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SMR - RL - UT7 - Encaminamiento (Conceptos y algoritmos).

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

¿En qué nivel trabajan los routers?

a)

Físico

b)

Red

c)

Enlace

d)

Transporte

2.

¿Cuál es la puerta de enlace de PC2?

a)

10.0.0.2

b)

10.0.0.1

c)

10.0.0.0

d)

No tiene

3.

¿Qué comando ejecutaré para configurar el interfaz FastEthernet0/0 de Router0?

a)

interface FastEthernet0/0

b)

ip address FastEthernet0/0

c)

ip route FastEthernet0/0

d)

config FastEthernet0/0

4.

¿Qué comando ejecutaré para establecer la IP del interfaz FastEthernet0/0 de Router0?

a)

interface FastEthernet0/0 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0

b)

ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0

c)

ip route FastEthernet0/0 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0

d)

config FastEthernet0/0 10.0.0.1

5.

¿Qué comando de enrutamiento estático me permite indicar a Router0 cómo llegar a la red 40.0.0.0?

a)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/3/1

b)

ip route 40.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/3/1

c)

ip route 40.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/3/0

d)

ip route R1 S0/3/0

6.

¿Qué comando de enrutamiento estático me permite indicar a Router0 que todo el tráfico desconocido vaya por S0/3/1?

a)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/3/1

b)

ip route 40.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/3/1

c)

ip route 40.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/3/0

d)

ip route R1 S0/3/0

7.

¿Qué comandos de enrutamiento utilizaré en Router0 para configurar el enrutamiento RIP?

a)

router rip

network 40.0.0.0

network 50.0.0.0

b)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/3/1

c)

router rip

network 10.0.0.0

network 20.0.0.0

network 30.0.0.0

d)

Ninguna es correcta

8.

Which of the following is a link-state routing protocol?

a)

RIP

b)

RIPv2

c)

EIGRP

d)

OSPF

9.

What is the command use to enable ospf as routing protocol?

a)

router ospf 100

b)

routing ospf 1

c)

network ospf 100

d)

network ospf 1

10.

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF router?

a)

4

b)

16

c)

2

d)

Unlimited

11.

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (choose two)

a)

Router(config)#router ospf 1

b)

Router(config)#routing ospf 1

c)

Router(config)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.24 area 0

d)

Router(config)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

12.

What is the router command is use to verify the routing table of ospf?

a)

# show ip routing

b)

# show ip route

c)

# show routing table

d)

# show ip ospf

13.

Which of the router command can also be used to examine the OSPF process ID and router ID?

a)

# show ip route

b)

# show ospf neighbor

c)

# show ip ospf

d)

# show ipv4 ospf

14.
If i am using RIP protocol what is the best bath going from R1 to R4
a)
Start from R2 to R5
b)
Start from R2 to R6
c)
Start from R2 to R3
d)
Start from R2 to R4
15.
RIP is is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) 
a)
True
b)
False 
16.
RIP is mostly used in a large network
a)
True
b)
False
17.
To Configure RIP protocol Starting with ?
a)
R1(config-router)#router RIP
b)
R1#router RIP
c)
R1(config)#router RIP
d)
R1(config)#router RIP 1
18.

Which statement about routing protocols is true?

a)

Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.

b)

OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.

c)

Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.

d)

IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.

19.

Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?

a)

IGRP

b)

RIP

c)

EIGRP

d)

OSPF

20.

Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?

a)

preference of the route source

b)

IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets

c)

how the route was learned

d)

exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets

21.

Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?

a)

administrative distance

b)

next hop

c)

metric

d)

routing protocol code

22.

How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?

a)

It broadcast the packet to each interface on the router

b)

It discards the packet

c)

It broadcasts the packet to each network on the router

d)

It routes the packet to the default route

23.

Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible paths to the destination over different routing protocols?

a)

the path with both the lowest administrative distance and the highest metric

b)

the path with the lowest administrative distance

c)

the path with the lowest metric

d)

the path with both the lowest administrative distance and lowest metric

24.

When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with?

a)

longest bit match (highest subnet mask)

b)

lowest AD

c)

lowest metric

d)

equal load balancing

25.

