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Psych I Final Review

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the best definition of the science of psychology?

a)

humanistic study of emotions and feelings

b)

sociological study of individual and group dynamics

c)

scientific study of behavior and mental processes

d)

study of supernatural phenomena

2.

Which of the following professionals is categorized as an applied psychologist?

a)

Developmental psychologist

b)

Experimental psychologist

c)

Neuropsychologist

d)

Forensic Psychologist

3.

What are the main goals of psychology?

a)

to describe, explain, predict, and control behavior

b)

to observe and describe feelings

c)

to observe and describe phenomena that science cannot explain

d)

to research and teach positive valuation

4.

If you meet a psychologist, odds are that the psychologist works as

a)

an academic psychologist

b)

a clinical psychologist

c)

a basic research psychologist

d)

a social worker

5.

Which of the following professionals is categorized as a basic researcher?

a)

Neuropsychologist

b)

Forensic Psychologist

c)

Sports Psychologist

d)

School Psychologist

6.

Which of the following issues is a clinical psychologist most likely to deal with?

a)

How children’s thinking develops as they age

b)

What neurons are involved in emotional reactions

c)

A phobia about flying

d)

What teaching methods are most effective

7.

What is one goal all academic psychologists share?

a)

To help people with mental illnesses

b)

To use existing psychological research to solve specific, practical problems

c)

To use the scientific method to diagnose and treat psychological disorders

d)

To conduct basic research that expands the knowledge base of psychology

8.

What is one goal that all applied research psychologists share?

a)

To help people with mental illnesses

b)

To use existing psychological research to solve specific, practical problems

c)

To use the scientific method to diagnose and treat psychological disorders

d)

To conduct basic research that expands the knowledge base of psychology

9.

Which type of psychologist is most likely to be interested in this question: Are people from the south or people from the north more likely to be aggressive in stressful situations?

a)

Social psychologist

b)

Clinical psychologist

c)

Developmental psychologist

d)

Human-factors psychologist

10.

Wilhelm Wundt used the research method known as

a)

neuroscience

b)

introspection

c)

psychoanalysis

d)

SQ3R

11.

Which type of psychologist is most likely to be interested in this question: What are the personality characteristics of

the best managers in a company?

a)

Clinical psychologist

b)

Biopsychologist

c)

Developmental psychologist

d)

Industrial/organizational psychologist

12.

What was the primary complaint John B. Watson and B.F. Skinner had about early psychological theories that came before behaviorism?

a)

The early theories emphasized human actions instead of getting at the basic cause: thinking

b)

The early theories addressed unconscious thinking instead of conscious experiences

c)

The early theories were based on experimental methods instead of introspection.

d)

Science should be based on what we can observe, such as behaviors, instead of thinking, which we cannot directly measure

13.

Television shows such as CSI and Law and Order, Special Victims Unit, which center on professional investigating crime scenes, usually include

a)

human-factor psychologists

b)

forensic psychologists

c)

social psychologists

d)

cognitive psychologists

14.

Wilhelm Wundt is considered the founder of psychology as a science because

a)

of his important research on the unconscious mind

b)

he established the first experimental psychology laboratory

c)

it was decided that clinical psychology should become a medical field

d)

Wundt won the Nobel Prize for science

15.

Who founded the school of psychoanalysis?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

John B. Watson

c)

Sigmund Freud

d)

Wilhelm Wundt

16.

Titchener believed that psychology should study the basic elements of conscious experience. This school of thought is

referred to as

a)

behaviorism

b)

functionalism

c)

structuralism

d)

psychoanalysis

17.

Which psychological perspective is most directly interested in factors such as courage, perseverance, forgiveness, and wisdom?

a)

Positive psychology perspective

b)

Behavior genetics perspective

c)

Psychodynamic perspective

d)

Evolutionary perspective

18.

A psychologist from which of the following contemporary psychological perspectives is most likely to agree with this

statement: People act in the ways that they do because of rewards and punishments we received in the past for behaving?

a)

Social-cultural perspective

b)

Biological perspective

c)

Cognitive perspective

d)

Behavioral perspective

19.

Which of the following research questions would behavior geneticists be most interested in?

a)

Which region of the brain controls voluntary movement?

b)

How do humans perceive color?

c)

Is personality more influenced by chromosomes or environment?

d)

What is the most effective way to train an organism to respond in useful ways?

