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AP Gov. Unit 3 Review

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following most accurately describes civil liberties?

a)

The basic rights of individuals to be free from unequal treatment and discrimination.

b)

The basic freedoms and protections that belong to everyone.

c)

The basic freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution, either explicitly or through interpretation.

d)

The rights that cannot be taken away.

2.

Which of the following is specifically guaranteed in the Bill of Rights?

a)

Right to vote

b)

Right to an impartial jury

c)

Right to healthcare

d)

Right to education

3.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of how the Supreme Court has interpreted the Bill of Rights?

a)

Free speech rights under the First Amendment do not apply to speech in public schools.

b)

The right to free exercise or religion is now limited to religious practices that are part of church services.

c)

The right to an attorney has expanded to include circumstances in which the government must provide an attorney.

d)

The right to bear arms includes only weapons that existed at the time that the Bill of Rights was written.

4.

Which of the following best describes why the Supreme Court is so frequently asked to decide cases that involve civil liberties?

a)

The need of the government to protect society is often in conflict with the rights of individuals.

b)

The individual amendments within the Bill of Rights include enforcement provisions.

c)

Government regulations of civil liberties have become less frequent over time.

d)

The Supreme Court is required to grant certiorari in all cases involving civil liberties.

5.

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold the civil liberties of an individual against government intrusion?

a)

Marbury v Madison

b)

Wisconsin v Yoder

c)

Schenck v U.S

d)

United States v Lopez

6.

Which of the following represents an example of a situation in which an individual’s civil liberties might be threatened by the government?

a)

The age at which an individual can obtain a driver’s license is increased from 16 to 18.

b)

Legislation requires that males register for the draft at age 18, but females are exempt from the requirement.

c)

A student is prevented from wearing a t-shirt with a controversial political slogan to school.

d)

The national government increases the top personal income tax rate from 37% to 40%.

7.

Which of the following government actions is most likely to be consistent with the restrictions placed on the government by the Bill of Rights?

a)

Congress passes legislation prohibiting individuals from spending more than $10,000 per election cycle to promote a specific candidate.

b)

A state legislature passes a law requiring that public schools begin each day by providing time for students to recite a voluntary prayer of each student’s choosing.

c)

The board of education for a public school system approves a rule prohibiting students from wearing clothing with messages that have previously led to significant disruption.

d)

Congress passes a law preventing any media organization from publishing materials that have been classified at any time by the government.

8.

The Fifth Amendment forbids

a)

Cruel and unusual punishment.

b)

Forced self-incrimination.

c)

Illegal searches and seizures.

d)

The government establishment of a national religion.

9.

Which of the following is NOT protected in the First Amendment?

a)

Right to privacy

b)

Right of people to petition the government for a redress of grievances

c)

No establishment of religion

d)

Freedom of speech

10.

Which of the following is most likely to be a violation of the Bill of Rights?

a)

The government established a national religion.

b)

The government punishes individuals for speech or expression.

c)

The government refuses to provide a defendant with his choice of attorney.

d)

The government restricts the right of individuals to own weapons.

11.

The case of Engel v Vitale (1962) has most in common with which of the following Supreme Court cases?

a)

Tinker v Des Moines

b)

Roe v Wade

c)

Wisconsin v Yoder

d)

Schenck v United States

12.

Which of the following government principles was at the center of the court’s reasoning in Engle v Vitale?

a)

The Commerce Clause

b)

Checks and Balances

c)

Federalism

d)

Separation of Church and State

13.

Which of the following best summarizes the debate reflected in Wisconsin v Yoder (1972)?

a)

Can Amish families use the Establishment Clause to protect their freedom of worship?

b)

Can Amish students be forced by compulsory education laws to attend public school beyond 8th grade?

c)

Can public schools develop and require the recitation of prayers during the school day?

d)

Can public schools restrict student speech?

14.

