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8th grade FSSA questions

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is photosynthesis important to consumers?

a)

consumers use oxygen and glucose produced by photosynthesis

b)

consumers supply the light energy needed for photosynthesis

c)

consumers supply the water needed for photosynthesis

d)

consumers supply the chloroplasts to producers

2.

where does energy first come into an ecosystem?

a)

producers make energy

b)

the sunlight provides energy to producers

c)

consumers obtain energy from animals

d)

scavengers obtain energy from dead plants

3.

How does CO2 in the atmosphere eventually cycle through to a carnivore?

a)

plants use CO2 in the atmosphere during photosynthesis, herbivores eat the plants, and a carnivore eats an herbivore

b)

carnivores use CO2 in the atmosphere during cellular respiration

c)

herbivores use CO2 during photosynthesis and carnivores eat an herbivore

d)

plants use CO2 in the atmosphere during photosynthesis and a carnivore eats the plant

4.

How do plants convert glucose to energy?

a)

through photosynthesis

b)

when an animal consumes them

c)

through cellular respiration

d)

they do not convert glucose to energy

5.

Lucy is constructing a model of the carbon cycle. Which components should she include in her model?

a)

the sun, the atmosphere, and the ocean

b)

fossil fuels, power plants, and electricity

c)

the atmosphere, decomposers, and the geosphere

d)

the atmosphere, the geosphere and the cryosphere

6.

What is a scientific question that can be tested?

a)

What is electricity?

b)

Which is the nicest color for rose plants?

c)

How many pine trees are in a tundra forest?

d)

Does water heat up more quickly than sand in sunlight?

7.

A scientist is raising the temperature of a sample of water to find out if the amount of salt that can be mixed into water changes. Which is the independent variable in this investigation?

a)

the amount of water in the sample

b)

the temperature of the water

c)

the amount of salt that mixes in the water

d)

the type of salt mixed into the water

8.

Which must be true of any hypothesis for it to be useful in a scientific investigation?

a)

It must be supported by data

b)

it must be used to develop a theory

c)

it must lead to further investigations

d)

must be developed without depending on prior investigations

9.

What is the final step while conducting a scientific investigation?

  1. ask question
  2. form hypothesis
  3. experiment
  4. analyze results
  5. ?
a)

develop a theory

b)

draw a conclusion

c)

select equipment

d)

identify the variable

10.

Which best describes an experiment?

a)

a scientist measures the height of crops that received different fertilizers

b)

scientist measures the speed at which an eagle travels while it is hunting

c)

scientist measures the diameter of a certain type of tree throughout a forest

d)

scientist measures the rate at which a population of wild insects reproduces

11.

Which is true about density?

a)

possible unit for density is grams

b)

liquid gold is denser than solid gold

c)

density is found by multiplying mass and volume

d)

density is independent of the amount of the sample

12.

A student measured the volume of three rocks.

Rock A- 200 g, 150 cm3

Rock B- 240 g, 120 cm3

Rock C- 145 g, 130 cm3

Which correct orders the rocks from least to greatest density?

a)

Rock A, Rock B, Rock C

b)

Rock C, Rock A, Rock B

c)

Rock B, Rock C, Rock A

d)

Rock A, Rock C, Rock B

13.

What is the melting point of a substance?

a)

when its temperature changes from a gas to a liquid

b)

when its temperature changes from a liquid to a solid

c)

when its temperature changes from a liquid to a gas

d)

when its temperature changes from a solid to a liquid

14.

Which physical property is the rate at which a substance transfers heat?

a)

boiling point

b)

density

c)

electrical conductivity

d)

thermal conductivity

15.

Lisa is using a magnet to pick up various objects. Which object is not attracted to her magnet?

a)

cobalt

b)

iron

c)

nickle

d)

wood

16.

Which best describes how to classify water?

a)

it is an element because it is made from a pure substance

b)

it is a compound because it is made of a single kind of molecule

c)

is is a mixture because it is a composed of more than one molecule

d)

it is a solution because it is a homogeneous mixture of different compounds

17.

which best describes an acid?

a)

a soapy substance that is nonreactive with metals

b)

a neutral substance made of oppositely charged particles

c)

a caustic substance that has a high number on the pH scale

d)

a sour liquid that forms gas bubbles when mixed with copper

18.

Which is not a property of an acid?

a)

tastes sour

b)

has a high pH

c)

reacts with metals

d)

contains the element hydrogen

19.

Magnesium (Mg), Calcium (Ca), and Barium (Ba) are all in the same group on the periodic table. What do these elements have in common?

a)

They all have the same atomic number

b)

they all have the same number of electrons

c)

they all react with substances in similar ways

d)

they were all discovered by Dmitri Mendeleev

20.

Which is not a chemical change?

a)

iron combines with oxygen to form rust

b)

wax melts as it absorbs heat from a flame

c)

pure sodium explodes when dropped in water

d)

glucose molecules are produced in a plant leaf

21.

Which is evidence that a physical change has occurred?

a)

two substances separate after they are mixed

b)

an old rubber band becomes stiff and brittle

c)

a blue powder-like substance forms on a battery

d)

a sealed bag filled with powder and water expands

22.

A student dissolves 5 g of table salt in 100 mL of water in a beaker. Compared to the total mass of the salt and water before mixing, which is true?

a)

a total mass of the solution will increase by a small amount

b)

the total mass of the solution will increase by a large amount

c)

the total mass of the solution will decrease by a small amount

d)

the total mass of the solution will neither increase nor decrease

23.