20.

A psychologist from which of the following contemporary psychological perspectives is most likely to agree with this statement: What we remember from past experiences and how we interpret events cause us to behave and think in certain ways?

a)

Social-cultural perspective

b)

Biological perspective

c)

Cognitive perspective

d)

Behavioral perspective

21.

Which psychological perspective is most directly interested in how our genes and our experiences combine to form our personalities?

a)

Humanistic perspective

b)

Behavior genetics perspective

c)

Psychodynamic perspective

d)

Positive psychology perspective

22.

Which of the following is most similar to the nature-nurture issue?

a)

genes-environment

b)

individualism-collectivism

c)

culture-norms

d)

DNA-chromosomes

23.

Which perspective would emphasize that the differing political and economic systems of the United States and China lead citizens to these two countries to adopt many different customs and attitudes?

a)

evolutionary

b)

cognitive

c)

social-cultural

d)

psychodynamic

24.

Dr. Borg attributes the violence of criminal gang members to the norms and role expectations associated with gang membership. Her belief best illustrates a(n) __________ perspective

a)

psychodynamic

b)

behavior genetics

c)

social-cultural

d)

evolutionary

25.

In twin studies, behavior geneticists are looking for

a)

similarities between fraternal twins because they share the same genetic code

b)

similarities between identical twins because they share the same genetic code

c)

whether being a twin affects emotional development and social behaviors

d)

how many times identical and fraternal twins occur in different cultures

26.

Innate ability is to learned skill as __________ is to __________.

a)

observation; introspection

b)

nature; nurture

c)

nurture; nature

d)

Watson; Wundt

27.

Which of the following behaviors are our peers (instead of our parents) most likely to influence?

a)

whether we keep our room clean

b)

exercise habits

c)

giving money to a charity

d)

popularity at school

28.

In a twin study, if researchers find out that the level of shyness is significantly more similar in identical twins than it is in fraternal twins, behavior geneticists might conclude that shyness is

a)

a genetically predisposed trait

b)

more influenced by nurture than nature

c)

determined by one specific gene

d)

mostly caused by a certain parenting style

29.

If adopted children are more similar in political interests to their adopted parents than to their biological parents, then

a)

specific genes probably predispose people to political interests

b)

random mutations may be responsible for the differences between adopted children and adoptive parents

c)

the genetic code determining political interests probably occurs randomly

d)

political interests probably are not genetically predisposed

30.

The mother contributes 23 __________ to her child.

a)

genes

b)

chromosomes

c)

DNA

d)

molecules

31.

What are genes?

a)

strands of deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

physical traits

c)

inherited disorders

d)

basic building blocks of heredity

32.

Which of the following contributes most to genetic diversity?

a)

mutations

b)

identical twins

c)

fraternal twins

d)

norms

33.

Sabrina from Isamanig, Germany, is visiting Germantown High School in Wisconsin with a student exchange program

between Germany and the United States. During her visit, Sabrina is having trouble understanding what some of the

“proper” behaviors are in the United States versus the “proper” behaviors in Germany. Sabrina is having problems

understanding American cultural

a)

nurtures

b)

collectivism

c)

individualism

d)

norms

34.

Using the scientific method usually involves

a)

insight, gathering opinions, and compromise

b)

observation, experimentation, and statistical analysis

c)

understanding, discussing, and agreeing

d)

beliefs, opinion polling, and voting

35.

If a researcher wanted to study a unique situation, such as a child who grows up in a household in which four different

languages are spoken, the researcher should probably choose which method?

a)

Survey

b)

Correlational Study

c)

Case Study

d)

Cross-Sectional Study

36.

One advantage of the scientific method over other ways of understanding the world is

a)

the scientific method can answer any question about people and the world

b)

people are more likely to agree with scientific answers than with other kinds of answers

c)

scientific answers make more sense and “fit” with our common sense

d)

the scientific method leads to more reliable, reproducible answers

37.

If a researcher wants to know whether psychology teachers are more or less likely to have higher IQs than other kinds

of teachers, which of the following research methods should be used?

a)

Correlational Study

b)

Experiment

c)

Case Study

d)

Longitudinal Study

38.

To ensure that other researchers can repeat their work, psychologists use

a)

control groups

b)

random assignment

c)

double-blind procedures

d)

operational definitions

39.

