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Met 1 Clouds/Precipitation/Atmosphere/Thermodynamics

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A given mass of air is saturated with water vapour (no condensed water). If temperature increases:

a)

The amount of water vapour remains constant

b)

Relative humidity remains constant

c)

The amount of water vapour decreases

d)

Relative humidity increases

2.

The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:

a)

Air temperature

b)

Stability of the air

c)

Relative humidity

d)

Dew point

3.

Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?

a)

It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud

b)

It will not occur in clear-sky conditions

c)

It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud

d)

It always occurs in altostratus cloud

4.

Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity?

a)

Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure x 100

b)

Ratio between the amount of water vapour (g) and the amount of air (kg) x 100

c)

Ratio between air temperature and dew point temperature x 100

d)

Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio x 100

5.

Relative humidity depends on:

a)

Temperature of the air only

b)

Moisture content of the air only

c)

Moisture content and temperature of the air

d)

Moisture content and pressure of the air

6.

Relative humidity:

a)

Is higher in warm air than in cool air

b)

Decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

c)

Is higher in cool air than in warm air

d)

Increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

7.

Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is:

a)

Less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate

b)

Less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate

c)

Greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate

d)

Greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate

8.

A layer can be:

a)

Stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air

b)

Stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air

c)

Unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable

d)

Unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air

9.

A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel

a)

Decreases 0.65°C per 100 m

b)

Remains constant

c)

Decreases 1°C per 100 m

d)

Becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer

10.

Rising air cools because:

a)

It contracts

b)

Surrounding air is cooler at higher levels

c)

It expands

d)

It becomes more moist

11.

Consider a parcel of air being forced upwards in the atmosphere. The lapse rate of the surrounding air is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. After the initial force is no longer effective, the parcel of air

a)

Will become conditionally unstable.

b)

Will tend to remain at the new altitude.

c)

Will tend to ascend further.

d)

Will tend to descend to its original altitude.

12.

Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?

a)

Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m

b)

Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels

c)

Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels

d)

Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m

13.

A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?

a)

The same as the starting temperature.

b)

Lower than the starting temperature.

c)

Higher than the starting temperature.

d)

It depends upon the QFE.

14.

A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m increasing altitude is

a)

Absolutely unstable

b)

Conditionally unstable

c)

Absolutely stable

d)

Neutral for dry air

15.

The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in:

a)

Freezing fog

b)

Cirrus

c)

Stratus

d)

Cumulus

16.

Radiation fog most frequently occurs in:

a)

High pressure systems over sea.

b)

Low pressure systems over land.

c)

Low pressure systems over sea.

d)

High pressure systems over land.

17.

What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?

a)

Water droplets.

b)

Supercooled water droplets.

c)

Water vapour.

d)

Ice crystals.

18.

Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one level?

a)

Cirrocumulus

b)

Stratus

c)

Cumulus congestus

d)

Altocumulus

19.

Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?

a)

Stratus.

b)

Altocumulus.

c)

Cirrus

d)

Nimbostratus.

20.

Which of the following cloud genera may extend over the low, middle and high cloud levels?

a)

Cb

b)

St

c)

Ci

d)

Ac

21.

Which of the following clouds represents the most stable air mass?

a)

Altocumulus lenticularis.

b)

Altocumulus castellanus.

c)

Towering cumulus.

d)

Cumulonimbus.

22.

Freezing fog exists if fog droplets:

a)

Are frozen

b)

Freeze when temperature falls below zero

c)

Are supercooled

d)

Are freezing very rapidly

23.

Which cloud type (genus) is described by the following definition?

"Detached clouds in the form of white, delicate filaments or white or mostly white patches or narrow bands. These clouds have fibrous (hair-like) appearance, or a silky sheen, or both."

a)

Altostratus

b)

Cirrus

c)

Stratus

d)

Cirrostratus

24.

Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?

a)

St, Cs.

b)

Cu, Cb.

c)

Sc, Ns

d)

Ci, Sc

25.

Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?

a)

Ci, Cc

b)

Sc, Ns

c)

Cs, St.

d)

As, Ac.

26.

Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?

a)

Cold air passing over warm ground

b)

Dry, warm air passing over warm ground

c)

Heat loss from the ground on clear nights

d)

The passage of fronts

27.

In what conditions does radiation fog form:

a)

2-8kts

b)

Calm conditions only

c)

20-30kt winds

d)

12-20kt winds

28.

Frontal fog can be formed by:

a)

Due to evaporation of water at the surface

b)

When there is adiabatic cooling and the air becomes saturated

c)

When the air becomes saturated due to evaporation of precipitation and water vapour condenses

d)

Due to cooling by night

29.

