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Performance 1

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to CAP698 Section 2 - SEP1 Page 10 Figure 2.4 Landing.

With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?


Given:


Runway length: 1300'


Runway elevation: MSL


Weather: assume ISA conditions


Mass: 3200 lbs


Obstacle height: 50'

a)

5 KT

b)

No wind

c)

15 KT

d)

10 KT

2.

Refer to CAP698 Section 2 - SEP1 Page 10 Figure 2.4

With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50'


OAT: ISA +15°C


Pressure Altitude: 0'


Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs


Headwind component: 10 KT


Flaps: Landing position (down)


Runway: short and wet grass - firm soil


Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38

a)

A) approximately: 2000'

b)

B) approximately: 1300'

c)

C) approximately: 1450'

d)

D) approximately: 1794'

3.

Use Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2; With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, if the brakes are released before take-off power is achieved, the accelerate/stop distance will be:

a)

shorter than the graphical distance.

b)

the same as the graphical distance because both techniques are accounted.

c)

longer than the graphical distance.

d)

unaffected because all take-off techniques are accounted.

4.

At reference or use or Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 PAGE 5


Given:


OAT: 25°C

Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft

RWY: 24L

Wind: 310°/20kts

Take off Mass: 4400 lbs

Heavy Duty Brakes installed.


Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.


What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given?

a)

3350 ft

b)

3750 ft

c)

4000 ft

d)

4300 ft

5.

Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Take-off Normal Procedure

Given:

OAT +24°C

Pressure Altitude: 3000'

RWY 30R

Wind·060°/4 KT

Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs

Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given?

a)

2000'

b)

1670'

c)

1550'

d)

2150

6.

Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.1 Normal Procedure

Given:

OAT 24 °C

Pressure Altitude 3000'

RWY, 12L

Wind· 080/12 KT

Take-off Mass: 3800 lbs

Runway Surface· Wet Grass - firm soil

Runway Slope: 2% downslope

What is the minimum runway length?

No stopway or clearway are available.

a)

1400 ft

b)

2850 ft

c)

1750 ft

d)

2550 ft

7.

Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.7 Climb Performance - Gear Retracted Maximum Continuous Power

Given:

OAT, - 20 °C

Pressure Altitude: 14 000 ft

Gross Mass 4.000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb?

a)

1250 ft/min

b)

625 ft/min

c)

175 ft/min

d)

375 ft/min

8.

OAT, 10 °C

Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft

Gross Mass 3750 lbs

Mixture: full rich

Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given?

a)

430 ft/min

b)

1770 ft/min

c)

1570 ft/min

d)

1970 ft/min

9.

Refer to CAP698 Section 3 - MEP1 Figure 3.9 Landing Distance Normal Procedure

Given:

Flaps 40

Aerodrome pressure altitude: Sea level

Ambient temperature +15 °C

Landing weight 4000 lbs

Wind· calm

Runway paved and dry

What is the Landing Distance?

a)

2040'

b)

1240'

c)

1400'

d)

2400

10.

The speed VSR is defined as:

a)

safe rotation speed for take-off

b)

design stress speed

c)

as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed

d)

speed for best specific range

11.

What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?

a)

It will increase the take-off distance available

b)

It will decrease the take-off distance

c)

It will decrease the take-off run

d)

It will increase the take-off distance

12.

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

a)

an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

b)

a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

c)

an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

d)

a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

13.

The speed V1 is defined as:

a)

take-off climb speed

b)

speed for best angle of climb

c)

take-off decision speed

d)

engine failure speed

14.

Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off?

a)

Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components

b)

Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components

c)

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components

d)

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components

15.

Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in:

a)

a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb

b)

a longer take-off distance and a better climb

c)

a shorter take-off distance and a better climb

d)

a better climb and an equal take-off distance

16.

The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800 m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0' pressure-altitude.


Using the following corrections:


± 20 m / 1000' field elevation


- 5 m / KT headwind


+ 10 m / KT tail wind


± 15 m / % runway slope


± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature


The take-off distance from an airport at 2000' elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 KT tail wind is:

a)

890 m

b)

870 m

c)

970 m

d)

810 m

17.

Which of the following answers is true?

a)

V1 is higher VLOF

b)

V1 is lower or equal to VR

c)

V1 is lower VMCG

d)

V1 is higher VR

18.

The following parameters affect the take off ground run:


1 decreasing take off mass


2 increasing take off mass


3 increasing density


4 decreasing density


5 increasing flap setting


6 decreasing flap setting


7 increasing pressure altitude


8 decreasing pressure altitude


Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run?

a)

2, 4, 5 and 7

b)

1, 4, 6 and 8

c)

2, 3, 6 and 7

d)

1, 3, 5 and 8

19.

An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than

a)

4000 metres

b)

6000 metres

c)

5000 metres

d)

4500 metres

20.

During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1?

a)

V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases

b)

The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available

c)

It may lead to over-rotation

d)

The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available

21.

The take-off run is:

a)

the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface

b)

the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1

c)

1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1

d)

1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative

22.

How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals?

a)

Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used

b)

Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind

c)

Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered

d)

Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind

23.

The induced drag of an aeroplane:

a)

decreases with increasing gross weight

b)

is independent of the airspeed

c)

decreases with increasing airspeed

d)

increases with increasing airspeed

24.

The point where Drag coefficient / Lift coefficient is a minimum is:

a)

the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve

b)

the lowest point of the drag curve

c)

at stalling speed (VS)

d)

on the 'back side' of the drag curve

25.

Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)

a)

decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

b)

increases the induced drag.

c)

affects neither drag nor power required.

d)

increases the power required.

26.

Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting

a)

improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY

b)

improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX

c)

decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb

d)

decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb

27.

How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine?

a)

Both increase

b)

Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases

c)

Both decrease

d)

Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases

28.

The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be

a)

Larger

b)

Smaller

c)

Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting

d)

Not change

29.

Following a take-off, limited by the 50' screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.


It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5000 m from the 50' point with an obstacle clearance margin of:

a)

90 m

b)

105 m

c)

it will not clear the obstacle

d)

75 m

30.

The rate of climb is approximately equal to:

a)

the still-air gradient multiplied by the TAS.

b)

the angle of climb multiplied by the TAS.

c)

the angle of climb divided by the TAS.

d)

the still-air gradient divided by the TAS.