In an experiment to determine the effects of attention on memory, memory is the

a)

control condition

b)

intervening variable

c)

independent variable

d)

dependent variable

40.

Are longitudinal studies or cross-sectional studies more common, and why?

a)

Longitudinal studies are more common because they are less expensive

b)

Cross-sectional studies are more common because longitudinal studies take a long time to complete

c)

Cross-sectional studies are more common because they are more valid than longitudinal studies

d)

Longitudinal studies are more common because they are easier to complete

41.

In an experiment to determine the effects of exercise on motivation, exercise is the

a)

control condition

b)

intervening variable

c)

independent variable

d)

dependent variable

42.

A researcher concerned about the effect of confirmation bias when thinking about a hypothesis might want to

a)

make the observations objective by using a clear operational definition

b)

include a placebo in the experiment

c)

use a survey, which is resistant to confirmation bias

d)

make sure the conclusion fits with most people’s common sense

43.

What is the most important caution you would give to a researcher interested in using a survey to discover people’s

opinions about homework?

a)

Be sure to choose the best independent variable, dependent variable, and experimental group

b)

Use a placebo if possible

c)

Be careful about writing questions that lead people to answer in a certain way

d)

Study one group of people over time to ensure valid results

44.

A researcher using statistics to analyze the results of an experiment is most likely looking for the difference in

a)

the dependent variable between the two groups

b)

the independent variable between the two groups

c)

the cross-sectional and longitudinal groups

d)

survey data and naturalistic observation data

45.

In order to determine the effects of a new drug on memory, one group of subjects is given a pill that contains the drug.

A second group is given a sugar pill that does not contain the drug. This second group constitutes the

a)

random sample

b)

experimental group

c)

control group

d)

test group

46.

A research design involves two randomly assigned groups of participants. One group received a one-time treatment,

and the other does not. Later, the two groups are compared to see whether the treatment had an effect. Psychologists call this kind of research

a)

an experiment

b)

a case study

c)

a survey

d)

a cross-sectional study

47.

A psychologist studies the play behavior of third-grade children by watching groups during recess at school. Which

research strategy is being used?

a)

correlation

b)

case study

c)

experimentation

d)

naturalistic observation

48.

Well-done surveys measure attitudes in a representative subset, or _____, of an entire group, or _____.

a)

population; random sample

b)

control group; experimental group

c)

experimental group; control group

d)

random sample; population

49.

Which of the following best describes the response of members of the American Psychological Association to ethical issues in research?

a)

They disclaim ethical concerns regarding research.

b)

They have developed codes of ethics for research with human participants only.

c)

They have developed codes of ethics for research with animal subjects only.

d)

They have developed codes of ethics for research with both human participants and animal subjects.

50.

In a research study, informed consent is a concern of

a)

replication

b)

ethics

c)

statistical significance

d)

application

51.

Why do some researchers use placebos in experiments?

a)

Without a placebo, you cannot analyze statistics

b)

Placebos are a necessary element in any kind of observation study

c)

Using placebos helps researchers isolate the effects of the independent variable and control for confounding variables

d)

Without placebos, researchers cannot change the dependent variable and compare the experimental and independent variable groups

52.

A college student is conducting a survey to learn how many hours the typical college student studies each day. She

plans to pass out her questionnaire to the members of her sorority. Why might her finding be flawed?

a)

She has not specified an independent variable

b)

She has not specified a dependent variable

c)

The sample will probably not be representative of the population of interest

d)

All of the above reasons

53.

A professor constructs a questionnaire to determine how students at the university feel about nuclear disarmament. Which of the following techniques should be used in order to survey a random sample of the student body?

a)

Every student should be sent the questionnaire

b)

Only students majoring in psychology should be asked to complete the questionnaire

c)

Only students living on campus should be asked to complete the questionnaire

d)

From an alphabetical listing of all students every tenth (or fifteenth, e.g.) student should be asked to complete the questionnaire

54.

A researcher who lies to participants about the true goal of the study needs to be careful about what APA ethical principle?

a)

The right to be protected from harm and discomfort

b)

The right to debriefing

c)

The right of informed consent

d)

The right to confidentiality

55.