In 2005, the Supreme Court found that two Kentucky counties violated the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment by:

a)

Establishing English as the ʺofficial first language of the State of Kentucky.ʺ

b)

By posting the Ten Commandments as a way of promoting religion.

c)

Banning ʺintelligent designʺ from the curriculum.

d)

Requiring students to say the Pledge of Allegiance.

15.

Which of the following is NOT a free exercise issue?

a)

Animal sacrifice

b)

Religious use of peyote (drug/medicine)

c)

Teacher led prayers in public schools

d)

Whether Amish children must go to school

16.

In free exercise cases, the Supreme Court

a)

Allows the government to interfere with religious practices as long as it is not specifically aimed at religion.

b)

Permits the government to interfere with religious practices.

c)

Prohibits prayer in public schools but permits government aid to religious schools.

d)

Prohibits the government from interfering with religious practices.

17.

In regard to the free exercise clause, the Supreme Court has made each of the following rulings EXCEPT:

a)

Polygamy may be justified for Mormons on religious grounds.

b)

The Air Force can enforce its dress code even against religiously based dress choices.

c)

People could become conscientious objectors to war on religious grounds.

d)

Public schools cannot require Jehovahʹs Witnesses to attend flag saluting ceremonies.

18.

Freedom of expression:

a)

Has sometimes been limited when it conflicts with other rights and values.

b)

Is protected by the Fourth and Fifth Amendments.

c)

Is an absolute right protected by the First Amendment.

d)

Includes freedom of speech and press, but not actions.

19.

Which of the following most clearly states the outcome of Wisconsin v. Yoder?

a)

The court ruled that school districts could not develop and require the recitation of prayer in public schools.

b)

The court ruled that Amish families must abide by compulsory education laws requiring students to attend public schools beyond 8th grade.

c)

The court ruled that requiring Amish families to abide by compulsory education laws requiring students to attend public school beyond 8th grade would violate their Free Exercise protections contained in the First Amendment.

d)

The court ruled that adherents of all religions must abide by compulsory education laws requiring students to attend public school beyond 8th grade.

20.

Which of the following advocacy groups would most likely advocate for the dissenting opinion in Tinker v Des Moines?

a)

National Association of Secondary School Principals

b)

National Parent Teacher Association

c)

American Student Government Association

d)

American Civil Liberties Union

21.

Which of the following most clearly states the outcome of Tinker v Des Moines?

a)

The majority of the court found that the First Amendment’s freedom of speech protection did not apply to public schools and that student speech should be restricted by administration.

b)

The majority of the court found that the First Amendment’s freedom of speech protection applied to public schools and that school administrators must have Constitutionally valid reasons for restricting student speech.

c)

The majority of the court found that flag burning in the public square as a form of protest should be protected by the First Amendment’s freedom of speech.

d)

The majority of the court found that the First Amendment’s freedom of speech protection does not apply to public school students because of administrative difficulties of maintaining a safe, academically focused student body.

22.

Schenck v United States (1919) most likely resulted in a unanimous vote because:

a)

The court worried that allowing speech encouraging Americans to resist the draft would compromise the war effort and threaten American safety.

b)

The court worried that the precedent set by Schenck’s action would threaten the power of the legislature.

c)

The court worried that disallowing all free speech in wartime would threaten government accountability.

d)

The court hoped that disallowing all free speech in wartime would increase America’s safety.

23.

Symbolic speech:

a)

Consists of speech criticizing the symbols of government.

b)

Cannot be prohibited because it is too vague for government to legislate against.

c)

has been ruled as disruptive and as a criminal activity.

d)

Consists of action that expresses an opinion.

24.

Which of the following correctly identifies the law being quested in the case of Schenck v U.S.?

a)

The Alien Enemies Act of 1798

b)

The Espionage Act of 1917

c)

The Sedition Act of 1798

d)

The PATRIOT Act

25.

