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MOCK TEST AGK

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Temperature regulation of an air conditioning system:

a)

is manually controlled by the pilot reading the cabin temperature gauge and increasing or decreasing hot air as required.

b)

cannot be automatically controlled.

c)

is automatically controlled by sensing cabin temperature in relation to engine compressor outlet temperatures.

d)

is automatically controlled by sensing the output temperature from the control valve in relation to the temperature set on the pilot`s control panel.

2.

"Elastic Deformation" in relation to aircraft structures is a shape change that..

a)

is temporary and is reversed after the force is removed.

b)

is permanent and is caused by bending loads.

c)

will cause visible cracks to appear in the aircraft`s skin.

d)

will cause irreversible buckling of the aircraft`s skin.

3.

The fuselage structure of a modern pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a..

a)

semi-truss structure.

b)

semi-monocoque structure.

c)

truss structure.

d)

pure monocoque structure.

4.

When on the ground in a hangar, which loads are acting in the skin of a cantilever wing outboard of the wing landing gear?

a)

Tension in the upper skin, compression in the lower skin.

b)

Compression in both the upper and the lower skin.

c)

Tension in both the upper and the lower skin.

d)

Compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower skin.

5.

The bending moment on a cantilever wing with a torsion box is carried by the..

a)

upper skin and stringers, the wing root fairing and the spar or spars.

b)

wing root fairing and the spar or spars.

c)

upper skin and stringers, the lower skin and stringers, and the spar or spars.

d)

lower skin and stringers, and the wind root fairing.

6.

Pascal`s Law states that if a fluid in a confined space is pressurised by an external force, the fluid pressure will be sensed..

a)

greater near the walls in the fluid.

b)

greater at higher levels in the fluid.

c)

greater at lower levels in the fluid.

d)

equally throughout the fluid.

7.

What is a desired property of hydraulic fluids?

a)

High volatility

b)

High viscosity

c)

Low flammability

d)

Low flash point

8.

Which property must a fluid have for a hydraulic system to operate correctly?

a)

High viscosity

b)

Low flashpoint

c)

Incompressibility

d)

Chemical instability

9.

An aircraft hydraulic system that has low-pressure fluid flow in the system when the system actuating mechanisms are idle is referred to as..

a)

a Closed Centre Hydraulic System.

b)

a Pressure Neutral Hydraulic System.

c)

an Open Centre Hydraulic System.

d)

a Positive Return Hydraulic System.

10.

Hydraulic pressure can be expressed as..

a)

force multiplied by unit area squared(F xA2).

b)

force multiplied by unit area (F x A).

c)

force divided by unit area squared(F /A2).

d)

force divided by unit area (F / A).

11.

In a commercial transport aeroplane the landing gear normal operating system is usually..

a)

mechanically operated.

b)

pneumatically operated.

c)

electrically operated.

d)

hydraulically operated.

12.

The highest load on the torsion link in a bogie gear is:

a)

when gear is selected down.

b)

when braking with an inoperative anti-skid system

c)

whilst turning on the ground with a small radius.

d)

on touch down with a strong crosswind

13.

Which of these statements about rudder pedal nose wheel steering is correct?

a)

Rudder pedal nose wheel steering does not function during take-off.

b)

Rudder pedal nose wheel steering provides a larger deflection of the nose wheel as manual or tiller control.

c)

Rudder pedal nose wheel steering functions on the ground as well as in the air.

d)

Rudder pedal nose wheel steering provides a smaller deflection of the nose wheel as hand wheel steering (tiller).

14.

Which of these statements about an anti-skid system are correct or incorrect?


1. In case of failure of an anti-skid system the auto-brake system takes over the regulation of the slip ratio.

2. Careful brake application by the pilot in case of anti-skid failure can achieve the same performance as a properly functioning anti-skid system.

a)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

c)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

d)

1 is correct, 2 is correct.

15.

Which of these statements about an anti-skid system are correct or incorrect?


1. The "regulation of slip ratio" function of an anti-skid system ensures optimum braking performance.

2. Careful brake application by the pilot in case of anti-skid failure can achieve the same performance as a properly functioning anti-skid system.

a)

1 is correct, 2 is correct.

b)

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

c)

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

d)

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

16.

The failure of an anti-skid system:

a)

does not increase the braking distance during a rejected take-off, provided the pilot applies maximum braking.

b)

increases the minimum braking distance on a dry runway only.

c)

increases the minimum braking distance on a slippery runway only.

d)

always increases the minimum braking distance irrespective of runway condition.

17.

Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines running. Which of these statements is correct when rudder trim is used?

a)

The rudder trim tab moves and the rudder pedals do not move.

b)

The zero force point of the artificial feel system changes, the rudder does not move.

c)

The rudder moves, the rudder pedals do not move.

d)

The rudder moves, the rudder pedals move in the corresponding direction.

18.

Rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is:

a)

unnecessary because this aeroplane does not need rudder trim.

b)

an adjustment of the rudder ratio changer.

c)

an adjustment of the zero force rudder position.

d)

an adjustment of the rudder trim tab.

19.

Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect?


I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence.

II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.

a)

I is incorrect, II is correct.

b)

I is correct, II is correct.

c)

I is correct, II is incorrect.

d)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

20.

Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?


I. A rudder ratio changer system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

II. A variable stop system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.

a)

I is correct, II is correct.

b)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

c)

I is correct, II is incorrect.

d)

I is incorrect, II is correct.

21.

Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?


I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases

II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases.

a)

I is incorrect, II is correct.

b)

I is correct, II is correct.

c)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

d)

I is correct, II is incorrect.

22.

What is the basic principle of a fully manual flight control system?

a)

The flight control surfaces are connected to the flight deck controls by means of mechanical links only.

b)

The deflection angle of the flight control surface will vary with airspeed, therefore, the flight control forces are constant.

c)

A fully manual flight control system is an irreversible system because there is no flight deck flight control feedback when a flight control surface is in motion.

d)

A fully manual flight control system is manually operated by the pilot by means of the flight control elements and is powered by a hydraulic system.

23.

What is an advantage of a fly-by-wire system compared with a conventional flight control system?

a)

Weight saving

b)

Mach number reduction

c)

Flight envelope exceedance

d)

Profile drag reduction

24.

A warning will be given if the cabin altitude exceeds:

a)

10000 ft.

b)

25000 ft.

c)

15000 ft.

d)

8000 ft.

25.

A commonly-used refrigerant in a Vapour Cycle Air Conditioning System is..

a)

freon

b)

water

c)

helium

d)

nitrogen

26.

On a typical gas-turbine-engine aircraft, the pneumatic air bleed system uses air supplied from the engine..

a)

compressor.

b)

exhaust

c)

turbine

d)

inlet

27.

The manual mode of a typical aeroplane`s pressurisation control system

a)

uses a separate circuit to control the operation of the outflow valve(s).

b)

uses a separate circuit to control the operation of the safety relief valve(s).

c)

is only available for ground operations.

d)

is only used to fully open or close the outflow valve(s).

28.

In a bootstrap air cycle system, the..

a)

turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.

b)

temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine.

c)

turbine drives the compressor, which provides pressurisation.

d)

turbine drives the compressor, which increases the temperature of the air, thus making the second heat exchanger more efficient.

29.

Pneumatic mechanical ice protection systems are mainly used for:

a)

windscreens

b)

pitot tubes.

c)

wings

d)

propellers

30.

On most transport aircraft, flight deck windows are protected against icing by:

a)

rain repellent systems.

b)

anti-icing fluid.

c)

vinyl coating.

d)

electrical heating.

31.

Which of the following is true with respect to heating of pitot and static sensors:

a)

Combined pitot/static tubes are always heated but static ports are never heated.

b)

Both pitot and static sensing is always heated.

c)

Pitot tubes are always provided with a heater while static ports may also be heated.

d)

Pitot tube and static port heating are switched on automatically when icing conditions are met.

32.

Fuel dump systems are required:

a)

on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW) is significantly higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).

b)

on aircraft with a Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.

c)

on all transport category aircraft.

d)

on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.

33.

The correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three mentioned fuels is:

a)

Jet B, Jet A-1, Jet A.

b)

Jet A-1 Jet A, Jet B.

c)

Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B.

d)

Jet B, Jet A, Jet A-1.

34.

What is the density of JET-A1?

a)

0.6 kg/l.

b)

0.9 kg/l.

c)

0.8 kg/l.

d)

0.72 kg/l.

35.

AVGAS grade 100 can be identified by which colour code?

a)

Blue

b)

Yellow

c)

Green

d)

Red

36.

One advantage in the design of integral fuel tanks over other types of fuel tank is that they.

a)

do not require a vent system.

b)

do not require to be sealed to prevent leakage.

c)

are resistant to microbiological contamination.

d)

provide the highest volume of fuel storage space.

37.

When the AC voltage across a capacitor is kept constant and the frequency is increased, the current through the capacitor will:

a)

remain the same.

b)

be zero.

c)

increase

d)

decrease

38.

