wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chapter 41

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A gas furnace produces heat for distribution through __________.

a)

Combustion

b)

Convection

c)

Electric sparks

d)

None of the above

2.

The gas supply to a gas furnace is maintained at a low pressure by the _________.

a)

air break

b)

manifold

c)

pressure regulator

d)

solenoid valve

3.

In some gas furnaces, a device consisting of an inverted opening in the flue that can operate to help prevent back pressure is known as the ___________.

a)

air break

b)

manifold

c)

pressure regulator

d)

solenoid valve

4.

A gas furnace that does not burn natural gas is most likely adjusted to burn

a)

crude oil

b)

gasoline

c)

hydrogen

d)

liquified petroleum (LP) gas

5.

Another term for perfect combustion is ___________ combustion

a)

complete

b)

incomplete

c)

integrated

d)

stoichiometric

6.

If a gas furnace has a fuel-air mixture with natural gas below 4%, the mixture is considered __________ for combustion

a)

lean

b)

rectified

c)

rich

d)

soft

7.

If a gas furnace has a fuel-air mixture with natural gas above 14%, the mixture is considered __________ for combustion

a)

lean

b)

rectified

c)

rich

d)

soft

8.

The important element that must be present win proper amounts and is consumed as it supports combustion is __________

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

9.

Air mixed with fuel prior to ignition is ___________.

a)

atmospheric

b)

flue air

c)

primary air

d)

secondary air

10.

Air that is added to a flame after ignition is ___________.

a)

atmospheric

b)

flue air

c)

primary air

d)

secondary air

11.

Proper combustion in a gas furnace is shown in a flame that burns the color _______.

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

red

d)

white

e)

yellow

12.

Natural gas is lighter than air

a)

True

b)

False

13.

LP gas produces more heat per pound than natural gas

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Natural gas requires more oxygen than LP gas for complete combustion

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Many combustion analyzers can be used to measure __________.

a)

carbon dioxide content

b)

carbon monoxide content

c)

stack temperature

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

16.

The term ultimate carbon dioxide content refers to the specific amount of carbon dioxide by volume that is present in the flue gas when the _______ to achieve complete combustion.

a)

exact amount of air is supplied

b)

maximum amount of excess air is supplied

c)

minimum amount of excess air is supplied

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

17.

Too much excess air increases the flame temperature in a furnace

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Increasing a furnace's gas pressure can produce the following effects, except ________

a)

a decrease in flame temperature

b)

a decrease in the oxygen content in the flue gas

c)

incomplete combustion

d)

similar conditions as a lack of air

e)

None of the above

19.

Furnace's gas pressure is typically measured in __________.

a)

in. WC

b)

microns

c)

PSIA

d)

PSIG

e)

None of the above

20.

As the amount of excess air increases, __________.

a)

a furnace's efficiency increases

b)

a furnace's stack temperature decreases

c)

more heat is being transferred in the heat exchanger

d)

more heat is carried through the flue to the outdoors

e)

All of the above

21.

The stack temperature in a noncondensing gas furnace should be __________.

a)

under 140°F

b)

between 140°F and 230°F

c)

between 230°F and 325°F

d)

between 325°F and 500°F

e)

between 140°F and 500°F

22.

A single unit that contains multiple components, such as manual shut off, adjustments, and a pressure regulator, is called a(n) ________ gas valve

a)

atmospheric

b)

combustion

c)

interlocked

d)

manifold

23.

During normal system operation, a gas valve allows flow primarily when ________.

a)

opened manually

b)

the pilot light goes out

c)

the thermostat calls for heat

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

24.

LP gas furnaces often have a pressure regulator that is separate from the gas valve

a)

True

b)

False

25.

A gas valve provides low-pressure gas to the _______.

a)

flue

b)

manifold

c)

regulator

d)

shutoff valve

26.

Specially sized orifices attached to the gas manifold are _______.

a)

ribbon burners

b)

slotted burners

c)

spuds

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

27.

A burner that produces a solid flame along the top length of its long, horizontal orifice is a(n) ________ burner

a)

inshot

b)

ribbon

c)

slotted

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

28.

At equal pressure, less natural gas will flow through an orifice than LP gas

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A burner that produces a series of individual flames along a row of horizontal orifices is a(n) __________ burner

a)

inshot

b)

ribbon

c)

slotted

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

30.

A single-port burner that directs the mixture of air and fuel gas through a large orifice to produce a large flame is a(n) ____________ burner

a)

inshot

b)

ribbon

c)

slotted

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

31.