Which of the following best describes the reason that there was so much controversy over potential anti-government speech during World War I?

a)

The increase in ethnic re-locations stoked fears of broader disloyalty in the United States.

b)

As socialism was on the rise in the United States, the government became increasingly worried that anti-war sentiment would compromise the war effort.

c)

Recent attacks on American soil prompted lawmakers to develop legislation enforcing pro-government sentiment.

d)

Recent events prompted executive power to be used broadly to restrict civil liberties in the interest of security.

26.

In Schenck v. United States (1919), Justice Holmes said that speech can be restricted when it:

a)

Is uttered by government officials in an effort to establish a religion.

b)

Provokes ʺa clear and present dangerʺ to people.

c)

Advocates the violent overthrow of the United States.

d)

Is spoken rather than non-verbal or symbolic.

27.

Constitutional protections of free speech are ________ on private property.

a)

Completely invalidated

b)

Fully protected

c)

Diminished

d)

Untested

28.

Obscenity is

a)

Equated with nudity by the Supreme Court.

b)

Clearly defined as it pertains to both freedom of the press and freedom of speech.

c)

Prohibited in the First Amendment.

d)

Not protected under the Constitution.

29.

Wearing an arm band and burning a United States flag are examples of ________: actions that do not consist of speaking or writing but that express an opinion.

a)

Commercial speech

b)

Symbolic speech

c)

Obscenity

d)

The free exercise clause

30.

Which of the following best summarizes the debate reflected in New York Times Company vs U.S. (1971)?

a)

Can the Federal Government prohibit the publication of classified documents by merely citing executive authority?

b)

Can the Federal Government sue a publication to recover damages for the intentional publication of classified documents by merely citing executive authority?

c)

Can a Federal Government official sue a publication to recover damages for the intentional infliction of emotional distress.

d)

Can the Federal Government charge a reporter with espionage under the Espionage Act of 1917?

31.

________ refers to a governmentʹs censorship of material before it is published.

a)

The exclusionary rule

b)

Probable cause

c)

Equal protection

d)

Prior restraint

32.

The extent of an individualʹs or groupʹs freedom from prior restraint depends on:

a)

Whether the nation is at war.

b)

Nothing- it is absolute.

c)

Who the individual or group is.

d)

The moods of the Supreme Court justices.

33.

Prior restraint is most often considered acceptable on the grounds of

a)

Libel (slander)

b)

Obscenity.

c)

National security.

d)

Cruel and unusual punishment.

34.

When the judgement was handed down, which of the following entities would have most likely advocated for the concurring opinion in New York Times Company v U.S.?

a)

The Washington Post

b)

The State Department

c)

The Justice Department

d)

The Nixon Administration

35.

Following mass shootings, the debate over whether there should be increased limits on access to guns intensifies. This is most representative of which of the following?

a)

The need to balance national government authority with the power of the states.

b)

The tension between the need to protect public safety while also protecting individual rights.

c)

The authority of the Legislative Branch to check the authority of the Executive Branch.

d)

The lack of constitutional protection for gun rights.

36.

Which of the following most clearly states the outcome of McDonald v Chicago (2010)?

a)

Municipalities may ban the ownership of handguns within their boundaries without infringing on the Second Amendment.

b)

Municipalities may deem state conceal and carry laws non-applicable within their jurisdictions.

c)

Municipalities may not infringe on the Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms for self-protection in one’s home.

d)

Municipalities may ban shooting ranges within their boundaries.

37.

The Eighth Amendment to the Constitution:

a)

Is the freedom of privacy.

b)

Forbids cruel and unusual punishment.

c)

Is the right to bear arms.

d)

Protects freedom of assembly.

38.

Unreasonable searches and seizures are specifically forbidden in the:

a)

Sixteenth Amendment.

b)

Fifth Amendment.

c)

Tenth Amendment.

d)

Fourth Amendment.

39.

