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WorksheetsMost Needed Units AP (Units 3,7,8,11)
Total questions: 140
Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
controls heartbeat and breathing,
a)
reticular formation
b)
medulla
2.
helps with controlling arousal.
a)
reticular formation
b)
brain stem
3.
influences aggression and fear
a)
pituitary gland
b)
amygdala
4.
processes memory
a)
hypothalamus
b)
hippocampus
5.
master gland
a)
pituitary gland
b)
cerebellum
6.
balance
a)
cerebral cortex
b)
cerebellum
7.
executive command center
a)
temporal lobe
b)
frontal lobe
8.
receives information from sensory, touch and body position
a)
temporal lobe
b)
parietal lobe
9.
higher mental functions, such as critical thinking, remembering and speaking
a)
pons
b)
association areas
10.
Split brain operations are done to
a)
shrink tumors
b)
increase memory
c)
help speech disorders
d)
help stop seizures
11.
A blind person may have experienced damage to her:
a)
visual cortex
b)
prefrontal area
c)
Broca's area
d)
auditory association area
12.
Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?
a)
dopamine
b)
norepinephrine
c)
acetycholine
d)
interneuron
13.
The four regions of the cerebral cortex are referred to as:
a)
lesions
b)
lobes
c)
pons
d)
corpus callosum
14.
Neurons that send signals from the brain to glands and muscles
a)
efferent
b)
afferent
c)
inter
d)
neurotransmitters
15.
The EEG monitors
a)
injuries in the brain
b)
functioning of the hypothalamus
c)
electrical activity of the endocrine system
d)
electrical activity in the brain
16.
If a head injury results in someone no longer being able to hear, which part of the brain may have been damaged?
a)
temporal lobe
b)
occipital lobe
c)
parietal lobe
d)
frontal lobe
17.
Speech that is jumbled and not understandable is a sign of:
a)
Wernicke's Aphasia
b)
a split brain operation
c)
Broca's aphasia
d)
sensory aphasia
18.
Name the lobe that appears pink in this image.
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
19.
When you go to reach for a pencil and you miss the mark, you may have an impaired...
a)
Parietal Lobe
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Frontal Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
20.
Name the lobe that appears yellow in this image.
a)
Frontal
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Occipital
21.
What is the main control center of the body that contains the brain and spinal cord?
a)
Peripheral nervous system
b)
Central nervous system
c)
Autonomic nervous system
d)
Somatic nervous system
22.
What is this?
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Diencephalon
23.
Controls hearing, and language comprehension
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
24.
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
25.
If you raise your hand, which is a voluntary action, which subsystem would most closely control this behavior?
a)
Somatic NS
b)
Autonomic NS
c)
Peripheral NS
d)
Sympathetic NS
26.
If you sneeze, which is an involuntary action, which subsystem would most closely control this behavior?
a)
Somatic NS
b)
Autonomic NS
c)
Peripheral NS
d)
Sympathetic NS
27.
Which of these subsystems controls our "fight or flight" response, when we get scared or angry?
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Somatic
d)
Peripheral
28.
After a stressful or scary situation, your body starts to calm back down. What subsystem controls this shift back to regular functioning?
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Somatic
d)
Peripheral
29.
The nineteenth-century theory that bumps on the skull reveal a person's abilities and traits is called
a)
evolutionary psychology.
b)
behavior genetics.
c)
phrenology.
d)
eugenics.
30.
Some opiate drugs have molecular structures so similar to endorphins that they mimic endorphin's euphoric effects in the brain, making these opiate drugs which kind of molecule?
a)
endocrines
b)
endorphins
c)
antagonists
d)
agonists
31.
What is the chemical used by a neuron to transmit an impulse across a synapse to another nerve cell?
a)
Neurotransmitters
b)
Synapse
c)
Threshold
d)
Impulse
32.
The neurotransmitter that signals muscle contraction is called...
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Myosin
c)
Actin
d)
Calcium
33.
Which neurotransmitter is responsible for mood and well-being (low levels linked to depression)?
a)
serotonin
b)
dopamine
c)
Gamma Aminobutyric Acid (GABA)
d)
glutamate
34.
Which neurotransmitter is inhibitory at the synapse (low levels linked to anxiety)?
a)
serotonin
b)
dopamine
c)
Gamma Aminobutyric Acid (GABA)
d)
glutamate
35.
