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JP Final Spring 2019

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the Uniform Crime Reports, major crimes such as homicide or robbery are part of a category of crimes referred to as:

a)

first-degree crimes

b)

index crimes

c)

primary crimes

d)

misdemeanors

2.

Of crimes known to the police, what percentage results in an arrest.

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

3.

When suspects are given formal notice of the charges by a judge the procedure is called:

a)

indictment

b)

information

c)

initial appearance

d)

booking

4.

Suspects in what types of cases have no right to bail?

a)

armed robbery

b)

capital offenses

c)

simple assault

d)

rape

5.

In theory, the purpose of bail is to:

a)

insure the appearance of the accused at trial

b)

keep the accused in jail until trial

c)

punish the accused for the crime

d)

maintain control of persons arrested but not arraigned

6.

The American bail system is based on the defendant's access to:

a)

a defense attorney

b)

friends in the community

c)

money

d)

treatment centers

7.

When a person is released based only on his or her promise to return for trial, it is called:

a)

unsecured bail

b)

conditional release

c)

release on recognizance

d)

third party custody

8.

Which of the following helps to explain the amount of bail set by a judge?

a)

a. seriousness of the crime

b)

b. criminal record

c)

c. victim's desires

d)

a and b

9.

Preventive detention is aimed at denying pretrial release to defendants who:

a)

may not return for trial

b)

are viewed as a threat to the community

c)

have no links to the community

d)

all of the above

10.

The office of prosecutor is characterized by:

a)

centralization

b)

checks and balances

c)

legal professionalism

d)

decentralization

11.

The prosecuting attorney is:

a)

usually a locally elected official

b)

appointed by the governor in most states

c)

responsible to the state bar association

d)

responsible to the state attorney general

12.

A charging document includes the:

a)

names of potential defense lawyers

b)

description of the offense that was committed

c)

sentencing guidelines for the alleged offense

d)

the court fees associated with the crime

13.

When comparing charging documents, the difference between a complaint and an information is:

a)

an information is signed by the prosecutor

b)

an information contains the age of the person charged

c)

an information is handed up by a grand jury

d)

none of the above

14.

Prosecution in a misdemeanor case is usually initiated by:

a)

indictment

b)

information

c)

complaint

d)

arrest warrant

15.

Which person is most influential in the charging decision?

a)

prosecutor

b)

judge

c)

defense attorney

d)

juror

16.

Which of the following is designed as a check on unwarranted prosecution?

a)

bail

b)

initial appearance

c)

preliminary hearing

d)

arrest warrant

17.

If the grand jury finds probable cause that a defendant committed a crime they return:

a)

an indictment

b)

an information

c)

a complaint

d)

nolle prosequi

18.

At which stage of the criminal justice process does the right to counsel not apply?

a)

grand jury

b)

preliminary hearing

c)

bail setting

d)

police line-up

19.

The principle that illegally seized evidence cannot be used against the defendant at trial is known as the:

a)

exclusionary rule

b)

Fifth Amendment

c)

protection against self-incrimination

d)

presumption of innocence

20.

In which landmark decision did the Supreme Court rule that defendants must be informed of their right to have their attorneys present during interrogation?

a)

Mapp v. Ohio

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Gideon v. Wainwright

d)

Baker v. Carr

21.

The courtroom work group concept focuses on:

a)

cooperation between judge, prosecutor and defense attorney

b)

conflicts between judge, prosecutor and defense attorney

c)

law on the books

d)

the conduct of the trial

22.

The concept of the courtroom work group emphasizes:

a)

conflict

b)

cooperation

c)

insufficient resources

d)

too many cases

23.

Which of the following is not a member of the courtroom workgroup:

a)

defendant

b)

defense attorney

c)

judge

d)

prosecutor

24.

If a defendant pleads guilty to two of four charges, this is termed:

a)

charge bargaining

b)

sentence bargaining

c)

count bargaining

d)

implicit bargaining

25.

When a defendant is convicted of two crimes and the judge stipulates that the sentences will be served all at one time, it is said that the defendant is serving the sentence:

a)

on double time

b)

consecutively

c)

concurrently

d)

on parole

26.

The most common similarity regarding plea bargaining procedure is the importance of:

a)

pretrial defendant interviews

b)

the seriousness of the offense

c)

the possibility of rehabilitation

d)

the size of the court docket

27.