Which of the following political parties would most likely advocate for the dissenting opinion in McDonald v Chicago (2010)?

a)

The Democratic Party

b)

The Libertarian Party

c)

The Republican Party

d)

The Tea Party

40.

In which of the following situations would the Supreme Court be most likely to apply the doctrine of selective incorporation?

a)

The court is hearing a case that involves congressional legislation that potentially violates 4th Amendment freedoms.

b)

There is a challenge to an executive order issued by the president that may exceed his powers as commander in chief.

c)

A plaintiff challenges a state law that imposes penalties for certain categories of speech.

d)

The national government sues a state government claiming that the state’s immigration law interferes with national government power.

41.

A constitutional doctrine that ensures states cannot enact laws that take away the constitutional rights of American citizens that are enshrined in the Bill of Rights. This is not a law, but has been established over time through court cases and rulings by the United States Supreme Court. At its heart, it is about the ability of the federal government to limit the states' lawmaking powers.

a)

Selective Incorporation

b)

Prior Restraint

c)

Exclusionary Rule

d)

Probable Cause

42.

“You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law. You have the right to have an attorney. If you cannot afford one, one will be appointed to you by the court. With these rights in mind, are you still willing to talk with me about the charges against you?”


-The Miranda Warning


Based on previous court rulings, which of the following scenarios would most likely violate the purpose of the excerpt above?

a)

Making a defendant wait 24 hours to speak to an attorney.

b)

Applying a sliding scale to pay for an attorney based on your income level.

c)

Modifying the warning for a minor accused of a crime to make it easier to understand.

d)

Continuing to question a witness after they have clearly told the arresting officers they wish to invoke their right not to speak to them unless there is an attorney present.

43.

The police can question an un-Mirandized suspect if there is an urgent concern for public safety.

a)

Right to Speedy Trial

b)

Right to Impartial Jury

c)

Public Safety Exception

d)

Prior Restraint

44.

“The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.”


-Amendment IV of U.S. Constitution


Which of the following would represent a “reasonable search” that would not violate the rights protected by the 4th Amendment above?

a)

A suspect is arrested and voluntarily confesses to the crime after being read his Miranda rights by the police.

b)

A teenager is pulled over for speeding and the officer detects a strong smell of marijuana emanating from the car and searches the car without a warrant.

c)

Police have a warrant to search your home because they believe your cousin has robbed a bank and is hiding in your house. As part of their search they look in your bread drawer and find a bag of cocaine and arrest you for possession of an illegal substance.

d)

The police set up a random roadblock for DUI checks, suspect you of driving under the influence, and make you do a field sobriety test to help you prove you are not inebriated.

45.

Ever since 1914, the courts have used ________ to prevent illegally seized evidence from being introduced into the courtroom.

a)

prior restraint

b)

the Miranda rule

c)

probable cause

d)

an exclusionary rule

46.

“No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury...nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself,...”


-Amendment V of the U.S. Constitution


Which of the following landmark Supreme Court cases was most directly linked to the excerpt above?

a)

Gideon v Wainwright (1963)

b)

Mapp v Ohio (1961)

c)

Miranda v Arizona (1966)

d)

Escobedo v Illinois (1964)

47.

Which of the following organizations would most likely advocate for the concurring opinion of Roe v Wade (1973)?

a)

The National Right to Life Committee

b)

The Pro-Life Action League

c)

The U.S. Conference of Catholic Bishops

d)

The National Organization of Women

48.

Which of the following best summarizes the debate reflected in Gideon v Wainwright (1963)?

a)

Are states required to provide legal counsel for indigent (poor) criminal defendants?

b)

Can a criminal defendant act as his own counsel and conduct his own legal defense in court?

c)

Can states erect barriers to the First Amendment right to counsel?

d)

Are states required to fund a public defender’s office?

49.

