Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PEDIA IMMUNO PART 2

Total questions: 26

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Life threatening, often fatal condition of graft vs host disease is graded as:

a)

Grade IV

b)

Grade V

c)

Grade VI

d)

Grade VII

2.

The ff. are causes of graft failure, except:

a)

transplant of an inadequate stem cell dose

b)

viral infections with cytomegalovirus (CMV)

c)

Infection with HHV6

d)

immunologically mediated rejection of the graft by residual donor-type T cells

3.

The ff. are true of anaphylaxis, except:

a)

a serious allergic reaction that is rapid in onset and may cause death

b)

Occurs due to sudden release of potentially biologically active mediators from mast cells and basophils

c)

None of the above

d)

Most common cause in community setting is food allergy

4.

Clinical criteria involves the ff. systemic manifestation, except:

a)

Integumentary - urticaria

b)

Respiratory - bronchospasm and stridor

c)

Cardiovascular - increased BP

d)

Gastrointestinal - persistent crampy abdominal pain

e)

None of the above

5.

What is the most important treatment of anaphylaxis?

a)

Immediate intubation to secure airway

b)

Administration of epinephrine 0.3 to 0.5 mg, then after 5-15 minutes, as needed

c)

Hook and infuse 0.9% NSS

d)

Prednisone 10mg tablet OD

6.

This condition is associated with dysmorphogenesis of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches during early embryogenesis

a)

DiGeorge Syndrome

b)

Down's Syndrome

c)

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

d)

Sjogren's Syndrome

7.

The hallmark of this disease is generation of autoantibodies directed against self-antigens, particularly nucleic acids

a)

SLE

b)

Systemic Onset Disease Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (SoJIA)

c)

DiGeorge Syndrome

d)

Sjogren's Syndrome

8.

Oligoarthritis in juvenile arthritis is defined as:

a)

< or = 4 joints within the first 6 months of disease onset

b)

< or = 4 joints after the first 6 months of disease onset

c)

<4 joints within the first 6 months of disease onset

d)

>4 but <6 joints within the first 6 months of disease onset

9.

Salmon colored lesions is classic for this condtion.

a)

Systemic onset disease Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

b)

Sjogren's Syndrome

c)

SLE

d)

DiGeogre Syndrome

10.

The "juvenile" in juvenile idiopathic osteoarthritis is characterized with what age cut off?

a)

<16 years old

b)

<18 years old

c)

<21 years old

d)

<15 years old

11.

The broad classification of symptoms of DiGeorge syndrome include the ff., except:

a)

Abnormal facies

b)

Thymic hypoplasia

c)

Cleft palate

d)

Hypercalcemia

12.

The ff are risk factors of SLE, except:

a)

Estrogen

b)

EBV infection

c)

Increase in HLA -B8, DR2 and DR3

d)

None of the above

13.

The ff are known to cause drug induced lupus like reactions, except:

a)

Hydralazine

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Procainamide

d)

Phenytoin

14.

This is the mainstay treatment for significant manifestations of SLE

a)

Hydroxychloroquine

b)

NSAIDS

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Methotrexate

15.

Neonatal lupus is a result of transfer of what immunoglobulin from the mother?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

16.

This is the immunogenic portion of the HIV envelope glycoprotein that is used to detect HIV-1 antibodies in diagnostic assays.

a)

gp41

b)

gp120

c)

gp160

d)

gp56

17.

This is the chemokine receptor that facilitates HIV entry into macrophages

a)

CCR-5

b)

CXCR-4

c)

Gp41

d)

Gp120

18.

Which of the ff. has the least chance to contract HIV?

a)

Sexual contact with an asymptomatic HIV+ human

b)

Blood transfusion from an HIV+ donor

c)

Intrapartum transmission to the baby due to mucosal exposure to HIV+ maternal blood and cervicovaginal secretions

d)

Breastfeeding with HIV infected mothers

19.

First cells to be infected if mucosa serves as the portal of entry.

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Tissue Macrophage

d)

Mast cells

20.

CDC staging for children is based on what parameter?

a)

CD4+ T cell count

b)

CD8+ T cell count

c)

HIV DNA count

d)

Clinical symptoms

21.

All are common opportunistic infection in pediatric population, except:

a)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

b)

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Giardia lamblia

22.

Which of the ff statements is true?

a)

HIV DNA PCR is the preferred test to diagnose all HIV-1 subtypes in infants and children <18mos of age

b)

HIV RNA PCR is the prefered test to identify non-B subtype HIV-1 infections

c)

HIV culture is recommended , but requires 4 weeks to do the test

d)

HIV RNA PCR can have false positives in non-B subtype HIV-1 infections

23.

Which of the ff is false regarding therapies for HIV

a)

NRTIs are similar structure to building blocks of RNA

b)

NNRTIs include efavirenz, etavirine and rilpivirine

c)

Protease inhibitors bind where long viral polypeptides are cut to produce infectious virions, effectively making products, non-functional

d)

Fusion inhibitors bind to gp41

24.

Which of the ff. is false regardinng treatment for HIV?

a)

CCR-5 antagonist blocks fusion to CD4+ cells

b)

Integrase inhibitors such as raltegravir block the enzyme that catalyzes the incorporation of viral genome to host DNA

c)

NRTIs are similar structures to building blocks of DNA

d)

NNRTIs attach to reverse transcriptase and increase its motility, disrupting the activity of the enzyme

25.

A 7 year old boy found to be HIV+ had a CD4+ count of 325 cells/ uL. What stage is he under, based on Age specific CD4+ T cell lymphocyte count?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

26.

Among the pediatric vaccines, which of the ff should not be given to HIV+ patients?

a)

OPV

b)

HepaB

c)

Pneumococcal

d)

DPT