A conductor is positioned in a magnetic field non-parallel to the magnetic field lines. If a current is passed through this conductor:

a)

a Lorentz force is induced in the conductor.

b)

the field will collapse.

c)

the current will stop.

d)

there will be no effect on the conductor.

39.

A thermal circuit breaker:

a)

protects the system in the event of any overheating.

b)

protects the system in the event of a prolonged overheating.

c)

protects the system in the event of a prolonged overcurrent.

d)

protects the system in the event of any overcurrent.

40.

When carrying out a battery condition check using the aircraft`s voltmeter:

a)

a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.

b)

no load should be applied to the battery because it would reduce the voltage.

c)

the load condition is unimportant.

d)

the battery should be isolated.

41.

In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that:

a)

equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.

b)

their voltages are almost equal.

c)

adequate voltage differences exist.

d)

the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.

42.

In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:

a)

4

b)

24

c)

12

d)

8

43.

An AC generator driven by a constant speed drive (CSD):

a)

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.

b)

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.

c)

does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.

d)

does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.

44.

Assuming a constant speed drive (CSD) fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected:

a)

provided the engine is running.

b)

at flight idle engine rpm only.

c)

when the AC generator voltage is outside limits.

d)

on the ground only.

45.

"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator:

a)

output frequency varies with engine speed.

b)

output frequency is too high.

c)

output frequency is too low.

d)

voltage regulator is out of adjustment.

46.

On an aircraft using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight from:

a)

the AC bus via current limiters.

b)

a static inverter.

c)

a Transformer Rectifier Unit.

d)

a DC transformer and rectifier.

47.

The phase relationship between two unparalleled AC generators:

a)

clear

b)

must be in opposition

c)

is unimportant.

d)

must be synchronous.

48.

AC generators operated in parallel must have the same:

a)

frequency and amperage.

b)

amperage and kVAR.

c)

voltage and phase.

d)

voltage and amperage

49.

The power output of a piston engine is directly proportional to:

a)

torque and RPM.

b)

work and velocity.

c)

exhaust back pressure and RPM.

d)

force and distance.

50.

The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:

a)

gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.

b)

accessory gear box.

c)

propeller blades.

d)

camshaft.

51.

A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:

a)

never

b)

provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

c)

provided that the grade is lower

d)

provided that the grade is higher

52.

"Vapour lock" is the phenomenon by which:

a)

burned gas bubbles are formed and remain in the exhaust manifold following an overheat, thereby disturbing the exhaust.

b)

vapour bubbles block the fuel line.

c)

water vapour bubbles are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel tanks that have not been recently drained.

d)

abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.

53.

The operating principle of magnetos in a piston engine ignition system consists of:

a)

creating a brief high intensity magnetic field that will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.

b)

obtaining a high amperage, low voltage current in order to generate the spark.

c)

accumulating in a capacitor a low voltage current from the battery and inducing it as a high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.

d)

opening the primary circuit in order to induce a low amperage, high voltage current, which is distributed to the spark plugs.

54.

Under normal running conditions of a piston engine a magneto draws primary current:

a)

from the booster coil.

b)

from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.

c)

directly from the aircraft batteries.

d)

from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

55.

Which of these statements about fire-extinguishing agents are correct or incorrect?


I. The fire extinguishing effect of Halon is based on suppressing the chemical reaction of a fire.

II. Compared with other extinguishing agents Halon is very effective in suppressing fires

a)

I is correct, II is correct.

b)

I is correct, II is incorrect.

c)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

d)

I is incorrect, II is correct.

56.

Which of these statements about fire-extinguishing agents are correct or incorrect?


I. The fire extinguishing effect of Halon is mainly based on cooling when the agent exhausts via a venturi during discharge.

II. Halon should be used with caution because it is highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

a)

I is correct, II is correct.

b)

I is incorrect, II is correct.

c)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

d)

I is correct, II is incorrect.

57.

If the two loops of an engine fire detection system detect a low resistance and a low capacity:

a)

The system is under test.

b)

Everything is normal.

c)

The engine is on fire.

d)

The loops are faulty.

58.

In jet transport aeroplanes, oxygen for the flight deck oxygen system is stored as a:

a)

liquid.

b)

chemical compound or a gas.

c)

chemical compound.

d)

gas

59.

If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:

a)

oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.

b)

oxygen bottles will explode.

c)

passenger oxygen masks will drop down.

d)

oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

60.

The passenger oxygen mask will supply:

a)

a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.

b)

100 % oxygen.

c)

a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

d)

a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.

61.

Engine temperature limitations of a gas turbine engine are usually imposed due to temperature limitations on the:

a)

compressor section

b)

jet pipe.

c)

turbine section.

d)

casing of the combustion chamber.

