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Knee Review

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following ligaments protect the knee from valgus stress and external tibial rotational forces

a)

ACL

b)

PCL

c)

MCL

d)

LCL

2.

The Lachman's test is used to evaluate stability of which of the following?

a)

MCL

b)

ACL

c)

Meniscus

d)

Patellar femoral joint

3.

Which of the following is the bursa that commonly becomes inflamed from overuse of the patellar tendon?

a)

Prepatellar bursa

b)

Superficial infrapatellar bursa

c)

Suprapatellar bursa

d)

Deep infrapatellar bursa

4.

The MOI that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at greatest risk for injury is which of the following

a)

Hyperextension of the knee

b)

Falling witht he knee bent and the foot dorsiflexed

c)

A valgus stress with the knee fully extended

d)

Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantar flexed

5.

A painful condition involving partial or complete separation of a piece of articular cartilage or subchondral bone is which of the following

a)

Joint mice

b)

Osteochondritis dissecans

c)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

d)

Larsen-Johansson disease

6.

Which of the following is a condition common to runners and cyclists characterized by pain and irritation over the lateral femoral condyle?

a)

Pes anerine tendinitis

b)

Jumper's knee

c)

Iliotibial band syndrome

d)

Biceps femoris tendonitis

7.

The anterior cruciate ligament is most often injured during what phase?

a)

During deceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia internally rotated

b)

During accleration with the knee in varus and the tibia externally rotated

c)

During deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated

d)

During accleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia externally rotated

8.

Which of the following structures is the main source of stability in the knee?

a)

Menisci

b)

Ligaments

c)

Bones

d)

Cartilage

9.

An athlete who has immediate, significant swelling following an injury is displaying signs consistent with an injury to which of the following?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Capsule

c)

Meniscus

d)

Cruciate ligament

10.

Feelings of locking are associated with injury to which structure?

a)

Bone

b)

Cartilage

c)

Ligament

d)

Muscle

11.

The anterior cruciate ligament prevents which of the following

a)

Varus stress

b)

Valgus stress

c)

Posterior movement of the femur on the tibia in weight-bearing

d)

Anterior movement of the femur on the tibia in weight-bearing

12.

What mechanism is most likely to injure the medial meniscus?

a)

A varus force

b)

Hyperextension

c)

A valgus force

d)

A valgus force with rotation

13.

What is the most common mechanism of injury for a patellar dislocation

a)

The knee is flexed and internally rotated

b)

The foot is planted and the knee is in valgus

c)

The knee is extended and externally rotated

d)

The foot is planted and athlete cuts in same direction

14.

Which of the following is a cause of chondromalacia

a)

Strong quadriceps muscles

b)

Abnormal patellar tracking

c)

Varus deformity at the knee

d)

Supination of the foot

15.

The patella usually dislocates in which direction?

a)

Medially

b)

Inferiorlly

c)

Posterior

d)

Lateral

16.

The quadriceps muscles primary job is to do which of the following

a)

Flex the knee

b)

Rotate the knee

c)

Flex the hip

d)

Extend the knee

17.

Which of the following structures have the responsibility of cushioning the knee during impact activity?

a)

Cruciate ligaments

b)

Menisci

c)

Femoral condyles

d)

Collateral ligaments

18.

Which of the following injuries would NOT cause joint effusion

a)

Meniiscal tear

b)

Patellar tendinitis

c)

Anterior cruciate ligament tear

d)

Medical collateral ligament tear

19.

The strongest cruciate ligament of the knee is the

a)

Anterior cruciate

b)

Posterior cruciate

c)

Arcuate cruciate

d)

Lateral cruciate

20.

The Anterior Drawer test is used to evaluate stability of the

a)

MCL

b)

ACL

c)

Meniscus

d)

Patellar femoral joint

21.

The ligament injury of the knee generally considered to be the most serious involves the:

a)

Anterior cruciate

b)

Lateral collateral

c)

Medial collateral

d)

Posterior cruciate

22.

A gradual degenerative condition affecting the underside of the patella is called:

a)

Patellaritis

b)

Chondromalacia patella

c)

Osteochondritis dissecans

d)

Osgood-Schlatter's disease

23.

The day before, a skier fell during a training run and twisted her knee. She experienced mild pain and was able to ambulate with a slight limp. She did not notice any swelling at this time. Today she complains of swelling, stiffness, and occasional locking of the knee joint. The athlete has probably sustained a/an:

a)

Meniscal tear

b)

Tibial fracture

c)

Anterior cruciate sprain

d)

Subluxation of the patella

24.

The signs and symptoms of a meniscal tear and chrondromalacia patella may often appear similar. Which of the following conditions is indicative of both of these injuries?

a)

Locking of the knee

b)

Pain of the anterior knee with activity

c)

Pain of the lateral joint line

d)

Pain while performing a squat

25.

You hear of an athlete sustaining a "terrible triad" or "unhappy triad". Which tissues are affected?

a)

MCL, LCL, ACL

b)

LCL, ACL, Medial Meniscus

c)

Lateral Meniscus, ACL, LCL

d)

Medial Meniscus, ACL, MCL

26.

