Circuit training system

c)

Drop-set system

d)

Giant set system

4.

Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client's head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?

a)

levator scapulae

b)

longus coli

c)

teres minor

d)

infraspinalus

5.

In order to ensure accuracy while taking resting heart rate it is best that all three tests be taken

a)

at the same time each day

b)

five minutes apart

c)

with a firm touch

d)

immediately

6.

Which of the following is a source of soluble fiber?

a)

oatmeal

b)

milk

c)

eggs

d)

peanut butter

7.

Which of the following is the correct force-couple relationship that allows for the upward rotation of the scapula?

a)

Longus capitus and brachialis

b)

Rhomboid minor and anterior scalenes

c)

Sternoclenomastoid and longus coli

d)

Upper Trapezius and lower portions of the serratus anterior

8.

which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition

a)

bmi measurement

b)

bioelectrical impedance

c)

skin fold caliper measurement

d)

hyrostatic weighing

9.

during a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?

a)

erector spinae

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

levator scapulae

d)

pirformis

10.

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?

a)

Aortic Arch

b)

Pulmonary arteries

c)

Aortic valve

d)

Pulmonary veins

11.

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete's maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature

a)

pushing assessment

b)

push up test

c)

bench press 1 rm

d)

davies test

12.

Which of the following percentages of total caloric intake from fat is appropriate for an athlete?

a)

8%

b)

36%

c)

50%

d)

22%

13.

what auditory cue owuld a trainer use for a client who is performing a stability ball crunch

a)

perform a chin tuck to take stress of your neck

b)

squeeze your knees together to help isolate your abs

c)

place your hands on your hips for greater stability

d)

turn your feet outward for more balance

14.

Which of the following techniques is more of a risk, rather than a benefit, for a new senior client?

a)

arching quadriceps stretch

b)

recumbent cycling

c)

seated strength training machines

d)

cardio at 60%-80% of VO2 peak

15.

What is the approximate amount of water that a man who is sedentary should consume on a daily basis?

a)

2.2 L (9 cups)

b)

1.2 L (5 cups)

c)

2.0 L (8 cups)

d)

3.0 L (13 cups)

16.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using dumbbells?

a)

spot at the client's axilla

b)

spot at the clinet's elbows

c)

spot at the client's hands

d)

spot at the client's wrists

17.

Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?

a)

Davis Law

b)

Ferny's Law

c)

Autogenic Inhibition

d)

Recipricol Inhibition

18.

A high protein diet is commonly associated with...

a)

a decrease in urea production.

b)

an increase in fiber intake.

c)

a decrease in glycogen stores.

d)

a decreased risk of dehydration.

19.

Which of the following warm-up strategies is most appropriate for a client in the stabilization level of the OPT model

a)

Step 1. static stretching, Step 2. Active isolated stretching, Step 3. Dynamic stretching

b)

Step 1. Cardiorespatory exercise,Step 2. Static stretching,Step 3. Self myofascial release

c)

Step 1. Active-isolated stretch Step 2. Dynamic Stretching Step 3. Cardiorespatory Exercise

d)

Step 1. Self myofascial release Step 2. static stretching Step 3. Cardiorespatory exercise

20.

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease should be advised to ...

a)

avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities

b)

substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching

c)

strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic activity daily for 20 to 30 minutes

d)

alternate between modalities so leg pain will not limit exercise

21.

Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principle of specifity

a)

Neuromuscular

b)

Metabolic

c)

Mechanical

d)

Overload

22.

The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition ranges and intensity

a)

1-5 reps at 85% to 100%

b)

6-12 reps at 75% to 85%

c)

Whatever Ferny does

d)

12-20 reps at 50-75%

23.

Which of the following exercises is the next progression to a two-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball fro a client who is in a phase 1 opt program?

a)

barbell bench press

b)

one arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball

c)

alternating arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball

d)

incline barbell bench press

24.

A client is currently training in the hypertrophy phase of the opt model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?

a)

active

b)

functional

c)

dynamic

d)

corrective

25.

a client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using?

a)

static stretxhing

b)

self myofascial release

c)

active isolated stretching

d)

dynamic stretching

26.

Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in phase 2 of OPT model

a)

Single leg box hop up

b)

single leg lift and chop

c)

backflips

d)

single leg squat touchdown

27.

A client indicates he is taking beta blockers for hypertension. During Phase1 of the opt model, the trainer should

a)

use valsalva maneuvers

b)

avoid prone positions

c)

implement a drop set loading system

d)

modify training to include heavy workloads

28.