Psychologists study animals because

a)

animal behavior is just as complex as human behavior

b)

experiments on people are generally considered to be unethical

c)

the ethical treatment of animals is not mandated by professional guidelines

d)

similar processes often underlie animal and human behavior

56.

In a frequency distribution, the mean will be closest to the scores in the _____ of the distribution.

a)

end

b)

beginning

c)

middle

d)

range

57.

In a set of scores with a wide range and large variation, the _____ would be relatively large.

a)

standard deviation

b)

inferential statistics

c)

mode

d)

skew

58.

If there is no relationship between two sets of scores, the correlation coefficient equals

a)

0.00

b)

-1.00

c)

+1.00

d)

0.50

59.

If shoe size and IQ are negatively correlated, which of the following is true?

a)

People with large feet tend to have high IQs

b)

People with small feet tend to have high IQs

c)

People with small feet tend to have low IQs

d)

IQ is unpredictable based on a person’s shoe size

60.

When a difference between two groups is “statistically significant,” this means that

a)

the difference is statistically real but of little practical significance

b)

the difference is probably the result of sampling variation

c)

the difference is not likely to be due to chance variation

d)

all of the above are true

61.

A student’s test score of 86 is at the 42nd percentile. This means that the student has

a)

received the 42nd highest score

b)

answered 42% of the test items correctly

c)

scored the same as or higher than 42% of her fellow students

d)

scored the same as or higher than 58% of her fellow students

62.

Body system that sends and brings information from the brain to the body and vise versa.

a)

Endocrine System

b)

Limbic System

c)

Nervous System

d)

Cardiac System

63.

The function of dendrites is to:

a)

receive incoming signals from other neurons.

b)

release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons.

c)

coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system

d)

control pain through the release of opiate-like chemicals into the brain

64.

In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal within a single neuron travels from the

a)

cell body to the axon to the dendrites

b)

dendrites to the axon to the cell body

c)

axon to the cell body to the dendrites

d)

dendrites to the cell body to the axon

65.

A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the

a)

synapse

b)

threshold

c)

action potential

d)

myelin sheath

66.

Increasing the intensity of stimulus above the threshold will not similarly increase the intensity of a neural response to that stimulus. This highlights the nature of the

a)

synaptic gap

b)

myelin sheath

c)

all-or-nothing principle

d)

reward deficiency syndrome

67.

A synapse is a(n):

a)

chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions

b)

autonomic response to sensory input

c)

junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron

d)

neural cable containing many axons

68.

The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called

a)

hormones

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

synapses

d)

glial cells

69.

Schizophrenia is most closely linked with excess activity at receptor sites for the neurotransmitter

a)

dopamine

b)

epinephrine

c)

acetylcholine

d)

serotonin

70.

The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and the ________ nervous systems.

a)

autonomic

b)

sympathetic

c)

parasympathetic

d)

peripheral

71.

The central nervous system consists of

a)

sensory and motor neurons

b)

somatic and autonomic subsystems

c)

the brain and the spinal cord

d)

sympathetic and parasympathetic branches

72.

The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls glandular activity and the muscles of internal organs is called the

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

reticular formation

c)

limbic system

d)

autonomic nervous system

73.

You come home one night to find a burglar in your house. Your heart starts racing and you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

sympathetic nervous system

c)

parasympathetic nervous system

d)

limbic system

74.

After discovering that the shadows outside his window were only the trees in the yard, Klaus’s blood pressure decreased and heartbeat slowed. These physical reactions were most directly regulated by his:

a)

parasympathetic nervous system

b)

sympathetic nervous system

c)

somatic nervous system

d)

sensorimotor nervous system

75.

Sarin Gas disrupts the function of this neurotransmitter and often leads to death.

a)

dopamine

b)

acetylcholine

c)

glutamate

d)

norepinephrine

76.

Too much of this neurotransmitter can cause seizures and malfunction has also been associated with Alzheimer’s.

a)

dopamine

b)

acetylcholine

c)

glutamate

d)

norepinephrine

77.

Sarah has been experiencing hallucinations, she may have too many

a)

GABA

b)

acetylcholine

c)

hormones

d)

serotonin

78.

The part of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing is called the:

a)

cerebellum

b)

medulla

c)

reticular formation

d)

thalamus

79.