Which of these is the fight or flight neurotransmitter that also helps us to assess danger?
a)
epinephrine
b)
norepinepherine
c)
acetylcholine (ACh)
d)
glutamate
36.
Too much dopamine is linked with
a)
Alzheimers
b)
Schizophrenia
c)
Parkinsons
d)
Depression
37.
The depletion of Acetylcholine is associated with:
a)
Schizophrenia
b)
Huntington's
c)
Depression
d)
Alzheimer's
38.
Reuptake is best defined as...
a)
release of hormones into the bloodstream.
b)
movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap.
c)
reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron.
d)
inflow of positively charged ions through an axon membrane.
39.
Which neurotransmitter is mostly responsible for alertness and arousal?
a)
Norepinephrine
b)
Serotonin
c)
Dopamine
d)
GABA
40.
A chemical that blocks a neurotransmitter from being absorbed, thus blocking its effects is a(n):
a)
Agonist
b)
Antagonist
c)
Endorphin
d)
L-Dopa
41.
Deep reading helps create strong neural networks. These neural networks depend on this neurotransmitter to improve memory and create new contacts.
a)
Dopamine
b)
Glutamate
c)
Gaba
d)
ACH
42.
What functions does this lobe carry out?
a)
Hearing and auditory processing
b)
Vision and visual processing
c)
Processing fear
d)
Judgment, impulse control, planning, problem solving, and other executive functions
43.
What is the part of the brain that receives information/impulses from other neurons
a)
Dendrites
b)
Axon Buttons
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Cell body
44.
The part of the neuron that receives messages from other neurons
a)
axon
b)
dendrite
c)
cell body
d)
Schwann cell
45.
What is the soma?
a)
Neuron's core. Contains necessary cell information. If it dies, it can come back.
b)
Neuron's life support. Contains necessary cell action. If it dies, it all does.
c)
Neuron's weakness. Contains necessary cell action. If it dies, it's a good thing.
46.
It's the myelin sheath's job:
a)
Speeds up the transmission of messages without actually protecting the axon.
b)
Degrading the signals being sent through the neurons. Protective layer.
c)
Protective layer. Speeds up the transmission of information and messages.
47.
Natural, opiate like neurotransmitter linked to pain control and pleasure:
a)
Dopamine
b)
Serotonin
c)
Endorphin
d)
Morphine
48.
The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another. It is where communication occurs between an axon and dendrite
a)
synapse
b)
axon terminal
c)
impulse
d)
myelin
49.
These carry signals from tissues and organs to the brain and spinal cord
a)
Sensory Neurons
b)
Motor Neurons
c)
Efferent Neurons
d)
Glial Cells
50.
Which ions are involved in an action potential?
a)
Na; Cl
b)
Na; K
c)
K; Cl
d)
Na; Ca
51.
When a neuron is resting, the inside of the axon has a ____________ charge.
a)
positive
b)
negative
52.
Describes the fact that a neuron fires at the same intensity despite the intensity of the stimulus.
a)
Threshold
b)
Repolarization
c)
All or None Principle
d)
Action Potential
53.
When a neuron is not engaged in an impulse.
a)
Resting potential
b)
Action potential
c)
Neural potential
d)
Synaptic potential
54.
The sodium-potassium pump creates
a)
magnetic energy
b)
electrical energy
c)
light energy
d)
sound energy
55.
Neurotransmitters are released from the
a)
Dendrites
b)
Post-synaptic neuron
c)
Presynaptic neuron
d)
Axon
56.
Heroin mimics the effects of this neurotransmitter.
a)
Dopamine
b)
Serotonin
c)
Endorphin
d)
Norepinephrine
57.
The reward center of the brain is most closely associated with this neurotransmitter's pathways.
a)
Dopamine
b)
Serotonin
c)
GABA
d)
Ach
58.
The space between a presynaptic and post synaptic neuron
a)
Nodes of Ranvier
b)
Axon Hillock
c)
synaptic cleft
d)
terninal bouton
59.
Which type of brain scan is useful for looking at the structure of the brain?
a)
CAT
b)
PET
c)
fmRI
d)
EEG
60.
