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WorksheetsGS 2 - Final Exam Review
Total questions: 167
Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the these choices is a physical property that does not change when the size of the sample changes?
a)
Mass
b)
volume
c)
density
d)
flammability
2.
Hydrogen gas (H2)can be found in trace amounts in Earth's atmosphere. Which of these statements describes a physical property of hydrogen?
a)
Hydrogen is found in acids
b)
Hydrogen gas is highly flammable.
c)
Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water.
d)
Hydrogen gas is less dense than oxygen gas.
3.
Which of these is a chemical property of a sheet of paper?
a)
The paper can be burned.
b)
The paper can be crumpled.
c)
The paper does not attract a magnet.
d)
The paper does not conduct electricity.
4.
Which of these statement describes a chemical property of an object?
a)
The object is white in color.
b)
The object has a powdery texture.
c)
The object's density is 2 g/cm3
d)
The object reacts with acid to form water.
5.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
When butter is melted, some of it disappears
b)
The boiling point of all liquids is the same
c)
the volume of water is the same before and after a physical change
d)
copper has electrical conductivity because it transfers energy
6.
Which of the following is a physical change?
a)
an egg frying
b)
break baking in an oven
c)
a match burning
d)
a pond freezing during the winter
7.
Which of the following would be best to ask yourself when determining whether a physical change has occurred?
a)
has the volume of the substance changed?
b)
Could the new substance return to its former state?
c)
How soluble is this substance?
d)
What is the boiling point of this substance?
8.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
a)
dissolving sugar in a glass of water
b)
chopping onions
c)
your stomach digesting food
d)
forming a bay of clay into a bowl
9.
For dinner, Bill chops some vegetables and then cooks them in a pot of water. What kind of changes took place?
a)
neither a chemical change or a physical change took place
b)
both a chemical change and a physical change took place
c)
only a chemical change took place
d)
only a physical change took place
10.
Sandra was melting some butter in a pan. The butter overheated and burned. Which of the following statements is corect?
a)
the melting was a chemical change and the burning was a physical change
b)
the melting was a physical change and the burning was a chemical change
c)
the melting and burning were both physical changes
d)
the melting and burning were both chemical changes
11.
Which of these statements describes an example of a chemical property of a metal statue?
a)
it can tarnish
b)
it is silver
c)
it is shiny
d)
it is solid
12.
Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
a)
tarnishing
b)
rusting
c)
burning
d)
melting
13.
Which of the following is a sign that a chemical change has occured?
a)
smoke
b)
broken pieces
c)
change in shape
d)
change in state
14.
What statement describes the physical property of luster?
a)
the distance between two points
b)
how light is reflected from an object's surface
c)
the amount of mass for a given volume
d)
the amount of space an object takes up
15.
What statement describes the physical property of density?
a)
the distance between two points
b)
how light is reflected from an object's surface
c)
the amount of mass for a given volume
d)
the amount of space an object takes up
16.
Which of the choices below describes a boiling point?
a)
a chemical property
b)
a chemical change
c)
a physical property
d)
a physical change
17.
What statement describes the physical property of volume?
a)
the distance between two points
b)
how light is reflected from an object's surface
c)
the amount of mass for a given volume
d)
the amount of space an object takes up
18.
Which step in the process of making a cake results in a chemical change?
a)
breaking an egg and removing the contents from the shell
b)
melting butter
c)
mixing sugar and flour
d)
baking a cake in an oven
19.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
a)
fireworks exploding
b)
ice melting
c)
glass breaking
d)
salt dissolving in water
20.
If a box of crayons is left in a hot car on a summer afternoon, what change would you expect to observe in the crayons?
a)
gas changed to liquid
b)
liquid changed to solid
c)
solid changed to liquid
d)
liquid changed to gas
21.
A student took ice cream outside on a summer day. The heat would cause what kind of change?
a)
a solid becoming a liquid
b)
a liquid becoming a gas
c)
a liquid becoming a solid
d)
a gas becoming a liquid
22.
Removing heat from water vapor causes what change in it's physical state?
a)
a liquid changing into a gas
b)
a solid changing into a gas
c)
a gas changing into a liquid
d)
a liquid changing into a solid
23.