This is the oldest part of the brain and is responsible for autonomic survival functions

a)

brainstem

b)

amygdala

c)

hippocampus

d)

corpus callosum

80.

Which region of the brainstem arouses you to a state of alertness when someone nearby mentions your name?

a)

reticular formation

b)

cerebellum

c)

hypothalamus

d)

amygdala

81.

Simon was involved in a car accident and has damage to his reticular formation, what might this cause?

a)

become violently aggressive

b)

cower in fear

c)

experience convulsive seizures

d)

lapse into a coma

82.

Which component of the limbic system plays an essential role in the formation of new memories?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thalamus

c)

hippocampus

d)

amygdala

83.

To demonstrate that brain stimulation can make a rat violently aggressive, Professor Quazi should electrically stimulate the rat’s:.

a)

reticular formation

b)

cerebellum

c)

medulla

d)

amygdala

84.

Communication system of the body that controls hormone producing glands.

a)

Endocrine System

b)

Limbic System

c)

Nervous System

d)

Cardiac System

85.

Body’s ultimate control and information processing center that is divided into four lobes.

a)

Motor cortex

b)

Cerebral cortex

c)

Corpus Callosum

d)

Limbic System

86.

Which lobe of the brain receives the input that enables you to feel someone scratching your back?

a)

parietal

b)

temporal

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

87.

The surgical removal of a large tumor form Dane’s occipital lobe resulted in extensive loss of brain tissue. Dane is most likely to suffer some loss of:

a)

muscle coordination

b)

language comprehension

c)

visual perception

d)

speaking ability

88.

The occipital lobes are to _______ as the temporal lobes are to ____________.

a)

hearing; sensing movement

b)

seeing; sensing touch

c)

sensing pleasure; sensing pain

d)

seeing; hearing

89.

. In a recent car accident, Tamiko sustained damage to his right cerebral hemisphere. This injury is most likely to reduce Tamiko’s ability to:

a)

recognize familiar faces

b)

solve arithmetic problems

c)

understand simple verbal requests

d)

process information in an orderly sequence

90.

The part of the left frontal lobe that directs the muscle movements involved in speech is known as:

a)

Wernicke’s area

b)

Broca’s area

c)

the amygdala

d)

the reticular formation

91.

The corpus callosum is a band of neural fibers that:

a)

enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body

b)

transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres

c)

controls the glands and muscles of the internal organs

d)

directs the muscle movements involved in the speech

92.

Neurosurgeons have severed the corpus callosum in human patients in order to reduce:

a)

aphasia

b)

epileptic seizures

c)

depression

d)

reward deficiency syndrome

93.

Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into:

a)

synaptic gaps

b)

the bloodstream

c)

the limbic system

d)

sensory neurons

94.

If a professor accused you of cheating on a test, your adrenal glands would probably release _____ into your bloodstream.

a)

endorphins

b)

acetylcholine

c)

epinephrine

d)

insulin

95.

The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the

a)

limbic system

b)

endocrine system

c)

sympathetic nervous system

d)

reticular formation

96.

Circadian rhythm refers to

a)

the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience

b)

a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle

c)

the experience of jet lag following an extensive transoceanic flight

d)

the cycle of five distinct stages that we experience during a normal night’s sleep

97.

REM sleep is paradoxical sleep because

a)

our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular

b)

we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily

c)

our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move

d)

it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images

98.

Three hours after going to sleep, Hannah’s heart rate increases, her breathing becomes more rapid, and her eyes move rapidly under her closed lids. Research suggests that Hannah is

a)

dreaming

b)

ready to sleepwalk

c)

exhibiting a sleep spindle

d)

experiencing a night terror

99.

Sleep deprivation has been shown to

a)

increase attentiveness to highly motivating tasks

b)

reduce high blood pressure

c)

diminish immunity to disease

d)

all of the above

100.

Chronic sleep deprivation is likely to _____ obesity and _____ memory

a)

facilitate; facilitate

b)

inhibit; impair

c)

facilitate; impair

d)

inhibit; facilitate

101.

REM sleep is _____ by alcohol and ____ by sleeping pills

a)

inhibited; inhibited

b)

facilitated; inhibited

c)

inhibited; facilitated

d)

facilitated; facilitated

102.