If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?

a)

It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors

b)

It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router

c)

It disables the routing protocol

d)

It prefers the static route

26.
For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________.
a)
wide area networks
b)
autonomous networks
c)
autonomous systems
d)
None of the choices are correct
27.
In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node.
a)
Path Vector
b)
Distance vector
c)
Linkstate
d)
None of the choices are correct
28.
In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change.
a)
every other node
b)
its immediate neighbors
c)
one neighbor
d)
None of the choices are correct
29.
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing.
a)
Path Vector
b)
Distance vector
c)
Linkstate
d)
None of the choices are correct
30.
Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as ________ routing.
a)
interdomain
b)
intradomain
c)
out-of-domain
d)
None of the choices are correct
31.
Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ______ routing.
a)
interdomain
b)
intradomain
c)
out-of-domain
d)
None of the choices are correct
32.
The metric used by _______ is the hop count.
a)
RIP
b)
OSPF
c)
BGP
d)
None of the choices are correct
33.
RIP uses the services of _______.
a)
TCP
b)
UDP
c)
SCTP
d)
None of the choices are correct
34.
The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.
a)
Path Vector
b)
Distance vector
c)
Linkstate
d)
None of the choices are correct
35.
___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing.
a)
OSPF
b)
RIP
c)
BGP
d)
None of the choices are correct
36.
What is a popular reason for configuring static routing in a modern network?
a)
Remote prefixes in a local area network
b)
Because of the overhead of OSPF
c)
Because static routing has less administrative overhead
d)
Because of the need for a default route
37.
OSPF is an example of what type of dynamic routing protocol?
a)
Distance Vector
b)
Link State
c)
Hybrid
d)
Path Vector
38.
Which two parameters of a static route are acceptable as part of the ip route command to indicate where traffic should be sent?
a)
Next-hop IP address & Outgoing interface
b)
RE ID & Destination MAC address
39.
What command permits the simple verification that a static route is in the routing table?
a)
show static
b)
show ip route
c)
show routing table static
d)
show admin routes
40.
What is an example of a hybrid routing protocol?
a)
RIP
b)
OSPF
c)
EIGRP
d)
BGP
41.
What is the mask length for a host route?
a)
0
b)
64
c)
16
d)
32
42.
"_____" is a routed protocol.
a)
EIGRP
b)
IP
c)
OSPFV2
d)
RIP
43.
What routing protocol is the most popular distance-vector routing algorithm used to determine the best routes within a network?
a)
RIP
b)
OSPF
c)
BGM
d)
IGMP
44.
What routing protocol is the most popular link-state protocol used within a large organization?
a)
RIP
b)
OSPF
c)
BGP
d)
IGMP
45.
Which of the following is a valid TCP/IP address and can be assigned to a host?
a)
0.11.22.33
b)
11.22.33.0
c)
22.33.0.11
d)
1.2.3.0
46.
What is meant by the term “Static Routing”?
a)
Routers talk to each Other
b)
Router build it's routing table
c)
Administrator Manually adding route entry on routing table
d)
Protocol Convergence
47.
What is the metric of Routing Information Protocol (RIP)?
a)
Bandwidth
b)
Delay
c)
Load
d)
Hopcount
48.
What is the official metric of Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol?
a)
Hopcount
b)
Bandwidth
c)
load
d)
Cost
49.
Which of the following is the Cisco proprietary protocol
a)
RIP
b)
BGP
c)
EIGRP
d)
OSPF
50.

What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols?

a)

update and maintain routing tables

b)

discover the network

c)

to choose the path that is specified by the administrator

d)

to avoid exposing network information

e)

to assure low router overhead

51.

Which dynamic routing protocol was developed to interconnect different Internet service providers?

a)

BGP

b)

EIGRP

c)

OSPF

d)

RIP

52.

Which routing protocol is limited to smaller network implementations because it does not accommodate growth for larger networks?

a)

RIP

b)

EIGRP

c)

IS-IS

d)

OSPF

53.

When would it be more beneficial to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of static routing?

a)

in an organization with a smaller network that is not expected to grow in size

b)

on a stub network that has a single exit point

c)

in an organization where routers suffer from performance issues

d)

on a network where there is a lot of topology changes

54.

When would it be more beneficial to use static routing instead of dynamic routing protocols?

a)

on a network where dynamic updates would pose a security risk

b)

on a network that is expected to continually grow in size

c)

on a network that has a large amount of redundant paths

d)

on a network that commonly experiences link failures

55.

