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Hypersensitivity Immunology

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Immediate Hypersensitivity is which type

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

2.

Which cells are important for type I hypersensitivity?

a)

mast cells

b)

neutrophils

c)

antibodies

d)

leukocytes

3.

Which is NOT a feature of type I hypersensitivity?

a)

atopy

b)

response time lags

c)

exaggerated Th2

d)

Excessive IgE

4.

Which factors would make you more susceptible to Atopy?

a)

High genetic susceptibility

b)

low genetic susceptibility

c)

less hygienic

d)

more hygienic

5.

Which immunoglobulin is bound to the surface in type I to cross link and degranulate host cell?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

6.

Which interleukin is important for the induction of IgE response in type I sensitivity?

a)

IL-4

b)

IL-12

c)

IFN-y

d)

IL-5

7.

IL-12 and IFN-y induce what action in type I

a)

Inhibit IL-4 response

b)

Promote IL-4 response

c)

Promote T cell proliferation

d)

inhibit t cell proliferation

8.

"Metachromic" intense staining occurs in which cell type?

a)

mast cells

b)

lymphocytes

c)

b cells

d)

NK cells

9.

The binding of which is indicative of rapid, complete degraulation

a)

IgE

b)

IgG

c)

neuropeptides

d)

adenosine

10.

Which is not a response of IgE cross-linking?

a)

cytokine synthesis and secretion

b)

granule exocytosis

c)

prostoglandin and leukotriene synthesis

d)

phagocytosis of target cells

11.

Which is not an action of granule exocytosis?

a)

vascular dilation

b)

smooth muscle contraction

c)

tissue damage

d)

leukocyte recruitment

12.

Which mast cell mediator is solely responsible for smooth muscle contraction?

a)

protaglandin

b)

proteases

c)

leukotrienes

d)

cytokines

13.

which occurs in the late phase of type I hypersensitivity?

a)

cytokines

b)

vasoactive amines

c)

lipid mediators

d)

mast cells

14.

Which cell type is in the second phase of type I?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Mast cells

15.

Which interleukin mobiles eosinophils for the second phase?

a)

Il-3

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4

d)

IL-5

16.

allergic rhinitis, food allergies, bronchial asthma, and anaphylaxis are all indicative of

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

17.

Urticaria or local dermatitis is indicitive of which type hypersensitivity?

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

18.

With the exception of the dog and cat, which organ system is mostly affected with type I?

a)

respiratory

b)

hepatic

c)

GI

d)

renal

19.

Which system is affected in anaphylaxis in dog?

a)

respiratory tract

b)

heptic

c)

GI

d)

renal

20.

Which type of hypersensitivity is antibody mediated?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

21.

Which immunoglobulins are important in Type II?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

22.

Reaction to drugs, blood transfusions, or neonatal hemolytic erthrolysis are examples of which type?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

23.

Antibody mediated is also called

a)

cytotoxic mediated

b)

immune complex mediated

c)

t- cell mediated

24.

Which cell type is important for type II?

a)

mast cells

b)

neutrophils

c)

granulocytes

d)

monocytes

25.

An antibody stimulating a receptor w/o a hormone occurs in what disease?

a)

Grave's disease

b)

Myasthenia Gravis

c)

Lymes's disease

26.

T/F: animals may possess antibodies against foreign blood groups antigen even though they've never been previously exposed.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

In which case would RBCs not be immediately destructed in a transfusion

a)

in absence of preexisting antibodies

b)

in case of second transfusion

c)

in case of natural antibodies

d)

in case of cross reacting epitopes

28.

If dam and fetus have incompatible blood types the result is

a)

HDN

b)

ADR

c)

DIC

d)

RBC

29.

Which blood type produces the most severe reaction in HDN?

a)

AA

b)

Qa

c)

EAA

d)

Q

30.

Which mares are most likely to produce HDN foals?

a)

that lack Aa and Qa

b)

mares having their first foal

c)

mares that have the Aa and Qa blood type

d)

mares that foals are removed before suckling

31.

