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Worksheets

State Board Jodi's Pick

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Useful product disposal guidelines and medical and first aid information can be found on a (an)

a)

SDS

b)

OSHA

c)

HCS

d)

EPA

2.

Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are:

a)

antiseptics

b)

disinfectants

c)

sterilizers

d)

sanitizers

3.

Invasion of body tissues by disease-causing pathogenic bacteria can result in a (an)

a)

infection

b)

antioxin

c)

abrasion

d)

inflammation

4.

One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characterisitics are:

a)

disease

b)

bacteria

c)

cells

d)

minute

5.

Nonpathogenic bacteria are:

a)

harmful

b)

harmless

c)

disease producing

d)

toxic

6.

Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the:

a)

life cycle of bacteria

b)

chemical origin of bacteria

c)

beneficial effects

d)

surrounding environment

7.

A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of:

a)

lesions

b)

tissue

c)

pus

d)

blood

8.

A pimple or an abscess is an example of a:

a)

blood disease

b)

general infection

c)

daughter cell

d)

local infection

9.

A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called:

a)

characteristic

b)

communicable

c)

communal

d)

microbial

10.

A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a:

a)

bacteria

b)

parasite

c)

virus

d)

contaminant

11.

Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called:

a)

positive pathogens

b)

acquired pathogens

c)

inoculation pathogens

d)

bloodborne pathogens

12.

A disease caused by a blood borne virus that causes liver damage is:

a)

hepatitis

b)

tuberculosis

c)

pneumonia

d)

blood poisoning

13.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the virus that causes:

a)

MRSA

b)

AIDS

c)

hepatitis

d)

HPV

14.

Microscopic plant parasites that include molds, mildew, and yeasts are:

a)

blood borne pathogens

b)

fungi

c)

parasites

d)

pathogens

15.

Which fungus affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the salon?

a)

tine barbae

b)

staph

c)

mildew

d)

tine pedis

16.

The most frequent encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is:

a)

tinea pedis

b)

tinea barbae

c)

tinea capitis

d)

barbers itch

17.

A contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite is:

a)

scabies

b)

head lice

c)

pediculosis

d)

barber's itch

18.

Which of the following is an acceptable way to clean tools or instruments?

a)

using an ultrasonic unit

b)

using a cleaning solvent

c)

washing with soap and water, then scrubbing with a clean, disinfected nail brush

d)

All answers are correct

19.

A safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quits, is:

a)

quarter antiseptic solution

b)

quaternary-based compounds

c)

phenolic quaternary agents

d)

quaternary ammonium compounds

20.

Which of the following is a drawback to using phenolic disinfectants?

a)

can cause some metals to rust

b)

can damage plastic and rubber

c)

are known carcinogens

d)

All answers are correct

21.

Sodium hypochlorite is the chemical name for:

a)

phenols

b)

bleach

c)

baking soda

d)

soap

22.

Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be:

a)

discarded

b)

washed

c)

stored

d)

immersed

23.

When hand washing, it is important to rub hands together for a minimum of how long?

a)

20 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

2 minutes

24.

Universal Precautions for bloodborne pathogens are regulated by:

a)

DOL

b)

DOE

c)

OSHA

d)

FDA

25.

If an exposure incident should occur, discard all disposable contaminated objects in a:

a)

trash bag

b)

contaminated waste container

c)

paper towel

d)

trash can

26.

Which of the following is also known as microscopic anatomy?

a)

anatomy

b)

physiology

c)

physics

d)

histology

27.

The basic unit of all living things is:

a)

bacteria

b)

cells

c)

plasma

d)

blood

28.

The physical foundation of the body consisting of bones connected by joints is the:

a)

nervous system

b)

skeletal system

c)

muscular system

d)

endocrine system

29.

The facial skeleton has how many bones?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

14

30.

the elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the:

a)

ribs

b)

thorax

c)

scapula

d)

clavicle

31.

Muscles that are attached to bones and are voluntary or consciously controlled are:

a)

nonstraitated

b)

striated muscles

c)

cardiac muscles

d)

insertion muscles

32.

Pressure in massage is usually directed from the:

a)

insertion to beginning

b)

insertion to the origin

c)

origin to the insertion

d)

front to sides

33.