When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be

a)

High scattered clouds

b)

Unlimited visibility

c)

Clear and cool

d)

Fog or low cloud

30.

The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dew point, is likely to produce

a)

Radiation fog

b)

A cold front

c)

Advection fog

d)

Good clear weather

31.

A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?

a)

15000 - 25000 ft

b)

100 - 1500 ft

c)

7000 - 15000 ft

d)

1500 - 7000 ft

32.

Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulus?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

33.

What is a characteristic phenomenon for a stable atmosphere?

a)

Many vertical currents.

b)

Weak wind

c)

Stratified clouds.

d)

No precipitation.

34.

About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These clouds are:

a)

Stratocumulus

b)

Towering Cumulus

c)

Broken Cumulus humilis

d)

Altocumulus castellanus

35.

After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can the base of these clouds become higher during the day?

a)

Because the surface temperature increases.

b)

The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a warm air mass.

c)

Because the stability increases

d)

Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smaller.

36.

As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is formed. Which statement is true?

a)

Layers of altocumulus will develop caused by increasing wind speed.

b)

Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combination with low geostrophic wind speed.

c)

Stratocumulus will develop caused by insolation.

d)

Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed.

37.

Which of the following are medium level clouds ?

a)

Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus

b)

All convective clouds

c)

Cumulonimbus

d)

Altostratus and altocumulus

38.

The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:

a)

Subsidence in a large part of the troposphere

b)

Strong convection at low height

c)

Stability in the higher troposphere

d)

Instability in the middle troposphere

39.

In towering cumulus clouds

a)

Strong updraughts occur and the temperature in the cloud is lower than in the surrounding air at the same height

b)

Strong updraughts occur and the temperature in the cloud is higher than in the surrounding air at the same height

c)

Weak vertical air motion exists and the temperature in the cloud is higher than in the surrounding air at the same height

d)

Weak vertical air motion exists and the temperature in the cloud is lower than in the surrounding air at the same height

40.

Which of the following circumstances most favours the development of frontal fog?

a)

Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea

b)

Increase of the relative humidity by evaporation of rain drops

c)

Nocturnal radiation

d)

Absolutely unstable air

41.

Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

a)

St

b)

As

c)

Sc

d)

Cs

42.

When fog is reported, the visibility is below

a)

3 km

b)

0.8 km

c)

1 km

d)

1.5 km

43.

What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

a)

500 ft

b)

2000ft

c)

3000ft

d)

1000ft

44.

In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is

a)

0.99

b)

0.01

c)

0.5

d)

0.25

45.

You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?

a)

20630 ft

b)

18290 ft

c)

19310 ft

d)

21770 ft

46.

A temperature inversion indicates a state of the atmosphere which is

a)

Absolutely unstable

b)

Conditionally unstable.

c)

Absolutely stable

d)

Indifferent

47.

What is the tropopause?

a)

The boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere

b)

The layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere

c)

Upper boundary of CAT

d)

Where temperature increases with height

48.

Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown?

a)

Air temperature higher than standard

b)

Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.

c)

Air temperature lower than standard.

d)

Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

49.

The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about:

a)

8 km

b)

14 km

c)

16 km

d)

11 km

50.

If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?

a)

990 hpa

b)

995 hpa

c)

1005 hpa

d)

1000 hpa

51.

A parcel of air has a temperature of 15 degrees C and a dew point of 10 degrees C. What is its relative humidity, approximately?

a)

75%

b)

50%

c)

95%

d)

65%

52.

What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

a)

-30°c

b)

-25°c

c)

-20°c

d)

-15°c

53.

An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?

a)

Its average temperature is the same as ISA

b)

It is warmer than ISA

c)

There is insufficient information to make any assumption

d)

It is colder than ISA

54.

An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate:

a)

1375 ft

b)

1105 ft

c)

1280 ft

d)

1200 ft

55.

An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:

a)

The air over Palma de Mallorca is colder than that over Marseille

b)

One of the two QNH values may be incorrect

c)

The air over Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that over Marseille

d)

The altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested

56.

Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct?

a)

The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable

b)

In the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the poles than over the equator

c)

Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs

d)

The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80°C over the poles and approximately -40°C over the equator

57.

At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?

a)

At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013.25 hpa

b)

In a very cold area with a QNH of 1015 hpa

c)

In a cold low pressure region

d)

At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013.25 hpa

58.

An aircraft flies at flight level 40. Elevation of the aerodrome: 990 ft; QNH 976 hPa. The tower clears the pilot to fly at 3000 ft QNH. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The aircraft has to descend about 2000 ft.

b)

Only a small change of altitude is necessary.

c)

The aircraft has to climb about 1000 ft.

d)

The aircraft has to descend about 1000 ft.

59.