Which of the following is most likely to influence whether a case goes to trial?

a)

a. seriousness of the crime

b)

b. severity of the penalty on conviction

c)

c. strength of the prosecutor's case

d)

b and c only

28.

The type of case most likely to go to trial is:

a)

burglary

b)

theft

c)

forgery

d)

robbery

29.

Compared to a guilty plea, a conviction by a jury frequently results in a sentence which is:

a)

longer

b)

shorter

c)

about the same

d)

impossible to predict

30.

A plea of guilty which does not constitute an admission of guilt is called:

a)

nolle prosequi

b)

charge bargaining

c)

nolo contendere

d)

implicit bargaining

31.

Civil libertarians are concerned that plea bargaining:

a)

a. undercuts individuals constitutional protections

b)

b. is inherently coercive

c)

c. is a result of prosecutorial abuse

d)

a and b

32.

Sentencing structure is defined by which of the following

a)

legislators

b)

judges

c)

parole boards

d)

all of the above

33.

Reducing the inmate's prison term as a reward for good behavior in prison is known as awarding:

a)

executive clemency

b)

probation

c)

good time

d)

pardon

34.

The majority of persons under some form of correctional supervisions are:

a)

in jail

b)

in prison

c)

on probation

d)

on parole

35.

An individual placed on probation:

a)

has not been found guilty of a crime

b)

is released into the community under the supervision of the court

c)

is awaiting transfer to prison

d)

has been released from prison and is under supervision

36.

Which of the following items appear to be most important in a judge's decision to incarcerate: or grant probation?

a)

nature of the victim

b)

prior criminal record

c)

drug or alcohol problems

d)

steady employment

37.

Over the past decade, the number of people in prison has:

a)

risen dramatically

b)

remained about the same

c)

declined

d)

fluctuated greatly

38.

Many prison reforms have come about as a result of which Constitutional Amendment?

a)

Fourth

b)

Fifth

c)

Sixth

d)

Eighth

39.

For a death penalty law to be constitutional, the Supreme Court ruled it must provide for:

a)

proportionality review

b)

stochastic process

c)

bifurcated process

d)

retribution process

40.

Sentencing guidelines are designed to:

a)

impose stricter sentences

b)

reduce corruption and bribery

c)

increase judicial discretion

d)

provide certainty and consistency

41.

Increasing the severity of the punishment tends to:

a)

decrease the crime rate

b)

decrease its application

c)

decrease court costs

d)

increase the number of convictions

42.

The following exists only when a claim is rejected:

a)

dispute

b)

grievance

c)

mediation

d)

lawsuit

43.

Hiring a lawyer often shows:

a)

a presence of legal realities

b)

the seriousness of the individual in continuing the case

c)

a need by the client to better understand legal rules

d)

all of the above

44.

Which statement(s) best describe the work of most lawyers:

a)

lawyers encourage lawsuits in order to create business for themselves

b)

lawyers try to keep clients out of court

c)

lawyers file lawsuits even if the claim is unreasonable

d)

none of the above

45.

Which of the following best describes the lawyer's function within the legal system?

a)

snakes in the sand

b)

utilized only for criminal cases

c)

serve as gatekeepers

d)

encourage every client to go to court

46.

Most disputes do not end up in court because:

a)

the plaintiff "lumps" it

b)

the party filing a claim is satisfied with a settlement

c)

the parties have difficulty finding lawyers

d)

all of the above

47.

Studies on civil court caseloads per thousand population indicate that they have:

a)

increased steadily in the 20th century

b)

decreased in the 20th century

c)

remained relatively stable in the 20th century

d)

fluctuated widely in the 20th century

48.

Studies on the kinds of civil cases coming to court in this century find:

a)

property cases have increased

b)

personal injury cases have increased

c)

market related cases have increased

d)

the kinds of cases have remained the same

49.

Studies of Americans "suing" behavior indicate:

a)

a. they sue more than any other Western democracy

b)

b. they are not necessarily quick to sue

c)

c. community norms seem to shape suing behavior

d)

both b and c

50.

During the last decade tort filings in many states have been:

a)

decreasing rapidly

b)

increasing rapidly

c)

staying relatively constant

d)

fluctuating widely

51.