Which is true about a physical change to a substance?

a)

the atoms in a substance will divide

b)

the mass of a substance will increase

c)

new substances will likely be formed

d)

the substances will have the same properties

24.

Trini adds 10 g of baking soda to 100 g of vinegar. The mixture begins to bubble. When the bubbling stops, Trini finds the mass of the resulting mixture. She determines the mass is 105 g. Why has the mass changed?

a)

a gas has formed and left the mixture

b)

vinegar evaporated during the experiment

c)

mixtures are always less massive than their parts

d)

matter was destroyed when vinegar reacted with baking soda

25.

The average distance from the Earth to the sun is about 149.6 x 10^6 km. Proxima Centauri the nearest star is about 39.9 x 10^12 km away. Which statement is the most accurate?

a)

the sun is many hundreds of times closer to Earth than it is to Proxima Centuari

b)

the sun is many thousands of times closer to Earth than it is Proxima Centuari

c)

the sun is many hundreds of times closer to Proxima Centuari than is it to Earth

d)

the sun is many thousands of times closer to Proxima Centauri than it is to Earth

26.

The star Aldebaran is an orange giant star in the constellation Taurus, the bull. Aldebaran is the eye of the bull, is about 65 light years away. What would happen if Aldebaran were to explode tonight?

a)

we would see the explosion before we hear it

b)

we would see the explosion right away

c)

we would see the explosion in 65 years

d)

we would never be able to see the explosion

27.

Which correctly orders the relationship from least to greatest in size?

a)

galaxy, planet, solar system, universe

b)

planet, galaxy, universe, solar system

c)

universe, galaxy, solar system, planet

d)

planet, solar system, galaxy, universe

28.

Phil explained to his classmates that there are a very large amount of galaxies in the universe. Which answer best describes how many galaxies there are in the universe?

a)

billions

b)

millions

c)

thousands

d)

hundreds of millions

29.

How far is the sun from the center of the Milky Way?

a)

on the very edge of the disc

b)

half way from the galactic core to the edge of the disc

c)

in the center of galaxy

d)

two-thirds from the galactic core to the edge of the disc

30.

Which is true about the sun?

a)

the sun is the largest star in the Milky Way galaxy

b)

the sun is the closest star to Earth in all galaxies

c)

the sun has the highest surface temperature of all stars in the Milky Way galaxy

d)

the sun has the highest absolute brightness of all stars in the Milky Way galaxy

31.

Why does a star, such as Betelgeuse, have a much greater absolute magnitude than apparent magnitude?

a)

absolute magnitude is relative to the sun

b)

apparent magnitude does not take into account the distance from Earth

c)

absolute magnitude does not take into account the distance from Earth

d)

Betelgeuse is closer to Earth

32.

Which has the hottest temperature?

a)

a blue star

b)

a red giant

c)

the left over energy from the big bang

d)

a swirling accretion disk of matter orbiting a black hole

33.

The sun does not rotate in the same way the Earth does. The sun has different periods of rotations at different latitudes. Which latitude does the sun rotate the fastest?

a)

highest latitude

b)

middle latitude

c)

lowest latitude

34.

Looking at the distances from the sun and the orbital period, which infers the relationship between these properties?

a)

as distances from the sun increases, the orbital period increases

b)

as distances from the sun increases, the orbital period decreases

c)

as distances from the sun decreases, the orbital period increases

d)

there is no consistent relationship between the two

35.

Which statement correctly compares the force of gravity between planets?

a)

the force of gravity on Mars is greater than the force of gravity on Uranus

b)

the force of gravity on Earth is greater than the force of gravity on Jupiter

c)

the force of gravity on Saturn is equal to the force of gravity on Neptune

d)

the force of gravity on Venus is equal to the force of gravity on Uranus

36.

Based on the information given about atmospheres, which inference can be drawn? (use prior knowledge!)

a)

presence of an atmosphere determines the presence of life

b)

presence of an atmosphere does not determine the presence of life

c)

the atmosphere of a planet becomes thicker as it is further distance from Earth

d)

the atmosphere of a planet becomes thicker as it is a further distance from the sun

37.

Which orders the orbital period, from least to greatest?

a)

Earth, Mercury, Mars, Uranus

b)

Mercury, Earth, Mars, Uranus

c)

Mars, Mercury, Earth, Uranus

d)

Uranus, Mars, Earth, Mercury

38.

This diagram shows Earth's orbit. At what position is the autumn in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

Position 1

b)

Position 2

c)

Position 3

d)

Position 4

39.

Maria lives in Miami, Florida, where the weather is very warm most of the year. Her grandparents live in Canada where they have very cold winters. Which best explains why the seasons are so different?

a)

parts of Earth closer to the equator do not experience as many seasonal changes

b)

parts of Earth closer to the equator receive indirect rays from the sun all year long

c)

parts of Earth farther away from the equator do not experience many seasonal changes

d)

parts of Earth farther away from the equator receive indirect rays from the sun all year long

40.

The diagram shows the position of the Earth, moon and sun at neap tide. Which areas experience low tides when the sun, Earth, and the moon are arranged in these positions?

a)

A and C

b)

A and D

c)

B and C

d)

B and D

41.

Which correctly describes the impact of a lunar eclipse?

a)

the Earth casts a shadow on the sun

b)

the Earth casts a shadow on the moon

c)

the moon casts a shadow on the sun

d)

the moon casts a shadow on the Earth

42.

Why do moon phases repeat about every 28 days?

a)

the period of rotation of the moon is the as its period of revolution

b)

the moon takes about 28 days to revolve around the Earth

c)

28 days is the period of a complete cycle of tides

d)

cloud-cover patterns on Earth last 28 days