Pressure altitude is obtained by:

a)

Setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure.

b)

Setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea level.

c)

Correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from isa

d)

Setting the altimeter to qff pressure.

60.

Which statement is true concerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles?

a)

The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature increases

b)

The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature decreases

c)

The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature decreases

d)

The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature increases

61.

QNH is defined as

a)

QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere

b)

QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere

c)

Pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere

d)

Pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere

62.

In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known?

a)

Temperature at the airfield.

b)

Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.

c)

Elevation of the airfield.

d)

Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.

63.

The mean height of the tropical tropopause is:

a)

49000 ft

b)

54000 ft

c)

59000 ft

d)

44000 ft

64.

An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?

a)

1042

b)

1013

c)

1030

d)

996

65.

In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called:

a)

Isa lapse rate in the troposphere

b)

Dry adiabatic lapse rate

c)

Saturated adiabatic lapse rate

d)

Environmental lapse rate

66.

What is meant by the term "altitude"?

a)

The vertical distance of a level or a point measured from mean sea level.

b)

The vertical distance of a level or a point measured from the earth's surface.

c)

The vertical distance of a level or a point measured from the aerodrome reference point.

d)

Altimeter indication when altimeter subscale is set to present QFE.

67.

In the ICAO standard atmosphere, which of the following alternatives indicates the correct vertical temperature distribution in the lowest 11 km?

a)

15.2°C at mean sea level, decreasing at 0.65°C per 100 metres.

b)

15°C at mean sea level, decreasing at 0.65°C per 100 metres.

c)

15°C at mean sea level, decreasing at 0.65°C per 100 feet.

d)

13°C at mean sea level, decreasing at 2°C per 1000 feet.

68.

When flying in mountainous terrain and assuming ISA temperatures and strong winds, which of the following is correct?

a)

In case of venturi effect, the actual altitude of the aircraft is lower than the indicated altitude.

b)

In case of combined effect of surface friction and adiabatic compression of the air, the dynamic pressure is lower than indicated by the altimeter.

c)

In case of venturi effect, the indicated altitude of the aircraft is lower than the actual altitude.

d)

In case of adiabatic compression of the air, the temperature is lower than indicated.

69.

A vertical spacing of 1000 ft is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?

a)

More than 1000 ft

b)

Less than 1000 ft

c)

It remains 1000 ft

d)

Without QNH information, it can not be determined

70.

If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?

a)

985 hpa

b)

990 hpa

c)

1035 hpa

d)

1025 hpa

71.

On average, going from the equator to the North Pole, the altitude of the tropopause:

a)

Decreases and its temperature decreases

b)

Increases and its temperature decreases

c)

Decreases and its temperature increases

d)

Increases and its temperature increases

72.

The processes and/or effects which cause clouds to release precipitation are

a)

Bergeron-Findeisen process and convection effect.

b)

Convection effect and advection effect.

c)

Coalescence process and Bergeron-Findeisen process.

d)

Advection effect and coalescence process.

73.

What is the size of the droplets found in drizzle?

a)

2mm

b)

0.5mm

c)

1mm

d)

4mm

74.

What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?

a)

Cumulus and altostratus

b)

Cumulus and cumulonimbuS

c)

Nimbostratus

d)

Altostratus and stratus

75.

With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated?

a)

St

b)

Cc

c)

Cb

d)

As

76.

What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?

a)

Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus

b)

Altostratus and stratus

c)

Nimbostratus

d)

Towering cumulus and altostratus

77.

Large hail stones

a)

Only occur in frontal thunderstorms

b)

Are entirely composed of clear ice

c)

Only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes

d)

Are typically associated with severe thunderstorms

78.

How does freezing rain develop?

a)

Through melting of ice crystals

b)

Through melting of snow grains

c)

Snow falls through a layer where temperatures are above 0°C

d)

Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C

79.

With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated?

a)

Cc

b)

Cb

c)

St

d)

Cu

80.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:

a)

There are thunderstorms in the area

b)

A warm front has passed

c)

A cold front has passed

d)

Freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude

81.

With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" precipitation most commonly associated?

a)

Sc

b)

Ac

c)

Ns

d)

St

82.

In the middle of the eye of a hurricane the wind speed is:

a)

Lower than 63 knots and the air is descending

b)

Higher than 63 knots and the air is descending

c)

Lower than 63 knots and the air is ascending

d)

Higher than 63 knots and the air is ascending

83.

In January an extended high pressure area is normally observed over:

a)

South America

b)

Siberia

c)

Central Europe

d)

Southern Africa

84.

Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are:

a)

Weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high

b)

Azores low and Icelandic high

c)

Scandinavian high and Azores high

d)

Azores high and weak low over NE Canada