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Economics: Final Exam Review

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does microeconomics include the study of?

a)

Households

b)

Markets

c)

Competition

d)

Employment

2.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a human need?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Food

c)

Oxygen

d)

Shelter

3.

Which of the following is NOT a factor of production?

a)

Plant Resources

b)

Natural Resources

c)

Capital Resources

d)

Entrepreneurship

4.

Because resources are limited and wants are unlimited, people must decide how to use the resources...?

a)

Effectively

b)

Quickly

c)

Wastefully

d)

Ineffectively

5.

Specialization increases productivity because...?

a)

It Lets Workers Gain Expertise In Their Assigned Tasks

b)

It Makes The Workers "Special"

c)

It Lets Workers Socialize With Other Workers

d)

It Gives The Workers Extra Pay

6.

One strategy which may help a company improve efficiency is to introduce a...?

a)

Division of Labor

b)

Collusion

c)

Franchise

d)

Certificate of Deposit (CD)

7.

A production possibilities curve is all the combinations of __________ goods that can be produced.

a)

Two

b)

One

c)

Three

d)

Four

8.

Which of the following choices is a standard means of exchange?

a)

Money

b)

Trade

c)

Barter

d)

Credit

9.

When economists refer to a product’s usefulness they use the term...?

a)

Utility

b)

Convenience

c)

Effectiveness

d)

Practicality

10.

People who satisfy their own needs without outside assistance are said to be...?

a)

Self-Sufficient

b)

Experts

c)

Interdependent

d)

Self-Trained

11.

All economies today are actually...?

a)

Mixed

b)

Traditional

c)

Command

d)

Market

12.

Children are likely to carry on the economic roles of their parents in a __________ economy.

a)

Traditional

b)

Market

c)

Command

d)

Mixed

13.

Which of the following is a command economic system that operated in Western Europe during the Middle Ages?

a)

Manorialism

b)

Command

c)

Market

d)

Traditional

14.

Cuba’s economy is an example of...?

a)

Authoritarian Socialism

b)

Mixed

c)

Command

d)

Traditional

15.

Which type of economy is closest to the pure market model?

a)

Capitalist

b)

Command

c)

Authoritarian Socialism

d)

Mixed

16.

The system under which business can be conducted freely with little government intervention is known as...?

a)

Free Enterprise

b)

Industrialization

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopoly

17.

The circular flow model represents...?

a)

Product & Resource Markets

b)

Consumer & Resource Markets

c)

Producer & Resource Markets

d)

Government & Resource Markets

18.

Economic efficiency is making the best use of...?

a)

Scarce Resources

b)

Company Members

c)

Abundant Resources

d)

Company Bosses

19.

Which goal of the U.S. economy is concerned with questions of fairness?

a)

Economic Equity

b)

Economic Stability

c)

Economic Freedom

d)

Economic Growth

20.

The goal of economic stability has two concerns:


Full Employment and...?

a)

Stable Prices

b)

Rising Prices

c)

Falling Prices

d)

Unstable Prices

21.

What term refers to the amount of money consumers have available to spend on products?

a)

Purchasing Power

b)

Net Worth

c)

Portfolio Value

d)

Profit

22.

As more units of a product are consumed, the satisfaction from consuming each additional unit is called...?

a)

Diminishing Marginal Utility

b)

Demand Curve

c)

Elastic Demand

d)

Inelastic Demand

23.

A demand curve only displays a “snapshot” of a market because...?

a)

It Represents a Specific Time Period

b)

It Doesn't Display A "Snapshot"

c)

Economists Cannot Predict A Big Range of Time

d)

It Represents a Big Time Period

24.

Which of the following is NOT a non-price determinant of demand?

a)

Expenses of Buyers

b)

Prices of Related Goods or Services

c)

Price of Good/Service

d)

Consumer Expectations

25.

Which of the following can market size NOT be affected by?

a)

The Consumers' Purchasing Power

b)

The Consumers’ Wants & Needs

c)

Government Policies

d)

Technology

26.

Which direction will the demand curve shift if consumers’ incomes rise?

a)

Right

b)

Left

c)

Stay the Same

d)

U-Shape

27.

A product's demand elasticity is affected by three different things. Which of the following choices is NOT one of the three?

a)

Want

b)

Available Substitutions

c)

Need

d)

Amount of Income

28.

If substitutes are readily available for a product, it has __________ demand.

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

High

d)

Low

29.