62.

The static thrust of a turbo-jet:


1. equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity

2. is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air

3. produces zero propulsive power since the aeroplane is not moving

4. is independent of the outside air temperature


The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a)

1, 2.

b)

1, 3.

c)

4

d)

2, 3.

63.

When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:

a)

temperature increases

b)

pressure rises.

c)

pressure drops.

d)

axial velocity decreases.

64.

In the airflow through a single-spool axial flow turbo-jet engine, the axial velocity of the air is greatest:

a)

as it leaves the compressor.

b)

as it leaves the turbine.

c)

within the combustion chamber.

d)

on exit from the propelling nozzle.

65.

An axial compressor in a gas turbine engine, when operating below its design speed, has:

a)

a tendency to stall in the centre stages.

b)

no tendency to stall.

c)

a tendency to stall in the front stages.

d)

a tendency to stall in the rear stages.

66.

Severe compressor stall in a gas turbine engine can be observed amongst others by:

a)

a rise in turbine gas temperature (TGT) and an increase in vibration level.

b)

an increase in engine pressure ratio (EPR) and a decrease in TGT and fuel flow.

c)

a rise in TGT and an increase in fuel flow.

d)

a decrease in TGT and a increase in vibration level.

67.

One of the purposes of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to:

a)

reduce the tendency to compressor stall.

b)

spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed

c)

enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.

d)

control the acceleration time of the engine.

68.

When a gas turbine engine is fitted with can-type combustion chambers:

a)

each chamber is fitted with one igniter and one glow plug.

b)

a total of only two igniters are usually fitted since the chambers are inter-connected.

c)

each chamber is fitted with two igniters.

d)

each chamber has its own igniter.

69.

A gas turbine engine turbine section may employ active clearance control:

a)

in order to cool the disc.

b)

in order to reduce “creep” in the blades.

c)

to provide enhanced clearances between the blade tips and the casing

d)

as a method of attaching the stators and rotors to the hub of the disc.

70.

In a gas turbine engine lubrication system fitted with an oil to fuel heat exchanger the:

a)

fuel is cooled to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.

b)

oil is heated through thermal exchange with the fuel.

c)

fuel is heated as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.

d)

oil is cooled through thermal exchange with the fuel.

71.

The fuel-oil heat exchanger of a gas turbine engine:

a)

cools both the oil and the fuel.

b)

cools the oil only.

c)

cools the oil and heats the fuel.

d)

heats the fuel only.

72.

The use of igniters in a gas turbine engine is required:


1. throughout the operating range of the engine

2. during engine acceleration

3. for in-flight relights


The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a)

2

b)

1, 3.

c)

3

d)

1, 2.

73.

What is the correct sequence during the start of a turbine engine on the ground?

a)

Rotation, fuel, ignition.

b)

Starter, rotation, ignition, fuel.

c)

Rotation, ignition, fuel.

d)

Starter, ignition, rotation, fuel.

74.

On most high by-pass ratio (fan) engines, reverse thrust is achieved by reversing:

a)

the direction of rotation of the fan.

b)

the direction of both the exhaust gas flow (hot stream) and the fan airflow (cold stream).

c)

only the direction of the exhaust gas flow.

d)

only the direction of the fan airflow.

75.

The thrust reversers of jet engines may use clamshell doors in order to:

a)

stop the flow of the exhaust gas stream.

b)

absorb any surge in engine thrust.

c)

change the direction of the exhaust gas stream.

d)

reduce the pressure of the exhaust gas stream by diffusing it to atmosphere.

76.

In a gas turbine engine, compressor surge during engine acceleration is prevented by:

a)

variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

b)

outlet guide vanes.

c)

controlling the fuel flow.

d)

anti-ice bleed valves.

77.

In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity V and static pressure p vary as follows:

a)

V decreases, p increases.

b)

V decreases, p decreases.

c)

V increases, p decreases.

d)

V increases, p increases.

78.

EPR can be defined as the ratio of:

a)

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

b)

the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.

c)

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.

d)

the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

79.

In the event of a fire in a gas turbine engine

a)

an automatic shut off valve is moved to the closed position controlled by the fire sensing system.

b)

the fuel supply is isolated from the engine by pilot action.

c)

the fuel installation is protected by an automatic fire extinguishing system.

d)

the fuel supply is disconnected by a quick release coupling.

80.

In a twin spool free turbine engine, the energy delivered by the free turbine stages:

a)

is used to drive the generator.

b)

is used to drive the compressor and the gear box.

c)

is dependent on the rotational speed of the HP spool.

d)

is used to drive the compressor only.