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Worksheets

Health Science Review 23-24

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the depth of compressions for adults?

a)

1 in.

b)

1.5 in.

c)

2 in.

d)

2-3 in.

2.

What is a sign of giving effective breaths?

a)

the chest rises

b)

air comes out of nose

c)

no physical change

d)

their face gets red

3.

What is the first step in CPR?

a)

check for signs of life

b)

check the scene

c)

start compressions

d)

call 911

4.

When do you perform CPR?

a)

when the person is unresponsive

b)

when the person is asleep

c)

when the person is talking

d)

when the person is coughing

5.

How many compressions are in one cycle?

a)

20

b)

100

c)

40

d)

30

6.

What is the ratio of compressions to breaths?

a)

40/2

b)

30/2

c)

100/10

d)

20/1

7.

What does AED stand for?

a)

annual edited documents

b)

actual emergency device

c)

automated external defibrillator

d)

always extending diaphragm

8.

What is the first step of using an AED?

a)

shock

b)

turn it on

c)

put pads on the victim

d)

plug in the pads

9.

What do you do if the scene is not safe?

a)

stand back and call 911

b)

go ahead and do CPR

c)

only do compressions

d)

tell another person to do compressions

10.

When checking for scene safety, who is the #1 person you are trying to protect?

a)

Yourself

b)

The patient

c)

Anyone else near by

d)

The first responders

11.
The song that is used to keep the compression rate at the correct speed is ___?
a)
Stayin' Alive
b)
Like a surgeon
c)
Haven't got a Prater
d)
Please Come Back to Me
12.
When the AED is analyzing the victim’s heart rhythm and when the AED delivers a shock, it is important that you __________.
a)
continue chest compressions
b)
take the time to give 2 breaths
c)
make sure no one is touching the victim
d)
wiggle the cables
13.
When providing first aid you must do what first?
a)
call for help
b)
provide care
c)
check the scene
d)
assume help had been contacted
14.

When do you stop CPR meaning stop pushing on their chest?

a)

2 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

Until EMT arrives

15.

How do you know if the victim is in need of CPR?

a)

Ask them if they are breathing

b)

Look, listen and talk to them

c)

Ask their friend if they are breathing

d)

Look for Breathing and Unresponsiveness

16.

How are rescue breaths given during infant CPR?

a)

Through the nose only

b)

Through the nose during chest compressions

c)

Through the mouth and nose

d)

Through the mouth only

17.

What should you do if the AED advises no shock needed?

a)

Immediately transport the patient

b)

Continue monitoring the patient

c)

Resume CPR immediately

d)

Leave the patient as they are

18.

How often should you switch the person performing CPR to avoid fatigue?

a)

Every 1 minute

b)

Every 2 minutes

c)

Every 5 minutes

d)

Do not switch

19.

What is the correct hand placement for performing chest compressions on an adult?

a)

On the lower abdomen

b)

On the upper abdomen

c)

On the center of the chest

d)

On the left side of the chest

20.

Leftover food, saliva and bacteria in your mouth create a white sticky substance on your teeth called:

a)

gums

b)

plaque

c)

toothpaste

d)

paint

21.

How many times a day should you brush your teeth?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

22.

You should also __________ your teeth once a day.

a)

touch

b)

wiggle

c)

smile

d)

floss

23.

These dental professionals provide oral hygiene techniques and dental health education.

a)

Dental Assistant

b)

Dentist

c)

Dental Hygienist

d)

Dental Lab Tech

24.
You should brush your teeth for two minutes after every meal.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
Who is a doctor who cares for your teeth?
a)
dentist
b)
cardiologist
c)
optometrist
26.

In Pharmacy terminology what does AM stand for?

a)
afternoon
b)
available today
c)
morning
d)
evening
27.

In Pharmacy terminology what does h.s. stand for?

a)
at breakfast
b)
hours
c)
injection
d)
at bedtime
28.