The oxidative system is primarily used when a client

a)

sprints 40 yds

b)

executes a 1RM clean and jerk

c)

jogs for 30 min

d)

performs a 1RM squat

29.

On monday a client trains chest, shoulders, and triceps and on thursday they train back biceps and legs, what is this training system called

a)

Vertical loading system

b)

Split routine system

c)

Ferny method

d)

Superset system

30.

Which of the following would aid the primary respiratory muscles in breathing after a set of maximum effort sprints?

a)

Deltoids

b)

Serratus anterior

c)

Lower Trapezius

d)

Scalene

31.

When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use?

a)

ADP

b)

ATP-PC

c)

Oxidative

d)

Glycolysis

32.

A client who is practicing repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique is exhibiting

a)

Synergistic Dominance

b)

Autogenic Inhibition

c)

Relative Flexibility

d)

Motor learning

33.

Which of the following stimulates muscle fibers to go through a series of steps that initiate muscle contractions?

a)

Acetlycholine

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Perimysium

d)

Myosin

34.

Which of the following exercises uses a ball-and-socket joint as the primary mover?

a)

Seated dumbbell lateral raise

b)

Seated hammer curl

c)

Cable pushdown

d)

Cable hamstring curl

35.

The body's ability to differentiate between walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which of the following functions of the nervous system?

a)

Arthokinematic

b)

Integrative

c)

Sensory

d)

Motor

36.

If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following?

a)

Pattern overload

b)

Reciprocal Inhibition

c)

Synergistic Dominance

d)

Arthorkinetic dysfunction

37.

Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?

a)

ballistic stretching

b)

static stretching

c)

dynamic stretching

d)

active isolated stretching

38.

IF a client squats with his feet excessively externally rotated, it is evidence of which of the following?

a)

Altered reciprocal inhibition

b)

Altered Arthrokinematics

c)

Excessive dorsiflexion

d)

Limited plantarflexion

39.

Which of the following resistance training systems aims to distribute blood flow between upper and lower extremities

a)

Pyramid system

b)

Drop sets

c)

Peripheral heart action system

d)

Ferny method

40.

A personal trainer is working with a 65-year old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client?

a)

Red Light Green Light

b)

stand up to figure 8

c)

follow the snake

d)

modified box drill

41.

What visual cue would a trainer use for a client who is performing the single-leg scaption exercise?

a)

demonstate shoulder abduction until both arms are held at shoulder height toward the sides of the body

b)

demonstrate horizontal abduction of both arms, thumbs up, from a starting position of 90 degrees of shoulder flexion

c)

demonstrate pressing both dumbbells directly overhead until both arms are fully extended

d)

demonstrate raising both arms, thumbs up tat a 45-degree angoe in the front of the body

42.

Within the stabilization phase of resistance training, which would e an appropriate regression of the two arm shoulder press seated on a stability ball?

a)

single leg

b)

one arm

c)

seated on a bench

d)

alternating arms

43.

which of the following is a physiologic adaptation a client experiences from high-volume resistance training

a)

increased resting heart rate

b)

increased metabolic rate

c)

Ferny heart rate

d)

increased resting arterial blood pressure

44.

A client is performing a prone iso ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. As a regression, the trainer should instruct the client to perform the exercise.

a)

in a standard push up position

b)

with the feet elevated

c)

with hands on stability ball

d)

with one hip in full extension

45.

The proper balance progression to increase a client's proprioception is which of the following?

a)

Single leg unstable, single leg stable, two leg unstable, one leg unstable

b)

two leg stable, single leg stable, two leg unstable, single leg unstable,

c)

this is the correct progression, starting from the most stable position and progression to the most unstable position

d)

single leg stable, two leg stable, one leg unstable, two leg unstable

46.

What is the proper ending position of the back leg during a cable rotation?

a)

parallel to the front leg

b)

flexed at the hip, knee, and ankle

c)

triple extension

d)

foot should be flat

47.

Which of the following is an appropriate kinesthetic cue for a client performing a standing cable row?

a)

have the client imagine a foam roll in the small of her back

b)

have the client look a t an image 30 above her head

c)

have the client protrude her abdomen against a weight belt

d)

have the client imagine she is squeezing a quarter between her shoulder blades

48.

Which of the following is considered the functional unit of muscle?

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Epimysium

c)

Muscle Spindle

d)

Perimysium

49.