A drop of water was placed in a hot pan and seemed to disappear. The heat caused the water to....
a)
melt
b)
freeze
c)
evaporate
d)
gel
24.
When an ice cube is placed on the sidewalk on a hot day, what is the series of changes to it's physical state that occurs?
a)
gas, solid, liquid
b)
solid, gas, liquid
c)
solid, liquid, gas
d)
liquid, solid, gas
25.
Water vapor is forming a liquid on the outside of this glass because the vapor.
a)
loses heat when it touches the glass
b)
pulls cooler liquid through the glass
c)
becomes warmer close to the glass
26.
After a rainstorm a group of students notices puddles on the sidewalk. Later that afternoon the students observed a change in the puddles. What caused the water in the puddle to disappear?
a)
shadows covered the sidewalk
b)
the Sun's heat evaporated the water
c)
the rainstorms continued all day
27.
Students created a model of the water cycle by heating a beaker of water on a hot plate until it boiled. They carefully held a metal pan of ice cubes where water vapor was rising from the beaker and water drops began to form on the bottom of the metal pan. The water drops formed on the bottom of the pan because...
a)
the pan was made of metal
b)
the water vapor cooled
c)
the ice was a solid
28.
If a box of wax crayons was left in a hot car all of the following could happen EXCEPT?
a)
the crayons could change shape
b)
the colors could mix together
c)
the paper wrappers could melt
29.
A glass of water was left outside on the coldest day of the year. The low temperature could make what change in the water? The water could...
a)
change color
b)
get a salty taste
c)
turn into ice
30.
Sometimes a burning candle will have wax dripping down the side. This happens because the heat of the flame...
a)
turns the wax of the candle to a liquid
b)
causes water to collect on the candle
c)
uses some of the gases in the air
31.
As the ice cube melts, what will change?
a)
volume
b)
mass
c)
shape
32.
A science teacher placed a beaker of water in a windowsill. Students measured the volume of water in the beaker for four weeks. What might have caused the change in volume?
a)
ice was added to the water
b)
the water was observed every day
c)
the water was heated by the sun
33.
What causes water to freeze solid when placed in freezer? The freezer....
a)
adds heat to the water
b)
takes heat away from the water
c)
does not let light shine on the water
34.
Students heated a sample of water in a container. Later, the container appeared to be empty. The heat caused the water to...
a)
melt
b)
evaporate
c)
freeze
35.
Changes in matter does NOT include...
a)
melting
b)
freezing
c)
vaporization
d)
creating a mixture
36.
When you melt a solid, do you add heat or take heat away?
a)
Add heat
b)
Take heat away
37.
What process happens when gas is changed into a liquid?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Melting
c)
Freezing
d)
Condensation
38.
The diagram shows the process of
a)
melting
b)
boiling
c)
freezing
d)
condensing
39.
Evaporation and ___both happen at the surface of a substance
a)
boiling
b)
sublimation
c)
condensation
d)
melting
40.
The reverse of freezing is
a)
boiling
b)
melting
c)
evaporation
d)
sublimation
41.
Particles of a liquid have ____thermal energy than particles of the same substance in solid form.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
the same
d)
no of these
42.
The melting point of pure water at sea level is ______ degree Celsius.
a)
212
b)
100
c)
32
d)
0
43.
Which of these images represent the particles in a liquid?
a)
First from the left
b)
Second from the left
c)
Third from the left
d)
none of these images
44.
Vaporization occurs when particles in a liquid gain enough thermal energy to
a)
move independently
b)
assume a fixed position
c)
flow
d)
evaporate
45.
Boiling occurs
a)
only at the surface
b)
only under the surface
c)
both on and under the surface
d)
neither
46.
Clouds from as a result of
a)
smoke in the atmosphere
b)
gaining thermal energy
c)
subliming water vapor
d)
condensing water vapor
47.
Sublimation occurs when a solid
a)
skips the liquid state and forms a gas
b)
skips the gas state and forms a liquid
c)
skips the solid state and forms a liquid
d)
doesn't have a melting point
48.
The textbook example of sublimation involved this substance
a)
carbon monoxide
b)
hydrogen sulfide
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
carbon tetraflouride
49.
Which of the following have the greatest thermal energy?
a)
a liquid
b)
a solid
c)
a gas
d)
an amorphous solid
50.
