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WorksheetsHorse Quiz Bowl
Total questions: 64
Worksheet time: 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
"Pawprints," "bear paws" and "ink spots" are seen on what kind of horse? S- EqSci (39)
a)
paints/pintos
b)
Appaloosa
c)
Bay
d)
Morgan
2.
At what gait is a horse most apt to "crossfire"? S- EVANS2 (179)
a)
pace
b)
trot
c)
gallop
d)
canter
3.
How many amino acids are there? S- EqSci (117)
a)
22 amino acids
b)
32 amino acids
c)
48 amino acids
d)
12 amino acids
4.
In each foreleg or hind leg, horses have one (1) large functional metacarpal or metatarsal bone. What is another name for this bone? S- EqSci (203)
a)
cannon bone
b)
sesamoid bone
c)
knee
d)
radius
5.
Name three (3) types of western saddles. S-AYHCLM (1100-5)
a)
endurance, trail/pleasure, cutting
b)
jumping, dressage, hunting
c)
racing, treeless, pleasure
d)
show, pony, youth
6.
The failure of one (1) or both testes to descend completely into the scrotum is called what? S- Evans2 (520)
a)
Cryptorchidism
b)
Umbilical Hernia
c)
Shistosoma Reflexum
d)
Recurrent Uveitis
7.
What are the three (3) basic parts of the bridle? S-AYHCLM (108-2)
a)
headstall, bit and reins
b)
cantle, gullet, pommel
c)
flap, leathers, girth
d)
reins, gullet, cantle
8.
What are the three (3) vital signs a skilled horseman needs to know how to take? 5- EqSci (155)
a)
temperature, pulse, respiration
b)
weight, temperature, teeth
c)
pulse, weight, respiration,
d)
weight, behavior, joints
e)
s
9.
What are the two (2) nutrients required for life by all horses in all situations? 5- Lewis2 (147)
a)
Water and forage
b)
grain and alfalfa
c)
hay and grass
d)
forage and straw
10.
What are three (3) advantages of feeding cubed or pelleted hay? S- Lewis2 (67)
a)
less waste, less storage space, reduced intestinal fill
b)
easier to eat, requires less water, easier to store
11.
What breed of horse is most likely to have Equine Night Blindness? S- EqSci (101)
a)
Appaloosa
b)
Arabian
c)
Bay
d)
Paint
12.
What is another name for tetanus? S- Lewis2 (168)
a)
lockjaw
b)
bacteria
c)
spore
d)
wound
13.
What is the dominant color of the Lipizzan breed? S- HIH (174-1)
a)
grey
b)
brown
c)
black
d)
cream
14.
What is the most appropriate action to insure that your horse will remain tetanus free? S-AYHCLM (beg 114-1)
a)
yearly vaccinations
b)
keep pens clean
c)
treat wounds immediately
d)
use sulfer on wounds
15.
What is the name for the conformation defect where the upper teeth extend beyond the lower teeth? S- Evans2 (93)
a)
parrot mouth or over-shot jaw
b)
knock-kneed
c)
topline
d)
un-balanced
16.
What is the term for the estrus cycle that occurs seven (7) to ten (10) days after parturition? S- HIH (940-5)
a)
foal heat
b)
proestrus
c)
metestrus
d)
diestrus
17.
What two (2) body parts work together to aid in the horse's hearing and sight capabilities?
a)
Eyes and Ears
b)
Ears and nostril
c)
Eyes and nostrils
d)
mouth and nostrils
18.
What two types of vision does the horse utilize? S- HIH (1220-1)
a)
monocular and binocular
b)
reflective and adapted
c)
binocular and refective
d)
monocular and reflective
19.
What type of artifact appears at the gum margin of the upper corner incisors at about ten (10) years of age? S- A YHCLM (105 -2)
a)
Galvaynes' Groove
b)
sand cracks
c)
quarter cracks
d)
white lines
20.
Where does the digestive process start? 5- EqSci (109)
a)
The mouth
b)
the stomach
c)
small intestines
d)
cecum
21.
Where is the horse's digital pulse taken? S EqSci (161-162)
a)
above or below the pastern
b)
on the heart girth
c)
fetlock
d)
stifle
22.