Which is true about HDN in calves?

a)

EAB and EAJ are least important

b)

results from anaplasmosis or babesiosis vaccination

c)

very common

d)

they don't stimulate antibody production against blood group

32.

which is false about bovine neonatal pancytopenia?

a)

causes unexplained hemorrhagic disease of calves

b)

colostrum of dams contained antibodies against MHC II antigen

c)

traced back to BVD vaccine

33.

Why did the hog cholera vaccine cause HDN?

a)

it contained pig blood

b)

it targeted MHC I

c)

increased production of lymphocytes

d)

because of prexposure.

34.

Penicillin induced hemolytic anemia is common in which species?

a)

horses

b)

pigs

c)

cattle

d)

poultry

35.

Which isn't a way that drugs and antibodies interact?

a)

combine indirectly and activate complement

b)

binds to cell surface of glycoproteins

c)

can modify red cell membranes

d)

red cells are destroyed as bystander effect

36.

In type III hypersenstivity, what is deposited in large amounts in tissues and causes inflammation?

a)

immune complexes

b)

antibodies

c)

antigen

d)

eosinophils

37.

the classical pathway generates what that attracts neutrophils

a)

chemattractant peptide

b)

mast cells

c)

oxidants

d)

enzymes

38.

What is the prerequisite for development of immune complexes?

a)

insoluble immune complexes

b)

soluble antigen and antibody

c)

insoluble antigen and antibody

d)

soluble immune complexes

39.

The most commonly affected sites of type III are all except

a)

skin

b)

lungs

c)

joints

d)

brain

e)

liver

40.

Onset for type III is

a)

immediate

b)

6-8 hrs

c)

3-5 hrs

d)

12-24 hrs

41.

What is it called when excess antigen in circulation meets up w/ antibody (IgG)

a)

local hypersensitivity

b)

generalized/systemic

42.

Acute inflammation will develop at the injection site within several hours in what reaction

a)

Arthus

b)

Arthers

c)

Type IV

43.

Which is not a significant feature in the mechanism of Local type III?

a)

complement activation

b)

neutrophil emigration

c)

destruction of blood vessel wall

d)

eosinophil emigration

44.

What is Attributable to natural infection with canine adenovirus type 1

a)

serum sickness

b)

blue eye

c)

Pneumonitis

45.

Exposure to to S. rectivirgula can cause all EXECPT:

a)

farmer's lung

b)

pneumonitis

c)

Acute alveolitis

d)

systemic lupus erythematous

46.

Which is not an example of generalized type III hypersensitivity?

a)

serum sickness

b)

chronic drug exposure

c)

infectious agents

d)

autoimmune dz.

e)

Pneumonitis

47.

Which doesn't influence deposition of immune complexes?

a)

Size of the circulating immune complex

b)

Ability of the host to clear the immune complexes from circulation

c)

Anatomic and hemodynamic factors influence where the complexes deposit

d)

filtration rate

48.

Which form of Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis contains C3 but not Ig?

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

49.

Which type of Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis occurs in subepitheilial

a)

type i

b)

type II

c)

type III

50.

Which type of hypersensitivity is considered t- cell mediated?

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

51.

Type IV hypersensitivity is occurernce is

a)

immediate

b)

delayed

c)

3-6 hrs post exposure

d)

0-4 hours post exposure

52.

Which cell type is not a component in type IV hypersensitivity

a)

TH1 cells

b)

cytotoxic t cells

c)

macrophage

d)

dendrite

53.

Methimazole drug reaction occurs because of drug/hapten response and is which type(s)

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

54.

Which of the following is not a component of the interactions that occur in type IV?

a)

injected antigen

b)

APC

c)

t-cell

d)

antibody mediation

55.