Dalton's model of the atom was ...
a)
a solid sphere
b)
a sphere with embedded electrons
c)
a small nucleus with circling electrons
d)
none of these
51.
The Gold Foil experiment was the work of which scientists?
a)
JJ Thompson
b)
Dalton
c)
Ernest Rutherford
d)
Niels Bohr
52.
Protons have a ___ charge
a)
neutral
b)
negative
c)
positive
d)
square
53.
Electrons have a ___ charge
a)
positive
b)
neutral
c)
negative
d)
strange
54.
Neutrons are ____
a)
neutral
b)
positive
c)
negative
d)
oval
55.
AMU stands for
a)
atoms must unify
b)
atomic mass utility
c)
atomic mass unit
d)
a mini unicorn
56.
The particle with the LEAST mass is the
a)
proton
b)
electron
c)
neutron
d)
nucleus
57.
According the the text, the mass number is the sum of these two particles.
a)
protons and electrons
b)
neutrons and electrons
c)
electrons and nucleus
d)
protons and neutrons
58.
One nanometer is equal to
a)
1 meter
b)
0.005 meters
c)
0.000000001 meters
d)
10
59.
Bohr's atomic model is said to resemble planets orbiting the sun or
a)
seeds in a watermelon
b)
rings in a tree
c)
the pit of a cherry
d)
curls of smoke
60.
The current model is referred to as the _____model
a)
fog
b)
haze
c)
new
d)
cloud
61.
In modern atomic theory, electrons move rapidly around a nucleus determined by their
a)
direction
b)
energy level
c)
electric charge
d)
shape and color
62.
The nucleus of an atom contains
a)
protons and electrons
b)
electrons and neutrons
c)
protons only
d)
neutrons and protons
63.
Atoms having the same number of protons and electrons are said to have a _____ charge.
a)
positive
b)
neutral
c)
negative
d)
super
64.
It takes about ____ electrons to equal the mass of one proton.
a)
1840
b)
2
c)
1,000,000,000
d)
0.009
65.
The atomic number is the number of ____ in an atom.
a)
neutrons
b)
protons
c)
protons and neutrons
d)
electrons
66.
The atoms' identity is its' number of ....
a)
protons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
neutrons
d)
electrons
67.
Gold has a mass number of 197. Mass numbers are the
a)
sum of protons and electrons
b)
sum of neutrons and electrons
c)
sum of protons and neutrons
d)
difference of protons and neutrons
68.
Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons are called ...
a)
isomers
b)
isotopes
c)
radioactive
d)
mutations
69.
Carbon -14 has six protons and ___ neutrons.
a)
6
b)
7
c)
8
d)
9
70.
A tiny, negatively charged particle that moves around the outside of the nucleus of an
a)
proton
b)
neutron
c)
electron
d)
bison
71.
An atom with the same number of protons and a different number of neutrons from other atoms of the same element.
a)
isotope
b)
compound
c)
allotrope
d)
anomoly
72.
The basic particle from which all elements are made; the smallest particle of an element that has the properties of that element.
a)
molecule
b)
atom
c)
compound
d)
proton
73.
A region of an atom in which electrons of the same energy are likely to be found.
a)
energy level
b)
energy field
c)
energy position
d)
energy jacket
74.
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.
a)
atomic protons
b)
mass number
c)
atomic mass
d)
atomic number
75.
The central core of an atom which contains protons and neutrons.
a)
atomic core
b)
nucleus
c)
center
d)
fulcrum
76.
The sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
mass number
d)
the whole enchilada!
77.
An arrangement of the elements showing the repeating pattern of their properties.
a)
Chemical Table
b)
Periodic Table
c)
Table of Elements
d)
None of These
78.
A one-or-two letter representation of an element.
a)
chemical symbol
b)
chemical formula
c)
chemical letter
d)
chemical shorthand
79.
Elements in the same vertical column of the periodic table; also called family.
a)
period
b)
row
c)
group
d)
vertigo
80.
The average mass of all the isotopes of an element.
a)
mass number
b)
weight
c)
amu
d)
atomic mass
81.
A horizontal row of elements in the periodic table.
a)
column
b)
group
c)
period
d)
family
82.