If substitutes are not readily available for a product, it has __________ demand.

a)

Inelastic

b)

Elastic

c)

High

d)

Low

30.

If a price increase causes a fall in total revenue, demand is...?

a)

Elastic

b)

Inelastic

c)

High

d)

Low

31.

The amount of money remaining after producers have paid all their costs is called...?

a)

Profit

b)

Loss

c)

Revenue

d)

Purchasing Power

32.

A business makes a profit when its costs of production are less than its...?

a)

Revenue

b)

Profit

c)

Loss

d)

Expenses

33.

If a good has elastic supply, it can be made...?

a)

Inexpensively

b)

Slowly

c)

Expensively

d)

Using a Few Readily Available Resources

34.

A good has inelastic supply if...?

a)

It Takes a Long Time To Produce

b)

There Are Resources That Are Readily Available

c)

It Takes Less Money To Produce

d)

It Takes A Short Time To Produce

35.

Gold is an example of a good that has __________ supply.

a)

Inelastic

b)

Elastic

c)

High

d)

Low

36.

If prices of resources rise, supply will...?

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Cannot Be Determined

37.

What are the three stages of production that can be predicted by the law of diminishing returns?

a)

Increasing Marginal Returns

b)

Diminishing Marginal Returns

c)

Negative Marginal Returns

d)

Neutral Marginal Returns

e)

Cannot Be Determined

38.

Rent is an example of a __________ cost.

a)

Fixed

b)

Variable

c)

High

d)

Low

39.

Raw materials are an example of a __________ cost.

a)

Variable

b)

Fixed

c)

High

d)

Low

40.

Workers’ wages are an example of a __________ cost.

a)

Variable

b)

Fixed

c)

High

d)

Low

41.

The side effects that sometimes result from the production of goods are called...?

a)

Externalities

b)

Consequences

c)

Surplus

d)

Shortage

42.

Pollution is an example of a __________ externality.

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

d)

Regular

43.

National defense, the judicial system, and law enforcement are examples of...?

a)

Public Service

b)

Public Good

c)

Price Ceiling

d)

Price Floor

44.

The process through which the price system moves the market toward the equilibrium point often involves...?

a)

Trial & Error

b)

Guessing

c)

Experiment

d)

Many Years

45.

When a surplus exists in a market, price is __________ equilibrium.

a)

Above

b)

Below

c)

At

d)

Cannot Be Determined

46.

When a shortage exists in a market, price is __________ equilibrium.

a)

Below

b)

Above

c)

At

d)

Cannot Be Determined

47.

An example of a price ceiling is...?

a)

Rent Control

b)

Minimum Wage

c)

Wheat

d)

Corn

48.

An example of a price floor is...?

a)

Minimum Wage

b)

Rent Control

c)

Shortages

d)

Limit on Gasoline

49.

Overtime, what may a price ceiling cause?

a)

Shortage

b)

Surplus

c)

Market Equilibrium

d)

Black Market

50.

A government sometimes rations a good because the supply of that good is...?

a)

Low

b)

High

c)

Staying the Same

d)

Cannot Be Determined

51.

Under perfect competition, buyers and sellers act...?

a)

Independently

b)

Dependently

c)

Competitively

d)

Quickly

52.

What two things set prices in a perfectly competitive market?

a)

Supply

b)

Demand

c)

Profit

d)

Collusions

e)

Cartels

53.

What is the key difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a)

Sellers Offering Different Products

b)

Sellers Offering Identical Products

c)

One Isn't Competitive, One Is Competitive

d)

There Is No Difference

54.

How does product differentiation bring about a rise in prices?

a)

Setting Products Apart From Competition

b)

Nonprice Factors

c)

Setting Products Identical To Competition

d)

Participating In Price War

e)

Planning A Collusion & Later, A Cartel

55.

Which of the following is NOT a way that an oligopoly can be ended?

a)

Rise in Business Start-Up Costs

b)

Drop in Business Start-Up Costs

c)

Change in Government Regulations

d)

Change In Customer Loyalties

56.

The situation in which sellers undercut each other’s prices in an attempt to gain market share is called...?

a)

Price War

b)

Price Leadership

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopoly

57.

The effort by sellers to secretly set production levels or prices is called a...?

a)

Collusion

b)

Cartel

c)

Illegal Meeting

d)

Partnership

58.

If competition is inconvenient and impractical, what kind of monopoly tends to develop?

a)

Natural

b)

Technological

c)

Geographic

d)

Government

59.