Which of the following is bad advice for a person trying to overcome insomnia?

a)

awaken at the same time everyday if you have had a restless night

b)

avoid taking short naps during the day

c)

drink a glass of wine 15 minutes before bedtime

d)

don’t engage in strenuous physical exercise just before bedtime

103.

Narcolepsy is a disorder involving

a)

the temporary cessation of breathing during sleep

b)

sudden uncontrollable seizures followed by a collapse into deep sleep

c)

periodic uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness

d)

difficulty falling and staying asleep

104.

Which of the following disorders is characterized by the temporary cessation of breathing while asleep?

a)

narcolepsy

b)

sleep apnea

c)

night terrors

d)

insomnia

105.

Which theory suggests that dreams are mental responses to random bursts of neural stimulation?

a)

dissociation theory

b)

social influence theory

c)

activation-synthesis theory

d)

Freud’s dream theory

106.

While under hypnosis, Juanita describes her experiences of being kidnapped at age 5. In suggesting that she will soon forget this traumatic event, the hypnotist is encouraging Juanita to experience

a)

posthypnotic amnesia

b)

age regression

c)

hypnotic induction

d)

posthypnotic suggestion

107.

A split in consciousness in which some thoughts occur simultaneously with and yet separately from other thoughts is called

a)

narcolepsy

b)

paradoxical sleep

c)

posthypnotic amnesia

d)

divided consciousness

108.

Why has the Federal Communications Commission set up rules preventing anyone from broadcasting the hypnotic induction on TV?

a)

People at home watching could easily become hypnotized

b)

The hypnotic induction method is copyrighted

c)

People at home could learn how to hypnotize someone without the proper training

d)

Some people may have an adverse reaction to the hypnotic induction method

109.

Derek was hypnotized during a homecoming assembly. Near the end of the show, the hypnotist suggested that each time the hypnotist would state his name in his closing comments, Derek would stand up and scream, “You’re a fake!” Everyone on stage, including Derek, was brought out of the hypnotic trance and took their seats in the audience. The hypnotist thanked the audience for their attention and stated his name. Derek stood up and with a loud voice screamed, “You’re a fake!” Derek behavior was the result of:

a)

hypnotic suggestibility

b)

hypnotic induction

c)

posthypnotic amnesia

d)

posthypnotic suggestion

110.

A number of studies have found that people who receive treatment of any kind tend to show improvement due to their expectations. This is referred to as

a)

hypnotic suggestibility

b)

posthypnotic suggestion

c)

placebo effect

d)

hypnotic induction

111.

Jack has just fallen asleep and suddenly experiences an abrupt jerking of his body. This is referred to as

a)

myoclonus

b)

somnambulism

c)

narcolepsy

d)

bruxism

112.

Another name for sleep walking is

a)

myoclonus

b)

somnambulism

c)

narcolepsy

d)

bruxism

113.

Using hypnosis to help someone quit smoking or lost weight, a hypnotist is most likely to use

a)

the social influence theory

b)

a posthypnotic suggestion

c)

age regression

d)

divided-consciousness

114.

Twenty-eight-year-old Leo has an irrational fear of dogs. His therapist hypnotizes him and asks him to remember his earliest childhood experience with a dog. The therapist is making use of

a)

posthypnotic amnesia

b)

age regression

c)

hypnotic induction

d)

posthypnotic suggestion

115.

After flying from California to New York, Arthur experienced a restless, sleepless night. His problem was most likely caused by a disruption of his normal

a)

REM sleep

b)

circadian rhythm

c)

ultradian rhythm

d)

infradian rhythm

116.

Jon’s 6 year old son, Sam, has woken up screaming and sweating in the middle of the night, but he cannot remember what he is dreaming about. Sam is most likely suffering from

a)

insomnia.

b)

night terrors.

c)

nightmares.

d)

somnambulism.

117.

Last year, Dr. Moritano cleaned Natacha’s skin with rubbing alcohol prior to administering each of a series of painful rabies vaccination shots. Which of the following processes accounts for the fact that Natacha currently becomes fearful every time she smells rubbing alcohol?

a)

classical conditioning

b)

latent learning

c)

observational learning

d)

negative reinforcement

118.

Nina had the flu last year and had gotten sick after eating fish. Now anytime she smells fish she feels nauseous. In this situation the smell of fish is the ____.

a)

conditioned response

b)

conditioned stimuli

c)

unconditioned stimuli

d)

unconditioned response

119.