Extensor muscles that turn the hand inward so the palm faces downward are:

a)

flexors

b)

supinators

c)

pronators

d)

extensors

34.

Muscles that separate the fingers are:

a)

abductors

b)

pronators

c)

adductors

d)

extensors

35.

The main arteries that supply blood to the head, neck, and face are the :

a)

common carotid arteries

b)

common aorta arteries

c)

internal jugular

d)

serrates anterior arteries

36.

The word integument means:

a)

skin

b)

hormone

c)

natural covering

d)

gland

37.

The nail tip adhesive used to secure the nail tip to a natural nail is also called a (an):

a)

adhesion agent

b)

buffer wrap

c)

bonding agent

d)

abrasive wrap

38.

Properly sized nail tips for a client should cover the nail plate from:

a)

sidewall to sidewall

b)

front to back

c)

back to tip

d)

cuticle to free edge

39.

The technique use to apply nail tips is:

a)

rock, slide, and hold

b)

stop, rock, and hold

c)

stop, hold, and remove

d)

stop, slide, and press

40.

Nail tips are softened with acetone or tip remover and are:

a)

slid off

b)

ripped off

c)

nipped off

d)

rubbed off

41.

Nail wraps are rebalanced with additional resin:

a)

every week

b)

every 2 weeks

c)

once a month

d)

every 2 months

42.

The location of the four corners signals a change in the:

a)

head shape

b)

bone shape

c)

hair texture

d)

hair growth

43.

The lines used to remove weight to create graduated or layered haircuts are:

a)

diagonal

b)

vertical

c)

horizontal

d)

beveled

44.

When you are building weight in a haircut, the hair should be held:

a)

straight

b)

below 90 degrees

c)

above 90 degrees

d)

at no elevation

45.

Shears that are designed to remove more hair, with larger teeth set farther apart, are:

a)

design shears

b)

clippers

c)

notching shears

d)

haircutting shears

46.

Which type of texture shear adds increased blending?

a)

chunking

b)

thinning

c)

texturizing

d)

blending

47.

The hand position that is used most often when cutting uniform or increasing layers is:

a)

palm-to-palm

b)

undercuttting

c)

over fingers

d)

below fingers

48.

When cutting with a vertical or diagonal cutting line, the best way to maintain control of the subsection is to cut:

a)

palm-to-palm

b)

below fingers

c)

over fingers

d)

using a razor

49.

To reduce strain on the index finger and thumb while cutting hair, it is important to:

a)

close fingers

b)

work quickly

c)

cut vertically

d)

palm the shears

50.

A basic haircut where the hair is cut at a 180-degree angle is the:

a)

graduated cut

b)

blunt cut

c)

angled cut

d)

long-layered cut

51.

When testing synthetic hair or fibers by burning, the hair will either ball up, melt, or burn:

a)

quickly with no odor

b)

slowly with no odor

c)

quickly with a strong odor

d)

slowly with a strong odor

52.

Top-of-the line synthetic wigs that simulate protein-rich hair are made of:

a)

rayon blends

b)

flammable polyester

c)

yak hair

d)

Kanekalon

53.

Hair that is arranged so that the cuticles of all hair strands slope in the same direction is:

a)

processed hair

b)

fallen hair

c)

resistant hair

d)

turned hair

54.

Human or artificial hair that is woven into long strips is called:

a)

fallem

b)

turned

c)

wefts

d)

toupees

55.

Cracks in the skin that penetrate the dermis layer, such as chapped hands or lips, are:

a)

tissues

b)

fissures

c)

tumors

d)

tubercles

56.

A thick scar resulting from excessive growth of fibrous tissue is known as a:

a)

stain

b)

cyst

c)

keloid

d)

bulla

57.

An open lesion of the skin or mucous membrane, accompanied by pus and characterized by loss of skin depth, is a(n)

a)

scar

b)

lintigo

c)

wheal

d)

ulcer

58.

Benign, keratin-filled cysts that appear just under the epidermis and have no visible opening are:

a)

cysts

b)

nodules

c)

milia

d)

keloids

59.