Which brain scan involves injecting a form of radioactive glucose into the body?
a)
CAT
b)
MRI
c)
PET
d)
EEG
61.
Which brain scan uses radio waves to measure blood oxygen levels in the brain (most active areas have the highest levels).
a)
PET
b)
fMRi
c)
MRI
d)
CAT
62.
Danger to which of the following puts a person's life in the most danger because it may cause breathing to stop?
a)
amygdala
b)
thalamus
c)
medulla
d)
hippocampus
e)
hypothalamus
63.
A gymnast falls and hits her head on the floor. She attempts to continue practicing but has trouble maintaining balance. What part of her brain has probably been affected?
a)
reticular formation
b)
cerebellum
c)
amygdala
d)
thalamus
e)
medulla
64.
Which of the following is sometimes referred to as the brains sensory switchboard, because it directs incoming sensory messages (with the exception of smell) to their proper places in the brain?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
pituitary
c)
cerebellum
d)
limbic system
e)
thalamus
65.
Which of the following brain areas is responsible for regulating hunger and thirst?
a)
reticular activating system
b)
amygdala
c)
hypothalamus
d)
brainstem
e)
hippocampus
66.
A researcher interested in determining the size of a particular area o the brain would be most likely to use which of the following techniques?
a)
lesion
b)
EEG
c)
MRI
d)
fMRI
e)
PET scan
67.
The _____ is a structure in the brain stem that connects the top of the brain to the bottom and plays a role in sleep, dreaming, and arousal.
a)
reticular formation
b)
pons
c)
medulla
d)
cerebellum
e)
hippocampus
68.
On a fishing trip, Ed realizes that he has mistakenly packed the sewing box instead of the tackle box. He wants to fish but returns home because he does not have any lines or hooks. Ed’s failure to realize that sewing thread can be used as fishing line and that a bent needle can be used as a hook is an example of
a)
Cognitive accommodation
b)
Backward masking
c)
Functional fixedness
d)
Proactive interference
69.
The intelligence quotient (IQ) has traditionally been based on the relationship between an individual’s mental age and his or her
a)
Stage of cognitive development
b)
Reading ability
c)
Chronological age
d)
Quantitative aptitude
70.
A prototype is best defined as
a)
An example of habituation
b)
An example of bottom-up processing
c)
The hypothetical “most typical” instance of a category
d)
An essential element of category membership
71.
A teacher asks students to think of as many uses for a brick as possible. By listing 50 uses, most of which the class finds new and unusual, Susan is displaying
a)
Computational learning
b)
Paired-associate learning
c)
Hypothetical thinking
d)
Divergent thinking
72.
The hypothesis that intelligence is in part inherited is best supported by the fact that the IQ correlation for
a)
Pairs of twins reared together is greater than the correlation for pairs of twins reared apart
b)
Pairs of identical twins is greater than for pairs of fraternal twins
c)
Pairs of fraternal twins is greater than the correlation for other pairs of siblings
d)
Adopted children and their adoptive parents is greater than the correlation for the same children and their biological parents
73.
Which of the following types of tests is designed to measure an individual’s knowledge of a subject?
a)
Achievement
b)
Attitude
c)
Aptitude
d)
Projective
74.
A word or part of a word that is in itself meaningful, but that cannot be broken into smaller meaningful units, is called
a)
Grapheme
b)
Morpheme
c)
Phoneme
d)
Holophrase
75.
The rules of grammar are rules of
a)
Phonemes
b)
Morphemes
c)
Syntax
d)
Semantics
76.
According to the Stanford-Binet formula for an intelligence quotient (IQ), the IQ of a ten-year-old child with mental age of eight and a half years old
a)
85
b)
95
c)
105
d)
115
77.
A student who obtained a percentile rank of 75 on an achievement test is best characterized as having
a)
Ranked 75th from the top in a group of 100 test takers
b)
Answered 75% of the test questions correctly
c)
Scored higher than 75% of the test takers
d)
Scored 75% higher than the average test taker
78.
Metacognition refers to
a)
Amnesia
b)
Mental retardation
c)
Artificial intelligence
d)
Thinking about thinking
79.
Noam Chomsky’s view of language proposed that
a)
There is an inherent language acquisition device
b)
Thinking is merely subvocal language
c)
Different levels of language ability are hereditarily determined
d)
Language acquisition can be explained by social modeling
80.