A two (2) beat gait in which the legs move laterally is known as what? S- Evans2 (22)
a)
pace
b)
trot
c)
gallop
d)
walk
23.
Approximately what percent of the total body calcium is contained in the skeleton and teeth? S- Lewis2 (20)
a)
0.99
b)
0.85
c)
0.6
d)
0.75
24.
At what age does a mare's reproductive ability decrease? S- HIH {940-1)
a)
after age 16
b)
after age 10
c)
after age 12
d)
after age 20
25.
At what stage does the energy requirements of a pregnant mare increase? S- EVANS2 (295)
a)
during the last third of gestation
b)
during the first third of gestation
c)
during the 2nd third of gestation
d)
the whole gestation
26.
Bones and joints make up the what? 5- Evans2 {181)
a)
the skeletal system
b)
the nervous system
c)
the cranium
d)
the digestive system
27.
Death can result from the ingestion of what insect in alfalfa hay? S- Lewis2 {364)
a)
blister beetle
b)
bot fly
c)
tapeworm
d)
yellow jacket
28.
Define the trot. S-Evans2 (173)
a)
2 beat gate with the diagonal fore and hind legs moving together
b)
2 beat gate with the diagonal fore and hind legs moving opposite
c)
4 beat gate with the diagonal fore and hind legs moving together
d)
4 beat gate with the diagonal fore and hind legs moving opposite
29.
During foaling, name the malpresentation for when the foal's rump or hind feet are presented first in the birth canal? S- IDET (38)
a)
breech birth
b)
hard labor
c)
ruptured uterus
d)
colic baby
30.
From what breed does almost every other breed of horse originate? S- Evans2 (17)
a)
Arabian
b)
Appaloosa
c)
mustang
d)
maverick
31.
Horses primarily get vitamin D from what source? S- Evans2 (218)
a)
from the sun
b)
oranges
c)
oats
d)
water
32.
Horses that do not want to leave the barn are called what?
a)
Barn Sour
b)
homebodies
c)
reluctant
d)
reclusive
33.
How do the chestnuts on Zebras and donkeys differ from those of horses? S- EqSci (17)
a)
Zebras and donkeys have chestnuts on the front legs only
b)
Zebras and donkeys have chestnuts on the hind legs only
c)
horses have chestnuts on the front legs only
d)
horses have chestnuts on the hind legs only
34.
How many permanent teeth does the mare have? S- AYHCLM (205 -1 )
a)
36 teeth
b)
42 teeth
c)
26 teeth
d)
32 teeth
35.
How many toes did eohippus have on each foot?
a)
4 toes on the front and 3 toes on the hind feet
b)
3 toes on the front and 5toes on the hind feet
c)
5 toes on the front and 5 toes on the hind feet
d)
3 toes on the front and 3 toes on the hind feet
36.
Identify the three (3) base coat colors. S- EqSci (39)
a)
black, bay, chestnut
b)
brown, roan, grey
c)
red, brown, gruello
d)
gruello, grey, bay
37.
In degrees, what is the total range of vision for the horse? S- EqiSci (56)
a)
350 degrees
b)
180 degrees
c)
280 degrees
d)
300 degrees
38.
In reference to an English saddle, what is the " gullet" ? S- AYHCLM (1100-2)
a)
the channel that runs down the center of the underside of the saddle, between the bars and the tree
b)
area of the front of the saddle where the bars meet
c)
the back of the saddle
d)
the flap positioned under the jockey
39.
Infection of the cranial nuchal bursa is commonly referred to as what?S- CAHA2 (20)
a)
Poll Evil
b)
equine influenza
c)
Equine Herpesvirus
d)
Patomac Horse Fever
40.
List three (3) of the five (5) pieces equipment utilized to protect a horse during transport. S- AYHCLM (1150-3)
a)
head bumper, blanket, knee pads
b)
hood, blanket, water
c)
trailer, hood, ramp
d)
ramp, knee pads, hood
41.
List three (3) types of closed wounds. S- HIH (440-5)
a)
bruises, contusions, sprains
b)
laceration, abrasion, puncture
c)
avulsion, puncture, bruise
d)
puncture, bruise, laceration
42.
Mares that have never been bred are called what? S- AYHCLM (230-ll)
a)
maiden mares
b)
foals
c)
weenlings
d)
filly
43.
