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Spring Final Review

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The chart shows four alleles at the same locus that affect rabbits’ coat color. Each allele is dominant to the ones below it. Rabbits with an albino or Himalayan coat are more susceptible to predators. Which of the following genotypes will produce a rabbit that is least likely to survive?

a)

cchc

b)

Cc

c)

chc

d)

Cch

2.

Which of the following is the best explanation for the presence of light-colored lizards in the White Sands region of New Mexico, when darker lizards live in the surrounding areas?

a)

Light-colored lizards are more likely to survive and reproduce in the White Sands region.

b)

Light-colored lizards are replacing all of the darker lizards, regardless of the environment.

c)

Mutations in the White Sands region resulted in more lizards having a lighter color.

d)

Light-colored lizards prefer the White Sands environment, and darker lizards dislike it.

3.

A healthy individual is a carrier of a lethal allele but is unaffected by it. What is the probable genotype of this individual?

a)

two dominant normal alleles

b)

one recessive lethal allele and one dominant lethal allele

c)

one recessive lethal allele and one dominant normal allele

d)

one dominant lethal allele and one recessive normal allele

4.

A genetic disorder due to a recessive allele (a) is lethal in homozygous individuals (aa), whereas heterozygous individuals (Aa) have no symptoms. Based on this information, which of the following is likely to result?

a)

The disorder will quickly be eliminated since no recessive homozygotes will survive to reproduce.

b)

The disorder will be maintained in the population through the reproduction of heterozygotes.

c)

Only homozygous dominant (AA) individuals will survive.

d)

The prevalence of the disorder will increase over time.

5.

What are the two main sources of genetic variation?

a)

environment and resources

b)

habitat and food

c)

mutations and recombination

d)

fossils and vestigial organs

6.

Mutations within a DNA sequence are

a)

natural processes that produce genetic diversity.

b)

natural processes that always affect the phenotype.

c)

unnatural processes that always affect the phenotype.

d)

unnatural processes that are harmful to genetic diversity

7.

The diet of white-tailed deer consists primarily of shrubs. Sika are another species of deer that eat both grasses and shrubs. After a long drought, why might the Sika population be greater than the white-tailed deer population?

a)

Sika require less food than do the white-tailed deer.

b)

Sika require more water than the white-tailed deer.

c)

Sika have more food sources than the white-tailed deer.

d)

Sika have fewer food sources than the white-tailed deer.

8.

The evolution of new insect populations that are resistant to chemical insecticides illustrates the importance of what?

a)

Biological Control

b)

Use and Disuse

c)

Biodiversity

d)

Radioactivity

9.

A small portion of a population that is geographically isolated from the rest of the population runs the risk of decreased

a)

genetic drift.

b)

mutation rate.

c)

natural selection.

d)

genetic variation.

10.

Complete burning of plant material returns carbon primarily to the

a)

herbivores.

b)

water.

c)

vegetation.

d)

atmosphere.

11.

Which organisms are most critical in the nitrogen cycle?

a)

Plants

b)

Bacteria

c)

Animals

d)

Nitrates

12.

Carbon is used to make sugars in which step of the carbon cycle?

a)

transpiration

b)

digestion

c)

photosynthesis

d)

respiration

13.

Which of these organisms are most helpful in preventing Earth from being covered with the bodies of dead organisms?

a)

herbivores

b)

producers

c)

parasites and viruses

d)

fungi and bacteria

14.

The loss of which type of organism would cause all the other organisms to die as well?

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Secondary consumers

d)

Decomposers

15.

Dead plants and animal wastes are broken down by

a)

Producers

b)

Consumer

c)

Secondary consumers

d)

Decomposers

16.

Which of these organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid?

a)

clams

b)

sardines

c)

sharks

d)

kelp

17.

A farmer abandons one of his fields and over the years he notices that one community is replaced by another community. This is commonly called

a)

an energy pyramid.

b)

an abiotic community.

c)

a food chain.

d)

ecological succession.

18.

In many parts of the United States, native plants that once grew on the forest floor have been replaced by garlic mustard, an invasive species that thrives in cool forest floors. This situation is an example of

a)

Parasitism between species.

b)

Primary succession between species.

c)

Predation between species.

d)

Competition between species.

19.

The process of photosynthesis, transpiration, evaporation, condensation, respiration and excretion are all involved in the cycle of

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

nitrogen

d)

sulfer

20.

Which diagram correctly represents the process of mitosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.

Mitosis is a process by which

a)

an egg cell is created.

b)

a sperm cell is created

c)

cells shrivel and die

d)

a cell’s nucleus divides.

22.

A cell in the stem tip of a corn plant contains 20 chromosomes. After the cell divides, how many chromosomes should each resulting daughter cell contain?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

23.

The sun is considered the ultimate source of energy for life on Earth because

a)

all organisms carry out photosynthesis.

b)

the sun heats Earth’s atmosphere

c)

all organisms carry out cellular respiration.

d)

either photosynthetic organisms or organisms that have eaten them provide energy for all other organisms on Earth.

24.

The major atmospheric byproduct of photosynthesis is

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

25.