In Pavlov’s experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the unconditioned stimulus was

a)

a tone

b)

salivation to the food in the mouth

c)

salivation to the sound of a tone

d)

food in the dog’s mouth

120.

In Pavlov’s experiments, the dog’s salivation triggered by the taste of food was a(n)

a)

conditioned response

b)

conditioned stimulus

c)

unconditioned response

d)

unconditioned stimulus

121.

In Pavlov’s experiments the dog’s salivation triggered by the sound of the tone was a(n)

a)

conditioned response

b)

conditioned stimulus

c)

unconditioned response

d)

unconditioned stimulus

122.

A real estate agent showed Gavin several pictures of lakeshore property while they were eating a delicious, mouth-watering meal. Later, when Gavin was given a tour of the property, he drooled with delight. For Gavin, the lakeshore property was a

a)

conditioned response

b)

conditioned stimulus

c)

unconditioned response

d)

unconditioned stimulus

123.

Extinction occurs when a _____ is no longer paired with a _____.

a)

conditioned stimulus; unconditioned response

b)

conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus

c)

unconditioned response; conditioned response

d)

unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response

124.

MaKayla developed an intense fear of flying 5 years ago when she was in a place crash. The fact that today she can again fly without distress indicates that her fear has undergone

a)

discrimination

b)

extinction

c)

generalization

d)

spontaneous recovery

125.

The occurrence of spontaneous recovery suggests that during extinction the _____ is _____.

a)

conditioned response; eliminated

b)

conditioned response; suppressed

c)

conditioned stimulus; eliminated

d)

conditioned stimulus; suppressed

126.

Toddlers taught to fear speeding cars may also begin to fear speeding trucks and motorcycles. This best illustrates

a)

generalization

b)

latent learning

c)

secondary reinforcement

d)

shaping

127.

Stacey is sexually aroused by the sight of her handsome boyfriend but not by the sight of her equally handsome brother. This best illustrates the value of

a)

discrimination

b)

extinction

c)

latent learning

d)

shaping

128.

Humans most easily develop a conditioned aversion to alcohol if its taste is associated with a(n)

a)

anger-producing punishment

b)

fear-producing threat

c)

nausea-producing food

d)

pain-producing accident

129.

After learning to fear a white rat, Little Albert responded with fear to the sight of a rabbit. This best illustrates the process of

a)

generalization

b)

latent learning

c)

secondary reinforcement

d)

shaping

130.

A Skinner box is a(n)

a)

chamber containing a bar or key that an animal can manipulate to obtain a reinforcer

b)

soundproofed cubicle in which organisms are classically conditioned in the absence of distracting noise

c)

special “slot machine” that is used to study the effects of partial reinforcement on gambling behavior

d)

television projection device designed for use in laboratory studies of observational learning

131.

Every Saturday morning Arnold quickly washes the family’s breakfast dishes so that his father will allow him to wash his car. In this instance, washing the car is a(n)

a)

conditioned response

b)

negative reinforcer

c)

positive reinforcer

d)

punishment

132.

Five-year-old Trevor is emotionally disturbed and has refused to communicate with anyone. To get him to speak, his teacher initially gives him candy for any utterance, then only for a clearly spoken word, and finally only for a complete sentence. The teacher has used the method of

a)

delayed reinforcement

b)

latent learning

c)

modeling

d)

shaping

133.

Positive reinforcers _____ the rate of operant responding, and negative reinforcers _____ the rate of operant responding

a)

decrease; decrease

b)

decrease; increase

c)

increase; decrease

d)

increase; increase

134.

The taste of food and the termination of painful electric shock are both _____ reinforcers.

a)

conditioned

b)

negative

c)

positive

d)

primary

135.

Smoking, excessive drinking, and drug abuse demonstrate our greater responsiveness to _____ reinforcement than to _____ reinforcement.

a)

immediate; delayed

b)

negative; positive

c)

partial; continuous

d)

primary; secondary

136.

Gamblers who insert coins in a slot machine are reinforced on a _____ schedule.

a)

fixed-interval

b)

fixed-ratio

c)

variable-interval

d)

variable-ratio

137.