The concurring opinion of Gideon v Wainwright (1963) is most closely associated with which political belief?

a)

The constitutional guarantee of legal counsel found in the Sixth Amendment should not be diminished by a defendant’s income level.

b)

The Sixth Amendment guarantees only that the government cannot prevent a defendant from having the assistance of counsel for his defense.

c)

Ineffective assistance of legal counsel in no way violates the Sixth Amendment.

d)

The Federal Government should have no jurisdiction over state court systems.

50.

Which of the following most clearly states the outcome of Roe v Wade (1973)?

a)

As found in the 9th Amendment, the right to privacy is guaranteed by the Constitution should encompass a woman’s right to obtain an abortion.

b)

The Fourteenth Amendment’s Due Process Clause extends to a woman’s decision to have an abortion, although state interests in regulating abortions to protect women’s health and the potentiality of human life must be taken into account.

c)

A state may not regulate a woman’s right to an abortion in any way thanks to the Fourteenth Amendment’s Due Process Clause.

d)

Women inherently possess the right to terminate a pregnancy and compelling them to carry and bear children subjects them to involuntary servitude, a clear violation of the Thirteenth Amendment.

51.

According to Normal Rockwell’s The Problem We All Live With pictured above, which of the following 1960’s social movements was energized by the enforcement of the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment?

a)

The movement demanding desegregated public schools.

b)

The movement insisting on affirmative action in college admissions.

c)

The movement pressing for fair access to the voting process.

d)

The movement calling for non-discrimination with regards to sexual orientation.

52.

While the practice of separate schools for black and white students was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in Brown v. Board of Education (1954), segregation in restaurants, stores, hotels, and other public accommodations remained legal until:

a)

The Supreme Court’s decision in Loving v. Virginia (1967)

b)

The ratification of the Twenty-Fourth Amendment (1964)

c)

The passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

d)

President Lyndon Johnson issued an executive order ending all segregation by race

53.

Today in the U.S., what possible remedy might female collegiate athletes seek to redress the issue of inequality in scholarship opportunities?

a)

Title IX exclusively

b)

The Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment exclusively

c)

The Nineteenth Amendment exclusively

d)

Both Title IX and the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment

54.

The Fifthteenth Amendment was ratified in 1870, stating the voting rights cannot be abridged based on race. Almost 100 years later, the Voting Rights Act of 1965 prohibited voting qualifications or practices which result in denying voting rights based on race. Which of the following best explains what led to the passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965?

a)

The Civil Rights Movement brought attention to the extent to which minority voting rights were being denied.

b)

Constitutional amendments are not enforceable without specific legislation.

c)

The Democratic Party in the South demanded voting rights protections for minorities.

d)

National legislation was needed to create consistency with legislation protecting voting rights that had already been passed by the states.

55.

Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972 was passed in response to public pressure to promote greater equality. Which of the following has been the most significant impact of Title IX?

a)

Decreased racial discrimination in admissions to post-secondary institutions.

b)

Increased participation of women in high school and college sports.

c)

Increased protections for students based on sexual orientation.

d)

Increased federal funding for colleges and universities.

56.

Which of the following would directly violate the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

a)

A hotel that refused to allow racial minorities to rent rooms.

b)

A state law that gives preference to women in child custody cases.

c)

Federal legislation that makes the voting age 16.

d)

An executive order requiring the Justice Department to limit prosecution of civil rights cases.

57.

Which of the following most clearly states the outcome of Brown v Board of Education of Topeka II (1955)?

a)

Localities with segregated public school systems must immediately implement desegregation plans to the U.S. Supreme Court.

b)

States with segregated public school systems should act on the principles mandated in Brown I and move to full compliance “with all deliberate speed.”

c)

Segregated public school districts will have exactly ten years to come into compliance with the dictates of Brown I.

d)

States who have resisted the Brown I ruling may be denied federal funding through the Elementary and Secondary Education Act.

58.

Through passage of Title IX of the Education Amendments of 1972, the federal government was specifically attempting to extend the provisions of which of the following?

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

c)

Fifteenth Amendment

d)

Commerce Clause