The way in which acids react with some metals so as to wear away the metal.
a)
magnetism
b)
corrosion
c)
conductivity
d)
ductility
83.
A term used to describe a material that can be pulled out into a long wire.
a)
malleable
b)
ductile
c)
luster
d)
bendable
84.
The ability of an object to transfer electricity.
a)
electrical conductivity
b)
electrical transferability
c)
thermal conductivity
d)
ionization
85.
A class of elements characterized by physical properties that include shininess, malleability, ductility, and conductivity.
a)
nonmetals
b)
metalloids
c)
metals
d)
gases
86.
The ease and speed with which an element combines, or reacts, with other elements and compounds.
a)
reactivity
b)
combinable
c)
corrosiveness
d)
oxidation
87.
The ability of an object to transfer heat.
a)
heat transfer
b)
thermal conductivity
c)
thermal transfer
d)
thermal underware
88.
A term used to describe material that can be hammered or rolled into flat sheets.
a)
ductile
b)
luster
c)
magnetic
d)
malleable
89.
One of the elements in Groups 3 -12 of the periodic table.
a)
Alkali metal
b)
Alkaline Earth metal
c)
Transition metal
d)
Metalloid
90.
An element in Group 2 of the periodic table.
a)
Alkali metal
b)
Alkaline Earth metal
c)
Transition metal
d)
Metalloid
91.
An element that has some characteristics of both metals and nonmetals.
a)
nonmetal
b)
metalloid
c)
Alkali metal
d)
mystery metal
92.
A molecule consisting of two atoms.
a)
duel molecule
b)
bi-molecule
c)
diatomic molecule
d)
paired molecule
93.
A substance that can conduct electric current under some conditions.
a)
Transition metal
b)
Semiconductor
c)
Metalloid
d)
Super conductor
94.
An element found in Group 17 of the periodic table. (K2)
a)
Noble Gas
b)
Halogen
c)
Carbon Family
d)
Nitrogen Family
95.
a reaction that absorbs energy
a)
exographic
b)
exothermic
c)
automatic
d)
endothermic
96.
a change that alters the form or appearance of a material but does not make the material into another substance
a)
physical change
b)
chemical change
c)
physical property
d)
chemical property
97.
a reaction that releases energy, usually in the form of heat
a)
exothermic
b)
endocytosis
c)
endothermic
d)
exocytosis
98.
a change in which one or more substances combine or break apart to form new substances
a)
physical change
b)
physical property
c)
chemical change
d)
chemical property
99.
a substance that enters into a chemical reaction
a)
product
b)
metal
c)
reactant
d)
ion
100.
the minimum amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction
a)
kinetic energy
b)
activation energy
c)
input energy
d)
starting energy
101.
the amount of one material in a certain volume of another material
a)
fraction
b)
ratio
c)
concentration
d)
mixture
102.
A biological catalyst that lowers the activation energy of reactions in cells
a)
inhibitor
b)
catalyst
c)
enzyme
d)
myosin
103.
a reaction in which one element replaces another in a compound or when two elements in different compounds trade places
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
replacement
d)
substitution
104.
H2 + O2 --> H2O2 is an example of a
a)
chemical symbol
b)
chemical formula
c)
chemical equation
d)
chemical nonsense
105.
a system in which matter can enter from or escape to the surroundings
a)
open
b)
closed
c)
isolated
d)
sequestered
106.
a chemical reaction in which two or more simple substances combine to form a new, more complex substance
a)
decomposition
b)
synthesis
c)
single replacement
d)
double replacement
107.
a chemical reaction that breaks down compounds into simpler products
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
decaying
d)
deposition
108.
A material that increases the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy
a)
inhibitor
b)
reactant
c)
catalyst
d)
carcinogen
109.
Acceleration: is the rate of change in ___________.
a)
speed
b)
distance
c)
velocity
d)
displacement
110.
Acceleration: is the rate of change in ___________.
a)
speed
b)
distance
c)
velocity
d)
displacement
111.
In each of the following cases, determine where the car has no acceleration ?
a)
A car shortly after a stoplight turns green.
b)
A car approaching a red light
c)
A car with the cruise control set at 80 km/h
d)
A car moving down a ramp
112.