A normally functioning 65-year-old who cannot solve abstract logic puzzles are as quickly as he did when he was younger is experiencing a
a)
Phenomenon that is uncommon for people his age
b)
Phenomenon predicted by Erik Erikson as part of the eight stages of psychosocial development
c)
Decrease in his crystallized intelligence
d)
Decrease in his fluid intelligence
81.
Benjamin Whorf hypothesis that our vocabulary determines how we perceive the world around us:
a)
verbal relativity
b)
linguistic relativity
c)
semantic relativity
d)
grammatical relativity
82.
Semantics
a)
the system of rules for putting words in order
b)
the smallest units of sound that carry meaning
c)
the smallest units of sound that make up language
d)
the system of using words to create meaning
83.
When my baby makes vowel sounds it will be at what stage of language development:
a)
Babbling
b)
Cooing
c)
Linguistic
d)
Telegraphic
84.
I gave each of you a totally different intelligence test in a totally different manner. You should complain that the test is not:
a)
Valid
b)
Reliable
c)
Standardized
d)
Normal
85.
For the intelligence quiz I considered having you do pushups, however this would not be a ____________ measure of your knowledge of intelligence.
a)
Valid
b)
Reliable
c)
Standardized
d)
Normal
86.
Which of the following best exemplifies crystallized intelligence:
a)
The ability to remember
b)
Knowledge gained from education
c)
Your potential to win a Nobel prize
d)
You were born with a brain
87.
_______________is responsible for the multiple intelligences theory (8 Intelligences).
a)
Robert Sternberg
b)
Stanford-Binet
c)
Matthew Tirey
d)
Howard Gardner
88.
_______________is responsible for IQ.
a)
M.L. Snyder
b)
Howard Gardner
c)
Robert Sternberg
d)
Stanford-Binet
89.
Triarchic theory of intelligence is best associated with which theorist:
a)
Howard Gardner
b)
Robert Sternberg
c)
Stanford-Binet
d)
David Welshler
90.
_______________is responsible for the test that independently measures both verbal and performance abilities.
a)
David Wechsler
b)
Robert Sternberg
c)
Stanford-Binet
d)
Howard Gardner
91.
IQ is designed to measure:
a)
Practical intelligence
b)
Spatial intelligence
c)
Heinousness intelligence
d)
General intelligence
92.
G in intelligence stands for:
a)
Genious
b)
General
c)
Ginormous
d)
Grande
93.
Which of the following would be best associated with ‘Multiple ability’ intelligence testing:
a)
Intelligence Quotient
b)
Whitaker Standard
c)
Gardner’s Theory
d)
Emotional Intelligence
94.
What IQ is generally considered average?
a)
150
b)
125
c)
100
d)
70
95.
According to the serial position effect, you will remember more:
a)
items at the beginning and end of a list, than in the middle.
b)
nitems in the middle of a list, than at the beginning and end.
c)
vocabulary words if you process them visually.
d)
nvocabulary words if you process them acoustically.
96.
Which of the following processes is likely to result in the best memory for words?
a)
visual encoding
b)
acoustic encoding
c)
rote memorization
d)
semantic encoding
97.
Memories of emotional events are especially likely to be facilitated by activation of the:
a)
amygdala.
b)
hypothalamus.
c)
sensory cortex.
d)
motor cortex.
98.
Which of the following is most likely to be stored as an implicit memory?
a)
a mental image of one's best friend.
b)
the date of one's own birth.
c)
a conditioned fear of guns
d)
none's own name.
99.
After suffering a brain injury in a motorcycle accident, Adam cannot form new memories. He can, however, remember his life experiences before the accident. Adam's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates:
a)
repression.
b)
retroactive interference.
c)
encoding failure.
d)
source amnesia.
100.
You are used to driving a car with a standard shift. Today you are driving a friend’s car that has an automatic transmission. As you drive, you keep trying to shift gears, but there is no shift. This tendency is most likely due to:
a)
nretroactive interference.
b)
proactive interference.
c)
motivated forgetting.
d)
encoding failure.
101.