A contagious, recurring viral infection characterized by fever blisters or cold sores is:

a)

herpes simplex

b)

herpes dermatitis

c)

psoriasis

d)

eczema

60.

A noncontagious skin disease characterized by red patches covered with silver-white scales found on the scalp is:

a)

herpes

b)

macula

c)

papules

d)

psoriasis

61.

Hypertrophy of the papillae and epidermis is a:

a)

wart

b)

keratoma

c)

mole

d)

stain

62.

The most common and least severe type of skin cancer is:

a)

basal cell carcinoma

b)

malignant melanoma

c)

brown patches

d)

squamous cell carcinoma

63.

The UV rays of the sun reach the skin in two different forms which are:

a)

UVA rays and X-rays

b)

UVA and UVB rays

c)

UBC and VBT rays

d)

VBA and UVC rays

64.

The rays of the sun that cause sunburns and tanning and are also known as burning rays are:

a)

AB rays

b)

AC rays

c)

UVB rays

d)

UVT rays

65.

The technical term that refers to the overgrowth of hair on the body is:

a)

hypothermia

b)

depilatory

c)

hypertrichosis

d)

epilation

66.

Facial waxing should not be performed on clients with the condition of:

a)

rosacea

b)

seborrhea

c)

hypertrichosis

d)

hirsutism

67.

A hair removal service should not be performed on clients taking a medication containing:

a)

alcohol

b)

niacin

c)

Retin-A

d)

vitamin D

68.

A method of hair removal using a beam pulsed on the skin that requires specialized training is:

a)

dermabrasion

b)

epilation

c)

laser hair removal

d)

needle hair removal

69.

Which of the following is an appropriate hair removal procedure for underarms?

a)

wax

b)

depilatory

c)

tweezers

d)

All of these answers are correct

70.

For waxing to be effective, the hair should be at least how long?

a)

1/4 inch

b)

1/2 inch

c)

1 inch

d)

1-1/2 inch

71.

Wax that may cause an allergic reaction and should be patch tested is:

a)

resin wax

b)

beeswax

c)

aloe wax

d)

cold wax

72.

The direction in which the fabric strips used in hair removal treatments should be removed is:

a)

with hair growth

b)

straight up

c)

opposite hair growth

d)

down and around

73.

The three different types of side bonds are:

a)

oxygen, hydrogen, and salt

b)

hydrogen, ionic, and carbon

c)

ionic, helix, and covalent

d)

hydrogen, salt, and disulfide

74.

Hydroxide chemical relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them into:

a)

Lanthionine bonds

b)

sulfur bonds

c)

carbon bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

75.

Vellus hair is the short, fine , and downy hair also known as:

a)

straight hair

b)

melanin

c)

lanugo hair

d)

terminal hair

76.

The three growth cycles of human hair are:

a)

Anagen, Endocentric, and Telegon

b)

Anagen, Catagen, Transition

c)

Anagen, Catagen, and Telegen

d)

Anagen, transition, and mature

77.

The technical term for gray hair is:

a)

alopecia

b)

canities

c)

albino

d)

ringed hair

78.

The condition of abnormal hair growth of terminal hair if referred to as:

a)

monilethrix

b)

ringed hair

c)

hypertrichosis

d)

trichoptilosis

79.

Trichoptilosis is the technical term for:

a)

split ends

b)

hair loss

c)

knotted hair

d)

beaded hair

80.

A condition that is characterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft:

a)

fragilitas crinium

b)

trichorrhexis nodosa

c)

alopecia areata

d)

hypertrichosis

81.

The medical term used to describe dandruff is:

a)

alopecia

b)

selenium

c)

pityriasis

d)

pyrithione

82.

A severe type of dandruff characterized by an accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum is:

a)

pityriasis capitis

b)

tine favosa

c)

pityriasis papules

d)

pityriasis steatoides

83.

Tinea is characterized by itching scales and sometimes painful circular lesions and is caused by:

a)

seborrheic dermatitis

b)

parasites

c)

subcutaneous

d)

fungal organisms

84.

An infestation of the hair and scalp with head lice is:

a)

pediculosis capitis

b)

pediculosis furuncle

c)

alopecia areata

d)

vesicles parasites

85.