Why does a car accelerate as it rounds a corner at a constant speed?
a)
Its direction changes
b)
It doesn't
c)
It slows down
d)
Its speeds up
113.
When are you undergoing an acceleration in a car?
a)
speed up
b)
slow down
c)
make turns
d)
All of the above
114.
Velocity is both ____ and _____.
a)
speed , direction
b)
direction, mass
c)
volume, density
d)
direction, magnitude
115.
Acceleration of an object happens when things ________
a)
slow down
b)
go faster
c)
change direction (turn)
d)
All of the above
116.
A roller coaster going down a hill is changing which aspect of its movement?
a)
speed and acceleration
b)
distance and time
c)
speed and direction
d)
force and momentum
117.
Determine the motion of the car.
a)
at rest
b)
moving at constant speed
c)
speeding up
d)
slowing down
118.
A drag racer accelerated from 0 m/s to 200 m/s in 5 s. What was the acceleration?
a)
0 m/s
b)
40 m/s2
c)
-40 m/s2
d)
40 m/s
119.
65 miles per hour is an example of an objects what?
a)
Speed
b)
Velocity
c)
Average Speed
d)
Constant Speed
120.
10 miles per hour is an example of an objects what?
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Acceleration
d)
Inertia
121.
65 miles per hour North is an example of an objects what?
a)
Speed
b)
Velocity
c)
Average Speed
d)
Constant Speed
122.
LT4: The graph shows Ashley riding her bike to Maria's house.
What was occurring from point B to point C?
What was occurring from point B to point C?
a)
She was increasing her speed.
b)
She stopped for 4 minutes
c)
She was decreasing in speed
123.
LT4: The graph shows Ashley riding her bike to Maria's house.
What is occurring from point A to point B?
What is occurring from point A to point B?
a)
they are traveling at a constant speed
b)
they are decreasing in speed
c)
they stopped to take a break
124.
How long did it take this object to travel 10 m?
a)
0 s
b)
10 s
c)
15 s
d)
20 s
125.
Speed is different from velocity because
a)
Velocity has a direction
b)
Speed uses Distance /Time
c)
Velocity doesn't include time
d)
Velocity doesn't include distance
126.
Which is correct?
a)
speed = distance x time
b)
speed = speed divided by time
c)
speed = Distance divided by time
d)
Speed = time x speed
127.
A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes her 10 seconds to finish. What is her average speed?
a)
10 m/s
b)
1000 m/s
c)
100 seconds
d)
10 seconds
128.
_________ opposes motion.
a)
acceleration
b)
gravity
c)
friction
d)
inertia
129.
An object drops due to the force of _____________.
a)
inertia
b)
momentum
c)
friction
d)
gravity
130.
The upward force on an object falling through the air is ______________.
a)
gravity
b)
air current
c)
air resistance
d)
magnetism
131.
The relationship between mass, force, and acceleration is explained by __________________.
a)
1st law of motion
b)
2nd law of motion
c)
3rd law of motion
d)
4th law of motion
132.
F = ma represents Newton's ________________.
a)
1st law of motion
b)
2nd law of motion
c)
3rd law of motion
d)
4th law of motion
133.
F = ma represents Newton's ________________.
a)
1st law of motion
b)
2nd law of motion
c)
3rd law of motion
d)
4th law of motion
134.
If there was no gravity, a horizontally thrown ball would _____________.
a)
fall to the ground
b)
travel horizontally
c)
travel up
d)
would not move
135.
Which of the following is defined as the force of gravity on matter?
a)
weight
b)
mass
c)
distance
d)
momentum
136.
The dog's force is?
a)
Applied
b)
Normal
c)
Gravitational
d)
Magnetic
137.
What force holds the planets in motion around the sun?
a)
Magnetic
b)
Electrical
c)
Gravitational
d)
Air Resistance
138.
What force brings the pencil down?
a)
Applied
b)
Magnetic
c)
Normal
d)
Gravitational
139.
An _______ force must act on an object for it to CHANGE it's motion
a)
balanced
b)
unbalanced
c)
gravitational
d)
electrical
140.
What is defined as a push or pull?
a)
force
b)
motion
c)
vector
d)
speed
141.
The unit of force is
a)
m/s
b)
m/s^2
c)
newton
d)
kg
142.