In Pharmacy terminology what does p.o. stand for?

a)
sublingual
b)
left ear
c)
right ear
d)
by mouth
29.

In Pharmacy terminology what does q.d. stand for?

a)
every day
b)
every hour
30.

In Pharmacy terminology what does t.i.d. stand for?

a)
twice a day
b)
one time a day
c)
three times a day
31.

Which of the following best defines scope of practice?

a)

extent and limits in which a healthcare professional may perform medical tasks according to his/her license and/or certification

b)

use of an endoscope to examine the esophagus

c)

helps to determine reimbursement of services provided by healthcare professional

32.

What is the role of a medical laboratory assistant?

a)

Performing surgeries

b)

Collecting and testing body fluids and tissue samples

c)

Administering medications

d)

Providing therapy to patients

33.

What personal protective equipment do medical laboratory assistants wear?

a)

Helmets and safety goggles

b)

Lab coat and gloves

c)

Apron and boots

d)

Face mask and earplugs

34.

What is the purpose of a medical lab assistant course?

a)

To learn how to play a musical instrument

b)

To become a certified medical lab assistant

c)

To improve communication skills

d)

To study anatomy and medical terminology

35.

What is the main responsibility of medical laboratory assistants?

a)

Providing patient care

b)

Managing finances

c)

Performing administrative tasks

d)

Collecting and processing specimens

36.

Average temperature is ...

a)

100.4

b)

96.8

c)

98.6

d)

97.0

37.

A fast pulse is also called...

a)

tachycardia

b)

tachypnea

c)

bradycardia

d)

bradypnea

38.

Normal respirations are .....

a)

12-20 per minute

b)

10-25 per minute

c)

11-22 per minute

d)

5-30 per minute

39.

the area of the body where you take a carotid pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the groin area

c)

the wrist

d)

the inside of your elbow

40.

the area of the body where you take a radial pulse is

a)

the neck

b)

the wrist

c)

the groin

d)

the inside of the elbow

41.

the following are routes to take a temperature EXCEPT ...

a)

oral

b)

temporal

c)

axillary

d)

femoral

42.

slow heart rate of less than a 60 bpm

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradcardia

c)

tachypnea

d)

bradypnea

43.

What are the four main vital signs?

a)

Temperature, pulse, size of pupils, and respirations

b)

Temperature, pain, pulse, and blood pressure

c)

Temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure

d)

Consciousness, temperature, pulse, and respirations

44.

Respiration means _________________?

a)

one expiration

b)

one inspiration

c)

one inspiration and expiration

d)

hold breath

45.

What is "blood pressure"

a)

how stressed your heart is

b)

how hard your muscles are pushing on the heart

c)

the force of the blood pumping through your veins

46.
You count respirations for how long?
a)
1 minute
b)
5 minutes
47.
The breathing rate of the patient
a)
Pulse
b)
Respirations
c)
Temperature
d)
Pulse
48.
For a blood pressure reading, the number on top measures...
a)
Diastolic Pressure
b)
Systolic Pressure
c)
Diastemic Pressure
d)
Systemic Pressure
49.

Difficulty breathing is called:

a)

apnea

b)

dysrhythmia

c)

dsypnea

d)

orthostatic

50.

An irregular pulse rate is called a/an:

a)

auxilliary

b)

apnea

c)

arrhythmia

d)

dyspnea

51.

The most accurate method to obtain a temperature:

a)

temporally

b)

axillary

c)

rectally

d)

orally

52.

If a patient has a fever, we describe them as:

a)

hot

b)

sick

c)

pyrexic

d)

febrile

53.

The normal range of pulse in an adult:

a)

12-20

b)

90-120

c)

60-100

d)

120-160

54.

A temperature that is taken axillary, is taken

a)

by mouth

b)

by ear

c)

by armpit

55.

A device used to measure blood pressure is a...

a)

sphygmomanometer

b)

apparatus

c)

gauge

d)

thermometer