The median verdict in automobile tort cases is around:

a)

$15,000

b)

$25,000

c)

$55,000

d)

more than $100,000

52.

Medical malpractice lawsuits are an example of:

a)

no-win torts

b)

low stakes litigation

c)

high stakes litigation

d)

guaranteed lawyer fees

53.

Mass tort litigation involves:

a)

the problem of causation

b)

the absence of lawyers

c)

the small number of parties

d)

an inability to mobilize litigants

54.

Limits on punitive damages are an example of:

a)

stare decisis

b)

common law evolution

c)

policy litigation

d)

tort reform

55.

Which statement best describes community mediation programs?

a)

a. Arbitration is the dominate mode of dispute resolution

b)

b. the focus is on minor disputes

c)

c. many programs have close links to the courts

d)

both a and b

56.

Critics charge that community courts

a)

are too formal

b)

are too informal

c)

result in lengthy delays

d)

make work for too many lawyers

57.

Court-annexed compulsory arbitration is designed to:

a)

increase the geographic jurisdiction of a court

b)

increase the caseload for annexation courts

c)

provide a speedier, less expensive alternative to courts

d)

provide criminal suspects with an additional appeal

58.

Hiring a lawyer automatically means a dispute will result in a lawsuit.

a)

true

b)

false

59.

Tort reform has traditionally been a state legal matter.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The Congress is active in establishing tort reform at the national level.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Few people support Alternative Dispute Resolution.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Stella Liebeck's jury verdict against McDonald's was substantially reduced by the courts.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

In Bleak House, Charles Dickens provides a strong attack on the English legal system. Many of these problems were associated with the system being:

a)

loose and flexible

b)

rigid and formal

c)

focused on pretrial conference

d)

too concerned about sentencing

64.

The process of making formal written statements about each side of a civil case is known as:

a)

discovery

b)

motions

c)

pleadings

d)

pretrial

65.

A civil suit begins with the filing of a:

a)

indictment

b)

information

c)

complaint

d)

motion

66.

The person who brings a civil suit is called:

a)

plaintiff

b)

defendant

c)

appellant

d)

respondent

67.

A complaint includes a:

a)

description of the courts' jurisdiction

b)

statement of the facts

c)

cause of action and remedy

d)

all of the above

68.

If a defendant refuses to provide an answer the judge in the case may issue a:

a)

restraining order

b)

lively judgment

c)

default judgment

d)

certain judgment

69.

Which stage of the process is intended to eliminate surprises in civil cases?

a)

service

b)

pleadings

c)

answer

d)

discovery

70.

Which of the following is not a tool of discovery?

a)

interrogatories

b)

private investigations

c)

deposition

d)

subpoena

71.

The most significant change in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure related to:

a)

complaint

b)

service

c)

answer

d)

discovery

72.

In a civil case, the pretrial procedure for obtaining information about the issues and facts of the case is:

a)

remedy

b)

discovery

c)

complaint

d)

summons

73.

A court order compelling a person to appear in court is termed a:

a)

voir dire

b)

subpoena

c)

injunction

d)

brief

74.

The following is an order by the court requiring a person to produce documents in their possession:

a)

subpoena duces tecum

b)

subpoena

c)

interrogatory

d)

deposition

75.

The following are questions that a party in a case must answer in writing and under oath:

a)

subpoena duces tecum

b)

subpoena

c)

interrogatory

d)

deposition

76.

A default judgment for the plaintiff may be granted against a defendant:

a)

after a mistrial

b)

if the defendant lost the case, but fails to pay the monetary damages awarded

c)

if the defendant fails to do anything

d)

if the defendant files a misleading answer

77.

If a case involves no genuine issue of fact and the law is clear, the judge can issue a:

a)

summary judgment

b)

default judgment

c)

preliminary injunction

d)

directed verdict

78.

Which of the following provides an important opportunity for lawyers to negotiate and settle cases?

a)

discovery

b)

jury selection

c)

pretrial conference

d)

bench conference

79.

In what type of case is the plaintiff most likely to face a problem enforcing the judgment of the court?

a)

tort

b)

property

c)

contract

d)

small claims

80.