Name an acute, infectious, viral disease of the central nervous system that nearly always results in death. SIDET (227)
a)
rabies
b)
rhinopneumonitis
c)
bacterial disease
d)
enteritis
44.
The horse has thirty-two {32) pairs of chromosomes. How many pairs does the donkey have? S- Evans2 (429)
a)
31 pairs
b)
32 pairs
c)
30 pairs
d)
26 pairs
45.
The ideal slope of the shoulder is how many degrees? S- HIH (220-6)
a)
45 to 50 degrees
b)
50 to 55 degrees
c)
40-45 degrees
d)
60 degrees
46.
What are vertical cracks in the hoof wall called? S- HIH (540-2)
a)
sand cracks
b)
white line disease
c)
quarters
d)
bars
47.
What blemish is typically caused by a horse having bench or offset knees? S- AYHCLM (230-3)
a)
splints
b)
wind puffs
c)
thrush
d)
night eyes
48.
What breed is most readily identified by a finely chiseled head and dished face, long arching neck, high tail carriage and small build? S-AYHCLM (110-1)
a)
an Arabian
b)
mustang
c)
pinto
d)
thoroughbreds
49.
What condition, common on the horse's foot, is compared to athlete's foot in humans? S- HIH (540-1)
a)
thrush
b)
sole
c)
abscess
d)
frog
50.
What does a farrier put on horseshoes to help hold the shoe more securely to the horse's hoof? S- HIH (525-2)
a)
clips
b)
nails
c)
horse shoe
d)
glue
51.
What parasite lay eggs on the horse's hair around forelegs, shoulders, check, neck, throat, jaws, and lips? 5- Lewis2 (157)
a)
Bot flies
b)
round worms
c)
pin worms
d)
lungworm
52.
What part of the hoof bears horse's weight? S- AYHCLM (221-1)
a)
the hoof wall
b)
sole
c)
frog
d)
bars
53.
What term describes a red horse with darker red colored points? S- EqSci (41)
a)
tostado
b)
bay
c)
Arabian
d)
mustang
54.
What three (3) modern equines represent the three (3) evolutionary branches of the genus Equus?(156 B-1)
a)
horses, donkeys and zebras
b)
Jennys, Onager, Kiang
c)
Wild Horse, Asiatic Wild Ass, Kiang
d)
Donkey, Jenny, Zebra
55.
What tool would the farrier use to trim the hoof wall? 5- HIH (535-3)
a)
nippers
b)
rasp
c)
hoof knife
d)
hoof pick
56.
What type of bit applies pressure directly to the bars and tongue but not to the poll? S-AYHCLM (1100-8)
a)
snaffle
b)
western bit
c)
curb bit
d)
english bit
57.
What type of stall door is the safest and easiest to use? S-AYHCLM (320-6)
a)
Sliding door
b)
accordian doors
c)
bi-fold door
d)
pocket doors
58.
What type of western rein is connected with a flexible quirt or romal? S- AYHCLM (1100-8)
a)
closed or California reins
b)
split reins
c)
Mecate
d)
English Reins
59.
What vice is described? The horse places its upper incisors on a horizontal solid surface, presses down, arches its neck and pulls back with a gulping air sound. 5- Lewis2 (373)
a)
cribbing
b)
colic
c)
lognophagia
d)
weaving
60.
What was the original name of the Standardbred breed? S- Evans2 (28)
a)
The American Trotting Horse
b)
Tennessee Walking Horse
c)
Arabian
d)
Morgan
61.
Where is the primary site of protein digestion? S- Evans2 (196)
a)
small intestines
b)
large intestine
c)
cecum
d)
stomach
62.
Which of the following feedstuffs is the highest in energy- barley, corn, or oats? S- EVANS2 (252)
a)
corn
b)
barley
c)
oats
d)
barn
63.
Why should a potential horse farm site have a slope of two (2) to six (6) percent? S-AYHCLM (320-2)
a)
for good drainage
b)
so horses won't stumble
c)
for hay storage
64.
Your horse is restless, sweating, pawing with its front feet, and kicks at its abdomen with hind feet. What are these signs of? S-AYHCLM (228-2)
a)
colic
b)
tetanus
c)
thrush
d)
cribbing
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