An executive in computer software firm works with his office door closed. At the same time every hour he opens the door to see what his employees are doing. The employees have learned to work especially hard during the 5 minutes before and while the door is open. Their work pattern is typical of responses that are reinforced on a _____ schedule.

a)

fixed-interval

b)

fixed-ratio

c)

variable-interval

d)

variable-ratio

138.

After a week at college, Su-Chuan has formed a mental representation of the layout of the campus and no longer gets lost. Su-Chuan has developed

a)

a cognitive map

b)

latent learning

c)

positive reinforcement

d)

spontaneous recovery

139.

Mel and Ben, both 4-year-olds, have been watching reruns of “Superman” on television. Ben’s mother recently found the boys standing on the garage roof, ready to try flying, What best accounts for the boys’ behavior?

a)

classical conditioning

b)

observational learning

c)

operant conditioning

d)

shaping

140.

Mr. Paddington frequently tells his children that it is important to wash their hands before meals, by he rarely does so himself. Experiments suggest that his children will learn to

a)

neither practice nor preach the virtues of cleanliness

b)

practice and preach the virtues of cleanliness

c)

practice cleanliness but not preach its virtues

d)

preach the virtues of cleanliness but not practice cleanliness

141.

Sensation is to __________ as perception is to __________.

a)

encoding; detection

b)

detection; interpretation

c)

interpretation; organization

d)

organization; adaptation

142.

During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Antall could hardly ever detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall’s

a)

subliminal threshold

b)

absolute threshold

c)

sensory adaptation

d)

difference threshold

143.

If a partially deaf person’s hearing ability __________, his or her absolute threshold for sound __________.

a)

improves; remains unchanged

b)

worsens; decreases

c)

worsens; remains unchanged

d)

improves; decreases

144.

Failure to realize how hot the bath water really is after you have been sitting in it for ten minutes best illustrated the process of sensory

a)

adaptation

b)

accommodation

c)

continuity

d)

interaction

145.

Intensity is to brightness as wavelength is to:

a)

frequency

b)

timbre

c)

amplitude

d)

hue

146.

Which process allows more light to reach the periphery of the retina?

a)

accommodation of the lens

b)

transduction of the cones

c)

dilation of the pupils

d)

sensory adaptation of feature detectors

147.

Hair cells are to the auditory system as __________ are to vision.

a)

rods and cones

b)

optic nerves

c)

pupils

d)

bipolar cells

148.

Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different colors of light?

a)

rods

b)

cones

c)

bipolar cells

d)

feature detectors

149.

When most people stare first at a green circle and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the after image of the circle appears

a)

yellow

b)

red

c)

green

d)

blue

150.

Weber’s law is to difference thresholds as the opponent-process theory is to

a)

hearing

b)

accommodation

c)

afterimages

d)

absolute thresholds

151.

Brightness is to light as __________ is to sound.

a)

pitch

b)

loudness

c)

frequency

d)

amplitude

152.

The sense of touch includes the four basic sensations of

a)

pleasure, pain, warmth, and cold

b)

pain, pressure, hot, and cold

c)

wetness, pain, hot, and cold

d)

pressure, pain, warmth, and cold

153.

The opponent-process theory is to our sense of color as the gate-control theory is to our sense of

a)

smell

b)

equilibrium

c)

kinesthesis

d)

pain

154.

According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains causing the

a)

release of pain-killing endorphins in your brain

b)

activation of specific neural fibers in your spinal cord

c)

arousal of your autonomic nervous system and the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream

d)

deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin

155.

Receptor cells for our sense of __________ reproduce themselves every week or two.

a)

vision

b)

hearing

c)

taste

d)

equilibrium

156.

Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense?

a)

touch

b)

hearing

c)

vision

d)

smell

157.

Our sense of the position and movement of individual body parts is called

a)

feature detection

b)

kinesthesis

c)

sensory interaction

d)

the vestibular sense

158.

A gestalt is best described as a(n)

a)

binocular cue

b)

image

c)

organized whole

d)

perceptual set

159.

The perception of an object as distinct from its surrounding is called

a)

perceptual set

b)

perceptual constancy

c)

figure-ground relationship

d)

interposition

160.

As the airplane descended for a landing, the pilot saw several beautiful islands that appeared to float in a vast expanse of blue ocean water. In this instance, the ocean is a

a)

figure

b)

gestalt

c)

ground

d)

perceptual set