What is a purpose of the network command when configuring RIPv2 as the routing protocol?

a)

It identifies the interfaces that belong to a specified network.

b)

It specifies the remote network that can now be reached.

c)

It immediately advertises the specified network to neighbor routers with a classful mask.

d)

It populates the routing table with the network entry.

56.

Which route would be automatically created when a router interface is activated and configured with an IP address?

a)

D 10.16.0.0/24 [90/3256] via 192.168.6.9

b)

C 192.168.0.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/0

c)

S 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet 0/1

d)

O 172.16.0.0/16 [110/65] via 192.168.5.1

57.

Which route would be used to forward a packet with a source IP address of 192.168.10.1 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.1?

a)

C 192.168.10.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1

b)

S 10.1.0.0/16 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0

c)

O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/65] via 192.168.200.2, 00:01:20, Serial0/1/0

d)

S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.1

58.

What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?

a)

They require administrator intervention when the pathway of traffic changes.

b)

They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.

c)

Their configuration complexity increases as the size of the network grows.

d)

They are only suitable for simple topologies.

59.

Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols?

a)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates

b)

is supported by RIP version 1

c)

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

d)

reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

e)

sends complete routing table update to all neighbors

60.

Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol?

a)

RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor.

b)

The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.

c)

RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.

d)

RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.

e)

The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120.

61.

While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode.

What is the result of entering this command?

a)

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending version 1 and version 2 updates.

b)

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is receiving version 1 and version 2 updates.

c)

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.

d)

The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending RIP hello messages.

62.

Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?

a)

GigabitEthernet0/0

b)

GigabitEthernet0/1

c)

Serial0/0/1

d)

Serial0/0/0

63.

A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?

a)

a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol

b)

a network directly connected to a router interface

c)

a route used as the default gateway

d)

a static route

64.

Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?

a)

S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0

b)

S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1

c)

S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9

d)

S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2

65.

A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?

a)

a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via RIP

b)

a 192.168.14.0/25 route that is learned via OSPF

c)

a 192.168.14.0/24 route that is learned via EIGRP

d)

a 192.168.14.0/26 route that is learned via RIP

66.

The three components of dynamic routing protocols include:

a)

Data structures

b)

Routing protocol messages

c)

Topologies

d)

Algorithm

e)

CPU resources

67.

A set of processes, algorithms, and messages used to exchange information and choose the best paths.

a)

routing protocol

b)

internet protocol

c)

address resolution protocol

d)

dynamic host configuration protocol

68.

Which data structure is held in RAM by the RIP routing protocol?

a)

routing table

b)

arp table

c)

mac address table

d)

neighbor table

69.

Which of these commands enables RIP for a network?

a)

network

b)

router rip

c)

passive-interface

d)

default-information originate

70.

Which commands are used to verify the dynamic routing is working properly?

a)

show ip protocols

b)

show ip route

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show cdp neighbors

e)

show version

71.

RIP stand for ?

a)

Routing information protocol

b)

Routing information professional

c)

Rest in peace

d)

Routing interior protocol

72.

RIP metric is

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Cost

c)

Hop count

d)

hello packet

73.

RIP Administrative Distance value

a)

120

b)

100

c)

90

d)

110

74.

what ls the layer use in RIP ?

a)

layer 3

b)

layer 2

c)

layer 4

d)

layer 5

e)

layer 1

75.

Un administrador de red está examinando una tabla de routing RIPv2 y advierte que varias subredes se están anunciando en entradas individuales. ¿Qué puede hacer un administrador para permitir que un router RIPv2 agrupe automáticamente varias subredes conectadas directamente en una única instrucción de red?

a)

Usar el comando passive-interface

b)

Usar el comando auto-summary

c)

Usar el comando default-information originate

d)

Usar el comando version 2

e)

usar el comando network

76.

Cuál es el comando para configurar una interfaz de un router, que no contiene ningún router conectado, de modo que no envíe información de routing por ella.

a)

Usar el comando passive-interface

b)

Usar el comando auto-summary

c)

Usar el comando default-information originate

d)

Usar el comando version 2

e)

usar el comando network

77.

Cuál es el comando de configuración de un router para el anuncio de redes usando el protocolo RIPv2.

a)

Usar el comando passive-interface

b)

Usar el comando auto-summary

c)

Usar el comando default-information originate

d)

Usar el comando version 2

e)

usar el comando network

78.