Of all the lawsuits begun in the United States,

a)

the overwhelming proportion end with a court judgment

b)

only a few end without a court judgment

c)

the overwhelming proportion are settled before a judgment is rendered

d)

most as dismissed as insignificant

81.

What area of the law has been marked by a major expansion in liability since World War II?

a)

contract

b)

property

c)

tort

d)

small claims

82.

In a dispute over child custody, a judge is called upon to perform which of the following tasks?

a)

routine administration

b)

procedural adjudication

c)

decisional adjudication

d)

diagnostic adjudication

83.

The Constitution's requirement of jury trials:

a)

is uniform for federal and state governments, regardless of the kinds of cases

b)

is different for civil and criminal cases

c)

requires unanimous jury convictions in all cases

d)

is set at a twelve‑person jury

84.

In Baldwin v. New York (1970) the Supreme Court held that a defendant in a criminal case has the right to a jury trial:

a)

if charged with treason

b)

only if charged with a capital offense

c)

is facing a prison sentence of six months or more

d)

only if charged with a felony

85.

Voir dire refers to:

a)

cross examination of witnesses during trial.

b)

questioning of potential jurors.

c)

judge's instructions to the jury.

d)

appellate review of the trial record

86.

In a civil case the burden of proof required to convict is:

a)

proof beyond a reasonable doubt

b)

proof based on clear and convincing evidence

c)

proof based on the preponderance of the evidence

d)

proof drawn from the judge's instructions to the jury

87.

In a civil trial:

a)

the plaintiff presents its case first

b)

the defense presents its case first

c)

the clerk decides who will go first

d)

the judge decides who will go first

88.

The basic requirements for the admissibility of evidence during trial include:

a)

relevance and hearsay

b)

privilege and trustworthiness

c)

materiality and hearsay

d)

trustworthiness and relevance

89.

Either the plaintiff or the defendant may appeal a decision to an appellate court in:

a)

a. a criminal case

b)

b. a civil case

c)

both a and b

d)

neither a nor b

90.

The U.S. Constitution’s Fifth Amendment prohibition of double jeopardy means:

a)

every party has the right to a jury trial

b)

the losing party has the right to one appeal

c)

a prosecutor cannot appeal a verdict of not guilty

d)

a defendant is innocent until proven guilty

91.

If a case is affirmed, it:

a)

means the case cannot be appealed to a higher court

b)

is sent back to the court that heard the case

c)

means the decision of a lower court was accepted by the appellate court

d)

will result in a new trial for the defendant

92.

When an appellate court remands a case, it:

a)

affirms the lower court's decision

b)

reverses the lower court's decision

c)

returns the case to the lower court

d)

submits the case to a higher court

93.

The writ of habeas corpus protects:

a)

students who want to see their files

b)

the right of association and petition

c)

persons in confinement

d)

criminal defendants whose trial is delayed

94.

The prime example of the U.S. Supreme Court's original jurisdiction is:

a)

suits between citizens of difference states

b)

a state challenging the constitutionality of a federal law

c)

suits between two or more states

d)

disbarment of attorneys

95.

The most common route by which cases come to the U.S. Supreme Court is by:

a)

amicus curiae

b)

certiorari

c)

appeal

d)

certification

96.

Which statement best describes doctrines of access:

a)

they are clearly defined and largely inflexible

b)

they grant the Supreme Court flexibility in deciding which cases the federal courts will hear

c)

they vary little depending on the justices sitting on the court

d)

they are largely based on the Constitution and legislative acts

97.

The requirement of standing means that to sue in federal court one must demonstrate that he or she:

a)

has contacted all similarly situated potential plaintiffs

b)

can prove their case beyond a reasonable doubt

c)

has tried to resolve the issue through the other branches of government

d)

has been involved in an actual dispute.

98.

Who represents the federal government before the Supreme Court?

a)

the attorney general

b)

the solicitor general

c)

the secretary of justice

d)

the chief justice

99.

If the Supreme Court decides to review a case, they issue:

a)

a writ of certiorari

b)

a writ of habeas corpus

c)

a bill of attainder

d)

a writ of jurisdiction

100.

A writ of certiorari is issued by the Supreme Court only when:

a)

a majority of justices vote for it

b)

at least four justices vote for it

c)

a unanimous Court supports it

d)

the Solicitor General approves of it