NEW
Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsP612 final
Total questions: 51
Worksheet time: 34mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is NOT a sign of hyperglycemia?
a)
Polyuria
b)
Polyphagia
c)
Polypraxia
d)
Polydipsia
2.
Patients TR is a 57-year-old male with a HbA1c of 6.3%. What is the best first line treatment for him at this time?
a)
Metformin 1000mg PO BID
b)
Moderate intensity exercise with a goal of 150 minutes per week; no medication at this time
c)
Glipizide 5mg PO BID
d)
TR will require insulin
3.
Patient JM was recently started on metformin 500 mg PO BID and is not complaining of GI upset and diarrhea. Which of the following is an appropriate next step?
a)
Change to metformin ER
b)
Suggest JM take metformin with meals
c)
Make no changes to the medication, these new symptoms are likely not associated with metformin
d)
Suggest JM take Pepto-Bismol to manage these symptoms
e)
Both 1 and 2 appropriate
4.
Patient LK is a 59-year-old female currently taking metformin 1000 mg PO BID. Her recent lab results show HbA1c 7.8% and eGFR of 39. Which of the following should be done next?
a)
Stop metformin
b)
Decrease metformin to 500 mg PO BID
c)
Change to metformin ER
d)
Calculate CrCl, metformin dosing is based on CrCl not eGFR
5.
The UKPDS demonstrated which of the following points?
a)
Microvascular complications were reduced
b)
No glycemic threshold exists for microvascular disease
c)
Intense glycemic control showed minimal effect on macrovascular risk within the study period.
d)
Metformin decreases macrovascular vascular effects in obese patients
e)
All of the above
6.
Which of the following antidiabetic agents is contraindicated in heart failure?
a)
Pioglitazone
b)
Glimepiride
c)
Canagaflozin
d)
Sitagliptin
e)
All of the above
7.
Which of the following is NOT true about empagaflozin?
a)
Increase risk of yeast infection
b)
Causes weight loss
c)
Has been shown to decrease CV death
d)
Hass been shown to worsen CKD
8.
What is the mechanism of linagliptin?
a)
Binds SUR to enhance insulin secretion
b)
Decreases reabsorption of glucose in proximal renal tubule to decrease plasma glucose
c)
Prolongs the half-life of GLP1 leading to decrease in glucagon and improves insulin response
d)
Binds PPAR-γ to enhance insulin sensitivity
9.
Which GLP-1 agonists are given once WEEKLY?
a)
Exenatide (Byetta)
b)
Liraglutide (Victoza)
c)
Dulaglutide (Trulicity)
d)
Semaglutide (Ozempic)
e)
Truclicity AND Ozempic
10.
What is the longest acting insulin?
a)
Glargine
b)
Lispro
c)
Degludec
d)
Aspart
11.
Patient HT is an 85kg male with DM2. He will be initiating basal insulin to control his blood sugar. What insulin regimen should be started for him at this time?
a)
Insulin aspart 4 units TID with meals
b)
Insulin glargine 4 units TID with meals
c)
Insulin glargine 10 units QHS
d)
Insulin glargine 42 units QHS
12.
Patient HT recently started insulin and today feels dizzy, weak, and sweaty. He checks his blood sugar and its 64. What should he do now?
a)
Take 3 glucose tablets
b)
Drink 4 oz. of Diet Coke
c)
Go to the ED immediately
d)
Inject glucagon
13.
Which of the following are NOT preconception risk factors for adverse pregnancy outcomes
a)
Lithium
b)
Isotretinoin
c)
Methotrexate
d)
Lisinopril
e)
Bactrim
14.
Patient JC is 29 weeks pregnant and her doctor wants to start a medication to control her blood sugar. What do you sugges?
a)
No antidiabetic medications can be used safely during pregnacny
b)
Metformin
c)
Pioglitazone
d)
Glipizide
15.
Patient ST is 25 weeks pregnant and her BP is 162/94 today in clinic. What do you suggest?
a)
Initiate nifedipine
b)
Initiate HCTZ
c)
Initiate lisinopril
d)
Initiate amlodipine
16.
Patient ST has been diagnosed with preeclampsia. What medication should be started to prevent eclampsia?
a)
Magnesium sulfate
b)
Enoxaparin
c)
Aspirin
d)
Start nothing at this time
17.
Which of the following is NOT a side effect associate with lamotrigene?
a)
Diplopia
b)
Rash/SJS
c)
Headache
d)
Kidney stones
18.
Which of the following antiepileptic agents do NOT require drug level monitoring?
a)
Carbamazepine
b)
Phenytoin
c)
Gabapentin
d)
Levetiracetam
e)
Neither gabapentin nor levetiracetam require drug level monitoring
19.
Which of the following antiepileptic agents has highly saturable binding to albumin?
a)
Valproic acid
b)
Phenobarbital
c)
Topiramate
d)
Gabapentin
20.
Why is diazepam not recommended for treatment of status epilepticus
a)
Too lipophilic
b)
Redistributes quickly
c)
Increased risk of having another seizure
d)
All of the above
21.
A patient is experiencing "end-of-dose wearing off" on Sinemet. What do you suggest?
a)
Give on an empty stomach
b)
Change to ER formulation
c)
Add amantadine
d)
Add Ropinirole
22.