Cuál es el comando de configuración para anunciar una ruta predeterminada de un router, a otros routers de la red que usan RIPv2.

a)

Usar el comando passive-interface

b)

Usar el comando auto-summary

c)

Usar el comando default-information originate

d)

Usar el comando version 2

e)

usar el comando network

79.

¿Qué dos códigos de origen de ruta se crean automáticamente dentro de una tabla de routing cuando una interfaz de router esté configurada con una dirección IP y se activa? (Elija dos opciones.)

a)

C

b)

O

c)

L

d)

R

e)

D

80.

¿Qué tipo de ruta tiene una dirección de red con una máscara de subred que es menor que su equivalente con clase?

a)

Una ruta de red

b)

Una ruta predeterminada

c)

Una ruta de superred

d)

Una ruta secundaria

81.

Un administrador de red analizó la tabla de routing de un router y observó que la entrada para la red de destino 172.16.4.0/24 comienza con la letra D. ¿Qué indica esta letra?

a)

La ruta a la red 172.16.4.0/24 está conectada directamente.

b)

El origen de la ruta se obtuvo de forma dinámica.

c)

Esa es la ruta directa para los paquetes que se dirigen a esa red.

d)

La ruta a esta red se configura de forma estática en el router.

82.

De acuerdo a la expresión dada y partiendo de una entrada de la tabla de routing, seleccione la respuesta correcta: "identifica el valor asignado para comunicarse con la red remota"

a)

Red de Destino

b)

Distancia Administrativa

c)

Métrica

d)

Origen de la Ruta

83.

De acuerdo a la expresión dada y partiendo de una entrada de la tabla de routing, seleccione la respuesta correcta: "identifica la confiabilidad de un origen de ruta"

a)

Red de Destino

b)

Distancia Administrativa

c)

Métrica

d)

Origen de la Ruta

84.

¿Cuáles de las siguientes son dos funciones de protocolos de routing dinámico? (Elija dos).

a)

Mantener las tablas de routing.

b)

Garantizar baja sobrecarga del router.

c)

Evitar exponer la información de red.

d)

Detectar la red.

e)

Elegir la ruta especificada por el administrador.

85.

Consulte la exhibición. Todos los hosts y las interfaces del router están configurados correctamente. Los pings al servidor desde H1 y H2, y los pings entre H1 y H2 no son exitosos. ¿Cuál es la causa de este problema?

a)

RIPv2 no admite la VLSM.

b)

RIPv2 está mal configurado en el router R1.

c)

RIPv2 está mal configurado en el router R2.

d)

RIPv2 está mal configurado en el router R3.

e)

RIPv2 no admite redes no contiguas.

86.

Consulte la exhibición. ¿Cuál es la métrica para reenviar un paquete de datos con la dirección de destino IPv6 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

a)

90

b)

3193856

c)

2170112

d)

2681856

e)

2682112

87.

Qué ruta se usa para reenviar un paquete con una dirección IPv6 de origen 2001:DB8:F00D:1::1 y una dirección IPv6 de destino 2001:DB8:CAFE:2::1?

a)

D 2001:DB8:CAFE::/48 [110/2] via FE80::201:64FF:FEAB:8501, GigabitEthernet0/1

b)

S 2001:DB8:CAFE::/48 [1/0] via 2001:DB8:F00D:3::3

c)

R 2001:DB8:CAFE:2::/64 [120/3] via FE80::201:84FF:FEAC:8501, GigabitEthernet0/0

d)

S ::/0 [1/0] via 2001:DB8:F00D::A

88.

Cuando se configura el protocolo RIPv2 para anunciar una red, es necesario ingresar la máscara de subred ?

a)

SI

b)

No

89.

Cuál es el comando que muestra los detalles de configuración del protocolo de routing IPv4 configurados actualmente en un router?

a)

show ip protocols

b)

show ip route

c)

show version

d)

show runnin-config

90.

Cuál es el comando utilizado para mostrar las rutas RIP instaladas en la tabla de routing de un router?

a)

show ip protocols

b)

show ip route

c)

show version

d)

show runnin-config

91.

¿Cuál es al métrica que utiliza el protocolo RIPv2 para determinar la ruta más corta?

a)

Saltos de router

b)

Ancho de Banda

c)

Retardo

d)

Saltos de Router y saltos de Switches

92.

Este protocolo soporta enrutamiento con subredes de máscara de longitud variables o VLSM?

a)

RIPv2

b)

RIPv1

c)

Ambas versiones

d)

ninguna la soporta