Which of the following is the chemical equation that summarizes photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+C6H12O6+energyà6H2O+CO2

b)

6CO2+6H2O+energyàC6H12O6+6O2

c)

6O2+C6H12O6àCO2+6H2O+energy

d)

6CO2+C6H12O6à6H2O+6O2+energy

26.

The X and Y chromosomes are known as

a)

gametes.

b)

gonads

c)

sex chromosomes

d)

autosomes

27.

Meiotic cells are found in

a)

the digestive system.

b)

ovaries and testes.

c)

the nervous system.

d)

all of the above

28.

The “father” of genetics is

a)

T. A. Knight.

b)

Hans Krebs.

c)

Gregor Mendel.

d)

None of the above

29.

What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

66%

d)

100%

30.

Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the

a)

law of dominance.

b)

law of universal inheritance.

c)

law of separate convenience.

d)

law of independent assortment.

31.

For the given phrase, choose the type of molecule that is most closely associated with the phrase. “Contains the hereditary information passed on from one generation to next generations in humans.”

a)

DNA, only

b)

Transfer RNA, only

c)

Messenger RNA, only

d)

Messenger and transfer RNA, only

32.

This diagram represents a molecule of

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

FSH

33.

Which two scientists proposed the double helix arrangement of DNA?

a)

Hardy and Weinberg

b)

Mendel and De Vries

c)

Darwin and Lamarck

d)

Watson and Crick

34.

The shape of the DNA molecule is described as a

a)

single helix.

b)

double helix.

c)

circular helix.

d)

triple helix.

35.

What is the name of the group of a three nucleotide sequence in mRNA that specifies an amino acid?

a)

Protein

b)

RNA

c)

Codon

d)

Amino acid

36.

What is the chain of amino acids called?

a)

Protein

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

Nucleotide

37.

Which of the following is not true about DNA and RNA?

a)

Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids.

b)

DNA and RNA contain sugars.

c)

Both DNA and RNA are double stranded.

d)

DNA and RNA have three nucleotides in common.

38.

Which structure pairs with adenine during the formation of messenger RNA?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

39.

In nucleotides, the letters A, G, C, and T represent

a)

Phosphate groups.

b)

Ribose sugars.

c)

Nitrogenous bases.

d)

Deoxyribose sugars.

40.

In which part of the cell structure does transcription take place?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

41.

Which is the correct sequence of protein synthesis?

a)

Protein to RNA to DNA

b)

RNA to DNA to protein

c)

DNA to RNA to protein

d)

RNA to protein to DNA

42.

Carbon dioxide is produced as cells break down nutrients for energy. Which of the following pairs of systems would participate in removing the carbon dioxide from the body?

a)

endocrine and circulatory

b)

circulatory and respiratory

c)

respiratory and endocrine

d)

reproductive and excretory

43.

The respiratory system depends on the nervous system for signals to

a)

enhance the amount of available oxygen in the lungs

b)

coordinate muscles controlling breathing.

c)

release enzymes to increase the exchange of gases.

d)

exchange gases with the circulatory system.

44.

The fight-or-flight response includes greater heart output and a rise in blood pressure. This response is due to

a)

insulin secreted by the pancreas.

b)

thyroxine secreted by the thyroid gland.

c)

oxytocin secreted by the pituitary gland.

d)

adrenaline secreted by the adrenal glands.

45.

Which of these secretes a hormone that regulates the rate of metabolism of the body?

a)

spleen

b)

cerebrum

c)

Thyroid

d)

kidney

46.

What is the greatest danger to a patient who has had damage to the skin?

a)

loss of oils produced by the skin

b)

excessive muscle contractions in the damaged area

c)

infections in uncovered tissues

d)

damaged tissue entering the blood stream

47.

Sweat and skin secretions contain a mixture of molecules that kills or limits the growth of many types of microbes. This control of microbes is an example of

a)

a nonspecific defense against infection.

b)

an enzyme-catalyzed biochemical reaction.

c)

a feedback loop to maintain homeostasis.

d)

specific immune response to infection by microbes.

48.

The human body contains proteins in the blood that can recognize invaders such as bacteria or virus’ before they have a chance to attack. These proteins are collectively referred to as

a)

hormones.

b)

antigens.

c)

antibodies.

d)

halides.

49.

The Sabin vaccine is a liquid containing weakened polio viruses. Vaccinated individuals become protected against polio because the weakened viruses

a)

prevent further viral invasion.

b)

induce an inflammatory response.

c)

promote production of antibodies.

d)

are too weak to cause illness.

50.

Which of the following require a host cell because they are not able to make proteins on their own?

a)

blue-green algae

b)

bacteria

c)

protozoans

d)

viruses

51.

How do human diseases caused by bacteria and diseases caused by viruses react to antibiotics?

a)

Neither responds to antibiotics.

b)

Both respond to antibiotics.

c)

Viral diseases respond to antibiotics; bacterial diseases do not.

d)

Bacterial diseases respond to antibiotics; viral diseases do not

52.

Individuals with HIV sometimes contract a pneumonia infection that is rare in the rest of the population because people with HIV

a)

are unable to fight off these pneumonia-causing organisms.

b)

are more often exposed to these pneumonia-causing organisms.

c)

release pheromones that attract the pneumonia-causing organisms.

d)

release substances that increase the strength of the pneumonia-causing organisms.