All are clinical examples of type IV EXCEPT:

a)

TB reaction

b)

contact dermatitis

c)

gluten sensitivity

d)

atopy

56.

lesions in the TB reaction are infiltrated with what only during the first few hours?

a)

neutrophils

b)

lymphocytes

c)

macrophages

57.

Which tuberculin test is the most efficiency but also has the most risk of anaphylaxis?

a)

single intradermal

b)

comparative

c)

short thermal

d)

stormont

58.

Animals infected with what may develop a delayed hypersensitivity reaction following ID injection of Johnin, an extract of this organism

a)

MAP

b)

SID

c)

BID

d)

TB

59.

Pathological consequences of type IV are all of the following except

a)

tubercle formation

b)

allergic contract dermatitis

c)

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

d)

hemolytic dz.

60.

Which of the 3 mechanism of type IV occurs over the longest period?

a)

granulomatous reactions

b)

allergic contact dermatitis

c)

tuberculin reaction

61.

Which of the following is exhibited by areas of hairloss?

a)

atopic dermatitis

b)

allergic contact dermatitis

62.

In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, skin ulcers due to binding of epidermal cells and triggering of what

a)

CD95L

b)

mast cells

c)

dendritic cells

d)

FAS-L

63.

When measuring t cell proliferation (dividing vs non-dividing) you're measuring the uptake of what

a)

H3-thymidine

b)

HSP-thymidine

c)

T-3

d)

tryosine

64.

when measuring t-cell mediated cytotoxicity (killed vs unkilled) what are you measuring

a)

51CR

b)

H3tyridine

c)

3CR

d)

51T

65.

What are your removing before you measure Cytokine Release by T cells

a)

cytokines like IFN-y

b)

supernatant

c)

lymphocytes

66.

ELISpot Assay measures bound cytokines via

a)

enzyme labeled antiglobulin

b)

centrifuge

c)

radioactivity

d)

unbound thymidine

67.

Allergic reaction to L-asparaginase chemotherapy within a few minutes after administration of the drug in a dog.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

68.

Severe urticarial reaction and facial edema post vaccine administration.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

69.

Nosebleed, bruising of skin and gums. History of sulfonamide treatment 20 days prior.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

70.

Sudden onset of anorexia, vomiting, lethargy along with peripheral edema was observed in a Labrador six months after becoming seropositive for Borrelia burgdorferi. Further testing revealed uremia, hyperphosphatemia, and severe protein-losing nephropathy.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

71.

3 weeks after a bout of infection with S. equi, a horse developed subcutaneous edema involving limbs and brisket, and the development of hemorrhages in the mucosa.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

72.

Vomiting, diarrhea, hypersalivation, fever, and hemoglobinuria post blood transfusion

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

73.

An acutely depressed dog with a rapid decrease in PCV within 24-48 h with bilirubinemia, icterus, hemoglobinuria, and anemia.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

74.

Diamond shaped skin lesions in pigs

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

75.

A foal was born healthy but became weak and depressed around 6 h after suckling. The mucus membranes of foal became icteric after 24 h. The suckling was stopped and therapy to manage the condition was started.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

76.

Facial edema less than an hour after an insect bite

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

77.

A one-year-old, intact female, Yorkshire terrier dog presented with skin lesions, which included blisters and patchy skin loss. The condition affected the epidermis over the nose, the footpads, and the oral, pharyngeal, nasal, and conjunctival mucosa. The dog was on potentiated sulfonamides a couple of weeks ago

a)

type IV - steven johnson syndrome

b)

type III

c)

type II

d)

type I atopy

78.

history of polyuria/polydipsia, anorexia, vomiting, and diarrhea with melena. A hematologic evaluation 3 days earlier had revealed blood urea nitrogen increase and elevated serum creatinine and antibodies to Leishmania spp. and D. immitis antigens.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV

79.

Erythema, alopecia and vesiculation on abdomen in a dog, possibly due to exposure to dyes in carpet.

a)

type I

b)

type II

c)

type III

d)

type IV