Anemia is defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) as Hgb < _____ g/dL in men and < _______g/dL in women.
a)
8; 9
b)
Less 11.5 in both men and women
c)
Less than 12 in both men and women
d)
13; 12
23.
Which oral iron has the highest percentage of elemental iron?
a)
Ferrous gluconate
b)
Ferrous sulfate
c)
Ferrous fumarate
d)
All contain equal % of elemental iron
24.
Which of the following is NOT a DDI with oral iron?
a)
Omeprazole
b)
Levofloxacin
c)
Tetracycline
d)
Amoxicillin
25.
Patient EP is on darbepoetin. Her HGB went from 8 to 9 in the past 10 days. What do you suggest?
a)
Keep dose the same
b)
Reduce dose by 25%
c)
Reduce dose by 40%
d)
Increase dose by 25%
26.
Which of the following is NOT true about the induction of CYPs?
a)
It increases the amount of protein
b)
onset is days to weeks
c)
onset is immediate
d)
can remain weeks after the drug is removed
27.
Which of the following is correctly matched to it's CYP interactions?
a)
Paroxetine and CYP3A4
b)
Omeprazole and CYP2C19
c)
Carbamazepine and CYP2C9 and CYP3A4
d)
Ritonavir and CYP2C19
e)
Phenytoin and CYP2d6
28.
How many half lives is considered steady state?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
5
29.
Why would you TDM methotrexate?
a)
to make sure they are at high enough anti-cancer levels
b)
to dose the antidote
c)
to monitor for toxicities
d)
monitor clearance
30.
If a patient is undergoing opioid detox, which agent should NOT be used?
a)
methadone
b)
buprenorphine
c)
Clonidine
d)
naltrexone
31.
Which of the following drugs of abuse is a C1?
a)
cannabis
b)
methamphetamine
c)
cocaine
d)
nicotine
32.
Bupropion cannot be used with which two patient groups?
a)
Heart failure and arrhythmias
b)
kidney or liver failure
c)
seizure disorder or current/history of an eating disorder
d)
history of mental illness or schizophrenia
33.
Which medication is vital to ensure a patient receives when undergoing alcohol withdrawal?
a)
thiamine
b)
B12
c)
potassium
d)
glucose
34.
Nicotine induces which CYP enzyme?
a)
2D6
b)
3A4
c)
2C19
d)
1A2
35.
Which 2 medications require special licensing for addiction treatment prescribing?
a)
Clonidine and Buprenorphine
b)
Methadone and Naltrexone
c)
Buprenoprhine and Naltrexone
d)
Methadone and Buprenorphine
36.
Which two dementia agents do not need to be dose adjusted for RENAL function?
a)
Donepezil and Galantamine
b)
Donepezil and Rivastigmine
c)
Memantine and Galantamine
d)
Rivastigmine and Memantine
37.
What is an appropriate decrease in MMSE score per year while receiving treatment for dementia?
a)
5-6 points
b)
3-4 points
c)
1-2 points
d)
6-7 points
38.
Which is NOT a contraindication for a triptan?
a)
pregnancy
b)
severe migraines
c)
uncontrolled HTN
d)
hemiplegic and basilar migraines
39.
TB has a history of seizures and is having severe migraines 6 days a month, causing her to call into her work constantly, which therapy would be best for her?
a)
Metoprolol
b)
venlafaxine
c)
amitriptyline
d)
divalproex
40.
What medication MUST you ensure a patient is not taking before prescribing/dispensing a PDE-5 inhibitor?
a)
nitrates
b)
beta blockers
c)
ACE-inhibitors
d)
diuretics
41.
Which of these medications does NOT contribute to ED?
a)
digoxin
b)
ketoconazole
c)
SSRIs
d)
ACE-I
42.
Which of these alpha-1 inhibitors are not uroselective?
a)
alfuzosin
b)
prazosin
c)
sildosin
d)
tamsulosin
43.
Which is NOT a downside to using a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor?
a)
it can take up to 6 months to work
b)
gynecomastia
c)
teratogenicity
d)
othostatic hypotension
e)
muscle weakness
44.
Which age group of patients has the highest Vd for water soluble drugs?
a)
children
b)
infants
c)
fullterm neonates
d)
premies
45.
If a patient is 1600 grams, what is their birthweight?
a)
extremely-low birthweight
b)
very-low birthweight
c)
low-birthweight
d)
full term
46.
How many mLs of maintenance fluid does a 15kg patient need?
a)
1100mL
b)
1250mL
c)
1600mL
d)
1500mL
47.
Which stage in life is BSA highest?
a)
Neonates
b)
infants
c)
children
d)
adolescents
48.
Which of the following medications is NOT on the BEERS list?
a)
benzodiazepines
b)
NSAIDs
c)
APAP
d)
digoxin
49.
If a patient has gout and hypertension, which agent should be avoided?
a)
ACE-I
b)
ARBs
c)
hydrochlorothiazide
d)
Beta blockers
50.
Which antidiabetes medication should be avoided in the elderly?
a)
glimepiride
b)
glyburide
c)
metformin
d)
GLP-1s
51.
If a patient has a history of COPD and was recently diagnosed with glaucoma, which agent would be best?
a)
beta-blockers (ophthalmic)
b)
Latanoprost
c)
Brinzolamide
d)
Pilocarpine
Reset