Which of the following is the correct kinetic chain checkpoint for the single leg squat?

a)

knee is in line with the second and third toe

b)

knee is in line with the medial border of the big toe

c)

this will cause the knee to slightly abduct

d)

knee is in line with the lateral border of the fifth toe

50.

Which structure of the skeletal muscle contains a combination of glycogen, fats, minerals, and oxygen-binding myoglobin?

a)

Fascia

b)

Sarcoplasm

c)

Troponin

d)

Endomysium

51.

which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press

a)

spot at the elbows

b)

place hands at both ends of the barbell

c)

wait until the client progresses throughout the entire exercise

d)

determine how many repetitions the clients will perform before beginning the set

52.

Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise?

a)

Have the client use a repeating tempo on a squat jump

b)

have the client perform ice skaters with as fast a tempo as he can control

c)

this is an example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise

d)

have a client perform a single leg squat with a 4 2 1 tempo

53.

Whcih of the following exercises is a dynamic stretch?

a)

single leg squat touchdown

b)

static 90/90 hamstring stretch

c)

active latissimus dorsi ball stretch

d)

step up to balance

54.

Which of the following is appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client?

a)

Divide the clients resting heart rate by 220.

b)

Divide 220 by the clients age.

c)

Subtract the clients resting heart from 220.

d)

Subtract the client's age from 220.

55.

After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined that a client falls in the "Below Average" category for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client?

a)

Zone two intervals

b)

Zone One

c)

Zone three

d)

Zone three intervals

56.

During a single-leg squat assessment, the client's standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

a)

Gluteus medius

b)

Tensor Fascia Latae (TFL)

c)

Adductor complex

d)

Vastus Lateralis

57.

A trainer is working with a senior client. The trainer should be aware of which of the following physiological characteristics?

a)

Decreased lean body mass

b)

Decreased risk of arteriorsclerosis

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Increased connective tissue elasticity

58.

A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Longus capitis

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Longus coli

59.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment?

a)

Assessing dynamic flexibility and integrated body strength.

b)

Assessing lower extremity agility and balance

c)

Estimating one-rep maximum and upper extremity strength.

d)

Asserting upper extremity agility and stablization

60.

During the overhead squat assessment, the client's arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?

a)

Errector Spinae

b)

Pectoralis minor

c)

Lower Trapezius

d)

Rotator cuff

61.

The client's feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle?

a)

Gracilis

b)

Lateral Gastrocnemius

c)

Medial Hamstring

d)

sartorius

62.

Why is it crucial to have a client complete the PAR-Q?

a)

It helps detect any possible cardiorespiratory dysfunction.

b)

It helps detect any possible postural imbalances

c)

It provides information about body fat percentage

d)

It provides information about muscular strength.

63.

A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to

a)

Self-myofascial release the anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius.

b)

Self-myosfascial release the medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae.

c)

static stretch the anterior tibialis, gluteus maximum, and erector spinae.

d)

static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex.

64.

A high-protein diet is commonly associated with...

a)

an increase in fiber intake

b)

a decreased risk of dehydration

c)

a decrease in glycogen stores

d)

a decrease in urea production

65.

Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate?

a)

insulin

b)

monosaccharide

c)

cholecystokinin

d)

phenylalanine

66.

A trainer is working with a client who is attempting to increase his lean body mass. The trainer should recognize that the highest percentage of caloric intake should come from which of the following?

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

protein

d)

liquids

67.

Which of the following vitamins are fat -soluble?

a)

Vitamin B

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin A

68.

Which of the following is an example of a non-directive question?

a)

"If someone told you all your goals are at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?"

b)

"Is there an athlete or celebrity's body you would like to have?"

c)

"What are your top three fitness goals?"

d)

"Did you play sports in high school?"

69.

What is this purpose of asking a client an open-ended question?

a)

So the client can provide more in-depth answers to invite discussion.

b)

For the client to better understand the trainer's question.

c)

So the client can answer with one question.

d)

So the client can answer quickly reply in order to establish agreement.

70.

The fitness professional asks the client, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of which of the following kinds of questions?

a)

Dichotomous

b)

Contingency

c)

Open-ended

d)

Directive

71.

A client tells the personal trainer that she does not exercise, but that she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. in which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this client?

a)

Precontemplation

b)

Preperation

c)

Contemplation

d)

Action

72.

When family members pressure a loved one to exercise. That person may respond b exercising less. This is known as

a)

Remodeling

b)

action potential

c)

self monotoring

d)

behavioral reactants

73.