A little girl who was pulling her sled in the snow is now crying. When she stopped to tie her shoe, the sled kept moving and hit her in the legs. Which sentence best describes why this happened?
a)
Objects in motion will stay in motion unless acted on by an unbalanced force.
b)
Objects at rest will stay at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force.
c)
Objects in motion will stay in motion unless acted on by an balanced force.
d)
Objects at rest will stay at rest unless acted on by an balanced force.
143.
What is the net force
a)
10 N
b)
0 N
c)
25 N
d)
1 N
144.
All of the following are examples of limiting factors for a population except...
a)
space
b)
food
c)
time
d)
weather
145.
In which type of interaction do both species benefit?
a)
predation
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
d)
parasitism
146.
Which of these relationships is an example of parasitism?
a)
a bird building a nest on a tree branch
b)
a bat pollinating a saguaro cactus
c)
a flea living on a cat's blood
d)
ants protecting a tree that produces the ants' only food
147.
The series of predictable changes that occur in a community over time is called
a)
natural selection
b)
ecology
c)
commensalism
d)
succession
148.
In general, which of the following is a true statement about population size?
a)
If birth rate < death rate, population size increases
b)
If death rate < birth rate, population size decreases
c)
If birth rate > death rate, population size increases
d)
If death rate > birth rate, population size increases
149.
A freshwater lake has a muddy bottom, which is home to different types of algae and other organisms. Many species of fish feed on the algae. Which of the following is an ABIOTIC factor in this ecosystem?
a)
the temperature of the water
b)
the color of the algae
c)
the number of species of fish
d)
the amount of food available to the fish
150.
Which of the following lists the levels of organization in an ecosystem from the smallest unit to the largest?
a)
population, organism, community, ecosystem
b)
organism, population, ecosystem, community
c)
organism, community, population, ecosystem
d)
organism, population, community, ecosystem
151.
All the living and nonliving things that interact in a particular area make up a(n)
a)
ecosystem
b)
population
c)
community
d)
biome
152.
All the different populations that live together in an area make up a(n)
a)
ecosystem
b)
community
c)
habitat
d)
organism
153.
Counting hawks with and without bands on their legs is
a)
direct observation
b)
indirect observation
c)
sampling
d)
mark and recapture
154.
Counting the number of nests in an area is an example of
a)
direct observation
b)
indirect observation
c)
sampling
d)
mark and recapture
155.
The way a species makes its living is ...
a)
natural selection
b)
adaptation
c)
niche
156.
How do you think an increase in the fox population affected the hare population?
a)
The hares decreased beacause there were fewer food sources
b)
The hares increased because there were more food sources
c)
The hares decreased because there were more fox to prey on them
d)
The hares increased because they had more space
157.
In which of the following areas would primary succession most likely occur?
a)
A new island formed by the eruption of an undersea volcano
b)
A clearing in a forest left by cutting down the trees
c)
An abandon junkyard
158.
A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits and the other is harmed
a)
mutualism
b)
predation
c)
commensalism
d)
parasitism
159.
Which species are often pioneer species?
a)
cattails and algae
b)
pinetrees and oaks
c)
sagebrush and tumbleweed
d)
lichen and moss
160.
A symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other species is neither harmed or helped
a)
mutualism
b)
predation
c)
commensalism
d)
parasitism
161.
An interaction in which one organism kills and eats another organism
a)
competition
b)
mutualism
c)
commensalism
d)
predation
162.
Environmental conditions that prevent populations from increasing
a)
abiotic factors
b)
carrying capacity
c)
limiting factors
d)
biotic factors
163.
The largest population that an environment can support
a)
carrying capacity
b)
ecosystem
c)
adaptation
d)
limiting factors
164.
A(n) ______ is a group of organisms that are physically similar and can mate with each other to produce offspring that can also mate and reproduce.
a)
organism
b)
species
c)
population
d)
community
165.
A(n) ______ is a group of organisms that are physically similar and can mate with each other to produce offspring that can also mate and reproduce.
a)
organism
b)
species
c)
population
d)
community
166.
A term that means to leave a population is
a)
emigration
b)
immigration
c)
sampling
d)
population density
167.
A prairie dog, a hawk, and a badger all are members of the same ________________.
a)
niche
b)
community
c)
species
d)
population
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