Additives designed to speed up the chemical reactions of monomers are:

a)

catalysts

b)

stabilizers

c)

primers

d)

dehydrators

86.

Polymer powder is made using a special chemical reaction called:

a)

polymorphic

b)

screening

c)

polymerization

d)

adhesion

87.

During removal, monomer liquid and polymer powder enhancements should be soaked for:

a)

20 to 30 seconds

b)

5 to 10 minutes

c)

20 to 30 minutes

d)

45 to 60 minutes

88.

Traditionally, UV gels relied on urethane acrylate; newer gel systems use;

a)

urethane resins

b)

wrap resins

c)

urethane methacrylates

d)

acrylate wraps

89.

Odorless products harden more slowly, which creates the tacky layer called the;

a)

weakened layer

b)

inhibition layer

c)

softened layer

d)

middle layer

90.

UV gels cure with a tacky surface called a(an);

a)

surface layer

b)

sealing layer

c)

inhibition layer

d)

building layer

91.

Brushes that are used to hold and spread the UV gel are;

a)

synthetic

b)

sable

c)

natural

d)

long

92.

A UV lamp used to cure UV gels should be;

a)

4-watt

b)

7-watt

c)

8-watt

d)

All of the answers are correct

93.

A measure of how much electricity a UV bulb consumes is;

a)

UV

b)

gallons

c)

unit wattage

d)

amperes

94.

Toenail clippers that are the most effective should have jaws with a;

a)

blunt point

b)

fine point

c)

curved point

d)

dull point

95.

To avoid the risk of infection, nippers should never be used on clients who are;

a)

mature

b)

diabetic

c)

sensitive

d)

allergic

96.

When performing a pedicure, do not push back the;

a)

eponychium

b)

rough edges

c)

dead tissue

d)

cuticle tissue

97.

Chemical side bonds formed when two sulfur-type chains are joined together are;

a)

disulfide bonds

b)

peptide bonds

c)

keratin bonds

d)

amino bonds

98.

The active ingredient or reducing agent in alkaline permanent waves is;

a)

ammonium thioglycolate

b)

hydrogen thioglycolate

c)

alkaline acids

d)

glyceryl monothioglycolate

99.

The main active ingredient in true acid and acid-balanced waving lotions is;

a)

glyceryl monothioglycolate

b)

ammonium thioglycolic

c)

sodium hydroxide

d)

sodium hydrochloride

100.

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are commonly called;

a)

metal relaxers

b)

no-lye relaxers

c)

lye relaxers

d)

medium relaxers

101.

Relaxers that contain two components and must be mixed immediately prior to use are;

a)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

b)

ammonium thioglycolate

c)

no-lye relaxers

d)

potassium hydroxide relaxers

102.

Relaxers are often marketed and sold as no mix-no lye relaxers are;

a)

potassium hydroxide relaxers

b)

sodium hydroxide relaxers

c)

ammonium thio relaxers

d)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

103.

A combination of a thio relaxer and a thio permanent wrapped on large rods is a;

a)

permanent wave

b)

soft curl permanent

c)

full curl permanent

d)

relaxer retouch

104.

Hair that is treated with hydroxide relaxers must not be treated with;

a)

conditioning solutions

b)

color shampoos

c)

thio relaxers

d)

normalizing solutions

105.

The federal agency that requires that the ingredients of cosmetic preparations be available to employees is;

a)

FDA

b)

SDS

c)

FBI

d)

OSHA

106.

Chemical reactions that are characterized by or formed by giving off heat are;

a)

neutralization

b)

acidic

c)

electrons

d)

exothermic

107.

Substances that allow oil and water to mix, or emulsify, are

a)

suspensions

b)

mixtures

c)

particles

d)

surfactants

108.

Ions with a positive electrical charge are considered to be;

a)

nonaqueous

b)

cation

c)

neutral

d)

anion

109.

The deeper layer of the dermis that supplies the skin with oxygen and nutrients is the :

a)

papillary layer

b)

subcutaneous layer

c)

reticular layer

d)

basal layer

110.

Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles?

a)

sensory

b)

motor

c)

secretory

d)

All answers are correct