Structure that attaches quadricep muscle to the tibia is the

a)

Patella

b)

Patella Tendon

c)

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

d)

Quadricep ligament

27.
Which muscle is pictured here? 
a)
Rectus Femoris
b)
Vastus Lateralis
c)
Semitendinosus
d)
Biceps Femoris
28.

The muscle marked by the letter C is the

a)

Biceps Femoris

b)

Vastus Medialis

c)

Sartorius

d)

Vastus Lateralis

29.

The muscle marked by the letter A is the

a)

Biceps Femoris

b)

Vastus Intermedius

c)

Sartorius

d)

Vastus Lateralis

30.

The muscle marked by the letter D is the

a)

Rectus Femoris

b)

Vastus Medialis

c)

Vastus Lateralis

d)

Vastus Intermedius

31.

Identify the RED muscle

a)

Semitendinosus

b)

Semimembranosus

c)

Biceps Femoris

d)

Quadricep

32.

Identify the BLUE muscle

a)

Semitendinosus

b)

Semimembranosus

c)

Biceps Femoris

d)

Quadricep

33.

Identify the GREEN muscles

a)

Semitendinosus

b)

Semimembranosus

c)

Biceps Femoris

d)

Quadricep

34.
Which meniscus is shaped like the letter "C"?
a)
Medial
b)
Lateral
c)
Anterior
d)
Posterior
35.
Which ligament prevents the tibia from moving backward on the femur?
a)

MCL

b)

LCL

c)

PCL

d)

ACL

36.

What does "C" of ACL stand for?

a)

Cruciate

b)

Collateral

c)

Connective

d)

Condylar

37.

What does the "C" of MCL stand for?

a)

Cruciate

b)

Collateral

c)

Connective

d)

Condylar

38.

Why is the medial meniscus wider than the lateral meniscus?

a)

because the medial tibial plateau is smaller

b)

because the lateral epicondyle is higher

c)

because the fibular head is in the way

d)

because the medial condyle of the femur is bigger

39.

What is the function of the patella

a)

increases mechanical advantage of the quadriceps femoris tendon

b)

decreases mechanical advantage of the quadriceps femoris tendon

c)

serves as a cushion

d)

attaches the femur to the tibia

40.

The knee is a synovial joint. What does this mean?

a)

fibrous capsule covers the joint

b)

meniscus cushions the knee joint

c)

enclosed by a capsule, and filled with fluid

d)

the bursa of the knee provide shock absorption

41.

Which anatomical landmark makes up the most distal ends of the femur that are covered with articular cartilage?

a)

Tibial Tuberosity

b)

Femoral Condyles

c)

Femoral Epicondyles

d)

Adductor Tubercles

42.

Genu valgum is best described as

a)

Bow-legged

b)

Knock kneed

c)

Hyperextension

d)

None of the above

43.

Another name of IT Band Friction Syndrome

a)

Runner's knee

b)

Jumper's knee

c)

Tennis knee

d)

Lacrosse knee

44.

Which muscle is NOT part of the Pes Anderine Tendon

a)

Gracilis

b)

Sartorius

c)

Semitendinosus

d)

Bicep femoris

45.

When performing the McMurray's test, you are testing for an injury to

a)

Medial collateral ligament

b)

Meniscus

c)

Anterior cruciate ligament

d)

Posterior cruiciate ligament

46.

the medical term for bowlegged

a)

Genu varum

b)

Genu valgum

c)

Genu recurvatum

d)

Genu I dont care

47.

Another name for patellar tendinits

a)

Runner's knee

b)

Jumper's knee

c)

Golfer's knee

d)

Cheerleader's knee

48.

When performing the varus stress test, you are testing for an injury to

a)

Medial collateral ligament

b)

Meniscus

c)

Anterior cruciate ligament

d)

Lateral collateral ligament

49.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the menisci

a)

Deepens the articulation of the joint

b)

Increases stability of the joint

c)

negate shock absorption

d)

Provides lubrication

50.

Osgood-Schlatter disease is described as

a)

Inflammation of the patellar tendon

b)

Inflammation of the quadriceps tendon

c)

Inflammation at the tibia tuberosity

d)

Inflammation of the patellar tendon at the tibial tuberosity/tubercle

e)

When your knee gets slaughtered

51.

Which ligament is shaped like a pencil

a)

Anterior cruciate

b)

Medial collateral

c)

Posterior cruciate

d)

Lateral collateral

52.

The medical term for hyperextended knees

a)

Genu valgum

b)

Genu recurvatum

c)

Genu varus

d)

Genu recurvalgum

53.

Most non-contact ACL injuries are caused by

a)

Hyperextension

b)

Rotation

c)

Rotation with valgus stress

d)

Rotation with varus stress

54.

Why does a tear near the center of a meniscus to heal slower than one on the periphery?

a)

More blood flow

b)

About the same blood flow

c)

Less blood flow

d)

Have no idea

55.

An athlete suffering from a MCL sprain may also have injured what other structure

a)

LCL

b)

Gracilis muscle

c)

PCL

d)

Meniscus

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