People most frequently cite which of the following reasons for not exercising?

a)

a lack of time

b)

a lack of positive social influences

c)

a lack of sufficient funds

d)

a lack of access to a fitness club

74.

Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?

a)

"Starting on Monday,I will try a new group exercise class to maximize m results and meet new friends."

b)

'' I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating 1,600 calorie per day."

c)

"Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to lower my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points."

d)

"I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs."

75.

Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?

a)

"I will join a new cycling club to maximize my aerobic fitness and avoid boredom."

b)

"I will exercise five days a week and eat a healthy diet to reduce my LDL cholesterol and glucose levels."

c)

"I will purchase a workout video to help me lose 30 pounds in the next four weeks to be ready for my daughter's wedding."

d)

"I will lose 15 pounds in eight weeks by jogging for 30 minutes five days per week with weekly weigh-ins to monitor my progress."

76.

What strategy can the trainer incorporate that may enhance the client's exercise adhereance?

a)

metabolic testing

b)

internal feedback

c)

brigance test

d)

SMART goals

77.

Which of the following tests is open ended?

a)

"Are you currently exercising?"

b)

"Do you enjoy group classes?"

c)

"What is your fitness goal?"

d)

"Have you ever worked with a personal trainer?"

78.

Which of the following is an appropriate example of a fitness professional practicing proper conduct and upholding NASM's Code of Professional Conduct?

a)

Training a client with coronary artery disease who has recieved medical clearance

b)

Training a client before a client before the client completes a health history questionnare.

c)

Providing an overweight client with meal plans to help calorie consumption

d)

Treating common musculoskeletal injuries that appear to be minor

79.

A certified personal trainer is working for two weeks on a cruise ship as a guest instructor. According to the code of professional conduct, which of the following clients is the personal trainer allowed to train?

a)

A 60 year-old man who has cardiac arrhythmia, and a written medical clearance to exercises and prescribed restrictions on which exercises to avoid.

b)

A 16 year-old soccer player who has a recent ACL injury and verbal permission from his coach to start exercising.

c)

A 35 year-old man who has no known injuries and does not turn in a signed health history but he gives a complete verbal history

d)

A 45 year-old man who has type 1 diabetes and no written medical clearance from a doctor but he has worked with a certified personal trainer at his home gym for two years and just completed his first marathon.

80.

Which of the following is an appropriate reccomendation a personal trainer can make for a new elderly female who acknowledges high blood pressure during her preparticipation health screening?

a)

recommend that the client see her physician for further evaluation

b)

recommend that the client reduce her sodium intake

c)

reccomend that the the client start slow in Phase 1 of the OPT model

d)

reccomend that the client perform exercises in a supine position to regulate blood pressure

81.

During the subjective assessment, a client reports pain and swelling in his right knee. What is the best course of action for the personal trainer to take?

a)

perform exercise for only the left leg until the swelling subsides I the right knee

b)

Instruct the client to see his physician to diagnose the problem

c)

instruct the client to use an ice pack on the knee and take-over-the-counter-anti-inflamitory mediaction for 10 days

d)

train only the upper body of the client until all pain and swelling has subsided in the right knee

82.

Which of the following actions is within the scope of the NASM-BOC code of Professional Conduct

a)

Give the client a detailed diet plan.

b)

Refer the client to the appropriate practitioner when injured.

c)

Recommend over-the-counter supplements for chronic conditions.

d)

Wrap joints before each training session.

83.

Which of the following best allows a certified personal trainer to comply with the NASM Code of Professional Conduct.

a)

Provide nutritional supplementation to treat illness.

b)

Provide detailed menu plans for clients.

c)

Maintain adequate liability insurance.

d)

Diagnose an injury after an assessment.

84.

According to the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct, certified personal trainers are required to meet legal and ethical requirements and uphold high levels of professionalism , which include

a)

keeping accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records for the minimum of one year

b)

completing the cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and automated external defribillator (AED) certification with one month of obtaining personal training certification

c)

referring the client to other healthcare professionals when nutritional meal plans are requested,unless the trainer was specifically trained to do so

d)

conducting a detailed health-history questionnare with the client

85.

When it comes to client confidentiality, when would it be appropriate to share a client's personal information with someone else?

a)

During a conversation with the client's new trainer after the client has switched to another trainer.

b)

When a client agrees in writing that you may share her personal information.

c)

When a client, who is a minor, gives permission to discuss his information.

d)

During a conversation with a personal training manager.