We have all had the experience of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. We are asked to remember someone’s name. We are certain that we know the name and feel as if we are just about to remember it, yet it remains elusive. What type of forgetting might be at work here?
a)
encoding failure
b)
retroactive interference
c)
retrieval failure
d)
motivated forgetting
102.
As a child, Theo often looked at a picture album that included photos of a family reunion. Although Theo had not attended the reunion because he had been ill, he remembers being there. Theo’s mistake best illustrates the “sin” of:
a)
suggestibility.
b)
persistence.
c)
misattribution.
d)
transience.
103.
The reason most North Americans cannot accurately describe the head of a penny is due to:
a)
storage decay.
b)
retrieval failure.
c)
encoding failure.
d)
motivated forgetting.
104.
Richard Atkinson and Richard Shiffrin’s classic three-stage model of memory includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
short-term memory
b)
long-term memory
c)
flashbulb memory
d)
sensory memory
105.
A defense attorney emphasizes to a jury that her client works full-time, supports his family, and enjoys leisure-time hobbies. Although none of this information is relevant to the trial, it is designed to make the defendant appear to be a typical member of the local community. The lawyer is most clearly attempting to take advantage
a)
confirmation bias.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
belief perseverance.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
106.
Advertisers know that a thirty-three percent discount sounds like a better deal than a discount of one third. This best illustrates:
a)
framing.
b)
belief bias.
c)
representativeness heuristics.
d)
confirmation bias.
107.
Maintaining one's conceptions even after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited is known as:
a)
the representativeness heuristic.
b)
belief perseverance.
c)
confirmation bias.
d)
functional fixedness.
108.
A typical one-year-old child:
a)
uses telegraphic speech.
b)
imitates two-word phases.
c)
is in the cooing stage.
d)
has lost the ability to discriminate phoneme sounds outside her native language.
109.
Noam Chomsky’s theory of language acquisition holds that people have an inborn universal grammar that makes learning of language easy for children. Which of the following statements is used as support for this theory?
a)
Children repeat words that they hear frequently.
b)
Regardless of the language learned, children tend to make similar errors of grammar when they first begin to learn language.
c)
Chimpanzees and other apes can easily learn language.
d)
Some children’s vocabularies are extensive, despite the fact that they may live in poor environments
110.
To find Tabasco sauce in a large grocery store, you could systematically search every shelf in every store aisle. This best illustrates problem solving by means of:
a)
the availability heuristic.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
an algorithm.
d)
the representativeness heuristic.
111.
Memory in which people recall events in great detail is called
a)
Generic Memory
b)
Procedural Memory
c)
Iconic Memory
d)
Flashbulb Memory
112.
What is it called when new information impairsthe retention of previously learned information?
a)
Retention
b)
Retroactive Interference
c)
Proactiveinterference
d)
Retrieval Failure
113.
Which researcher is most associated with research about the misinformation effect?
a)
Hermann Ebbinghaus
b)
Sigmund Freud
c)
Elizabeth Loftus
d)
John Watson
114.
Memories easier to recollect in a particular setting/experience
a)
implicit memory
b)
State-dependent memories
c)
Context-dependent memories
d)
Interference
115.
A type of motivated forgetting in which painful memories are blocked from conscious awareness is
a)
Retroactive interference
b)
Proactive interference
c)
Repression
d)
Priming
116.
memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare." (Also called declarative memory.)
a)
iconic memory
b)
explicit memory
c)
echoic memory
d)
implicit memory
117.
knowledge of skills, can't be stated clearly.
a)
implicit memory
b)
State-dependent memories
c)
Context-dependent memories
d)
Interference
118.
Studying in small bursts over a period of time.
a)
spacing effect
b)
cramming
c)
iconic memory
d)
echoic memory
119.
Our memory for skills, such as riding a bike.
a)
implicit memory
b)
explicit memory
c)
echoic memory
d)
iconic memory
120.
Our memory for facts, such as psych vocabulary.
a)
explicit memory
b)
implicit memory
c)
priming
d)
next-in-line effect
121.
Using the the acronym Roy G. Biv to studying the colors of the rainbow. This is a good example of
a)
mnemonic
b)
spacing effect
c)
visual encoding
d)
acoustic encoding
122.
an increase in a synapse's firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation. Believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory.
a)
long-term potentiation (LTP)
b)
chunking
c)
shallow processing
123.