What kind of monopoly does the granting of patents encourage?

a)

Technological

b)

Natural

c)

Geographic

d)

Government

60.

Antitrust legislation was enacted in the late 1800s to...?

a)

All of the Above

b)

Restrict Monopolies

c)

Combinations of Cooperation

d)

Trusts: Legally Forming Combinations of Companies

61.

What type of business organization are you most likely to use if you want complete control and exclusive right to all profits?

a)

Sole Proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Corporation

d)

Franchise

62.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a sole proprietorship?

a)

Unlimited Liability

b)

Easy to Start Up

c)

Full Control

d)

All Profits

63.

What advantage do sole proprietorships and partnerships share?

a)

Easy to Start Up

b)

Unlimited Liability

c)

Limited Growth Potential

d)

Lack of Longevity

64.

What disadvantage do sole proprietorships and partnerships share?

a)

Lack of Longevity

b)

Easy to Start Up

c)

Full Control

d)

All Profits

65.

Partners enjoy equal decision making authority in a...?

a)

General Partnership

b)

Limited Partnership

c)

Sole Proprietorship

d)

Corporation

66.

What type of business organization can hire workers and own property as if it were an individual?

a)

Corporation

b)

Sole Proprietorship

c)

General Partnership

d)

Limited Partnership

67.

All of these corporate financial instruments indicates that the company is in debt, except...?

a)

Capital Markets

b)

Loans

c)

Mortgages

d)

Bonds

68.

The advantages of corporations include limited liability, separation of ownership from management, the ease with which capital can be raised, and __________.

a)

Longevity

b)

Profit

c)

Bonds

d)

Stocks

69.

A major advantage of corporate mergers is...?

a)

Increased Efficiency

b)

Decreased Efficiency

c)

Higher Unemployment Rates

d)

Higher Prices

70.

Sometimes a company agrees, for a fee, to let another person or group set up an enterprise that uses the original company’s name to sell goods and services. What is this type of business organization called?

a)

Franchise

b)

Sole Proprietorship

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

71.

All of the following are factors that a person might consider in choosing a job, except...?

a)

Low Wages

b)

High Wages

c)

Location

d)

Intrinsic Rewards

72.

The process of mechanizing all major forms of production is called...?

a)

Industrialization

b)

Modernization

c)

Utility

d)

Trial & Error

73.

When the number of workers in an occupation is limited and demand for these workers is high, then wages tend to be...?

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

The Same

d)

Cannot Be Determined

74.

Which of the following can consumers in a free-enterprise economy choose to do with their money?

a)

Spend It

b)

Save It

c)

Consume It

d)

Not Consume It

e)

Consumers Cannot Choose To Do Anything With Their Money

75.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for saving money?

a)

To Throw It Away

b)

Retirement

c)

Savings Accounts

d)

Investing in Stocks

76.

Most financial institutions are protected by...?

a)

State and Federal Deposit Insurance

b)

Local Zoning Laws

c)

The Government

d)

Nothing

77.

An example of a time deposit is a...?

a)

Certificate of Deposit (CD)

b)

Bonds

c)

Loans

d)

Mortgages

78.

Capital gains is the profit earned through the sale of a capital...?

a)

Asset

b)

Liability

c)

Loan

d)

Bond

79.

An example of a fixed expense is...?

a)

Rent

b)

Food

c)

Clothing

d)

Personal Items

80.

An example of a flexible expense is...?

a)

Groceries

b)

Rent

c)

Utilities

d)

Installment Debts

81.

The exchange of property ownership and payment between two individuals or groups is known as...?

a)

Financial Investment

b)

Barter

c)

Trade

d)

Financial Flow Model

82.

A stock split is generally beneficial to stockholders because stock prices tend to __________ afterwards.

a)

Rise

b)

Fall

c)

Stay the Same

d)

Cannot Be Determined

83.

A financial market in which the price of stocks, bonds, or other traded commodities is generally on the decline and in which investors believe that prices will continue to fall is called...?

a)

Bear Market

b)

Bull Market

c)

Hawk Market

d)

Rhino Market

84.

A financial market in which the price of stocks, bonds, or other commodities is generally on the rise and in which investors believe that prices will continue to rise is called...?

a)

Bull Market

b)

Bear Market

c)

Hawk Market

d)

Rhino Market

85.

People invest in stocks because it returns the __________ profit.

a)

Highest

b)

Lowest

c)

Same

d)

Cannot Be Determined