According to the Ebbinghaus (forgetting) curve, most forgetting occurs:
a)
very soon after encoding
b)
about 1-2 weeks after encoding
c)
years after encoding
d)
only if encoding is unsuccessful
124.
An unusually distinct ability to remember visual images. Often referred to as a "photographic memory".
a)
Superior autobiographical memory
b)
visual acuity memory
c)
eidetic memory
d)
flashbulb memory
125.
What is the enhanced ability to retrieve information where you are in the same physical and emotional state?
a)
Sensory Memory
b)
Context
c)
Short-Term Memory
d)
State- Dependent Memory
126.
The instantaneous and automatic fear response we experience when unexpectedly stumbling upon a chicken illustrates the importance of the:
a)
amygdala.
b)
hypothalamus.
c)
pituitary gland.
d)
hippocampus.
127.
The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that:
a)
emotions have two ingredients: physical arousal and a cognitive label.
b)
the conscious experience of an emotion occurs at the same time as the body's physical reaction.
c)
emotional experiences are based on an awareness of the body's responses to an emotion-arousing stimulus.
d)
emotional ups and downs tend to balance in the long run.
128.
Schachter's two-factor theory emphasizes that emotion involves both:
a)
the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system.
b)
verbal and nonverbal expression.
c)
physical arousal and a cognitive label.
d)
universal and culture-specific aspects.
129.
Electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus will cause an animal to:
a)
begin eating.
b)
stop eating.
c)
become obese.
d)
begin copulating.
130.
Mary loves hang-gliding. It would be most difficult to explain Mary's behavior according to:
a)
incentives.
b)
achievement motivation.
c)
drive-reduction theory.
d)
Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
131.
Increases in insulin will:
a)
lower blood sugar and trigger hunger.
b)
raise blood sugar and trigger hunger.
c)
lower blood sugar and trigger satiety.
d)
raise blood sugar and trigger satiety.
132.
Beginning with the most basic needs, which of the following represents the correct sequence of needs in the hierarchy described by Maslow?
a)
safety; physiological; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment
b)
safety; physiological; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment
c)
physiological; safety; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment
d)
physiological; safety; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment
133.
An internal locus of control over a stressful event tends to result in
a)
less reported stress.
b)
more frustration regarding the stressful event.
c)
more motivation to solve the stressful problem.
d)
increased arousal.
134.
Which of the following argued that emotion is made up first of physiological arousal followed immediately by emotional experience?
a)
James-Lange Theory
b)
Cannon-Bard Theory
c)
Schachter-Two Factor Theory
d)
Zajonc and LeDoux Theory
135.
Which theory argued that physiological arousal and subjective emotional experience happen simultaneously?
a)
James-Lange Theory
b)
Cannon-Bard Theory
c)
Schachter Two-Factor Theory
d)
Lazarus Theory
136.
The image here best relates to which theory of emotion?
a)
James-Lange Theory
b)
Cannon-Bard Theory
c)
Schachter Two-Factor Theory
d)
Lazarus Theory
137.
The spillover effect notes that when physiologically aroused, we often take-on the emotional label of the people or events around us. This best supports which theory of emotion?
a)
James-Lange Theory
b)
Cannon-Bard Theory
c)
Schachter Two-Factor Theory
d)
No Theory Explains This
138.
You are walking down a dark alley late at night. You hear footsteps behind you and you begin to tremble, your heart beats faster, and your breathing deepens. Due to these physiological changes, your body prepares for a fearful situation. You then experience fear.
a)
Cannon Bard
b)
James Lange
c)
2 Factor
139.
You are walking down a dark alley late at night. You hear footsteps behind you and you begin to tremble, your heart beats faster, and your breathing deepens. At the same time as these physiological changes occur you also experience the emotion of fear
a)
James Lange
b)
Cannon Bard
c)
2 Factor
140.
You are walking down a dark alley late at night. You hear footsteps behind you and you begin to tremble, your heart beats faster, and your breathing deepens. Upon noticing this arousal you realize that is comes from the fact that you are walking down a dark alley by yourself. This behavior is dangerous and therefore you feel the emotion of fear
a)
James Lange
b)
Cannon Bard
c)
2 Factor
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