A standing pilot is_______

a)

A flame that only stays lit when the system is off and igniting

b)

A flame that only stays lit when the system is off

c)

A flame that only stays lit when the system on

d)

A flame that only stays lit when the system ignites the burners

e)

A flame that always stays lit

32.

The purpose of a standing pilot is to ________.

a)

conduct a high-voltage signal

b)

ignite the gas burner flame

c)

preheat the plenum

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

33.

If the pilot in a natural gas furnace fails to light, the gas will collect in a low area and create pockets of highly explosive gas.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The safety device used in a standing pilot system to sense the pilot is a _________.

a)

Cad cell

b)

sensing bulb and diaphragm switch

c)

thermistor

d)

thermocouple

e)

All of the above

35.

An intermittent-pilot ignition system burns and monitors its pilot light _________.

a)

all the time

b)

once every 15 minutes during cold weather

c)

only while the thermostat is calling for heat

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

36.

Flame rectification involves using the pilot flame to ________.

a)

change the frequency of a small electric signal

b)

changes small electric current from ac to dc

c)

changes small electric current from dc to ac

d)

limi the current of an electrical signal

37.

Flame rectification is used for the purpose of __________.

a)

ionizing primary and secondary air for better combustion

b)

preheating the plenum

c)

providing power for electronic in the furnace controls

d)

verifying the presence of a pilot flame

38.

When a direct-spark ignition system's electrode and flame rod are packaged together, they provide what is known as _________ sensing

a)

local

b)

remote

c)

thermal

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

39.

During normal operation, a disadvantage that only a direct-spark ignition system can produce is ___________.

a)

electromagnetic interference (EMI)

b)

a fire hazard

c)

a gas leak

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

40.

Which gas furnace ignition device is very fragile, sensitive to vibration, and easily broken?

a)

flint striker

b)

hot surface igniter (glow coil)

c)

indirect pilot lighter

d)

spark igniter

41.

A hot-surface igniter reaches flame ignition temperature through _________.

a)

conduction of electrical current

b)

heat of high-voltage sparks

c)

physical friction

d)

pilot light pre-heating

42.

A gas furnace's ignition control module monitors several ________, which prevent the furnace from operating unless certain conditions are met

a)

electric interlocks

b)

mechanical linkages

c)

pressure bellows

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

43.

On modern gas furnaces, the first device that begins operation on a call for heat is the _________.

a)

blower

b)

burner

c)

combustion blower

d)

gas valve

44.

A primary difference between nonintegrated ignition controls and integrated ignition controls is the ability to __________.

a)

control ignition

b)

open and close the gas valve

c)

perform self-diagnostic function

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

45.

An ignition control module has ________ if it closes the gas valve but not the pilot valve when the flame rod does not detect a flame.

a)

100% shutoff

b)

100% shutoff with continuous retry

c)

non-100% shutoff

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

46.

Combined gas valve and pilot valve

a)

IGN

b)

IND

c)

MV/PV

d)

PSW

e)

PV

47.

Combustion blower

a)

GV, MGV. or, VI

b)

IGN

c)

IND

d)

MV/PV

e)

PSW

48.

Flame sensor

a)

FS or SENSE

b)

GV, MGV, or VI

c)

IGN

d)

IND

e)

MV/PV

49.

Hot-surface igniter

a)

GV, MGV, or VI

b)

IGN

c)

PSW

d)

IND

e)

MV/PV

50.

Main gas valve

a)

24 V

b)

24 V GND

c)

FS or SENSE

d)

GV, MGV, or VI

e)

IGN

51.

Pilot valve

a)

IGN

b)

IND

c)

MV/PV

d)

PV

e)

SPARK

52.

Pressure switch

a)

IGN

b)

IND

c)

MV/PV

d)

PSW

e)

PV

53.

Spark igniter

a)

PV

b)

SPARK

c)

24 V

d)

24 V GND

e)

FS or SENSE

54.

Switched leg of the secondary transformer

a)

SPARK

b)

24 V

c)

24 V GND

d)

FS or SENSE

e)

GV, MGV, or VI

55.

Unswitched leg of the secondary transformer

a)

24 V

b)

24 V GND

c)

FS or SENSE

d)

GV, MGV, or VI

e)

IGN

56.

The sheet metal chamber where heat collects before being distributed is called the __________.

a)

blower compartment

b)

bonnet

c)

draft chamber

d)

flue

57.

The primary action performed by a rollout switch when it is actuated is to ___________.

a)

close the gas valve

b)

stop the blower

c)

stop the combustion blower

d)

stop ignition

58.

Which two functions does a combustion blower perform?

a)

It circulates products of combustion and draws in return air

b)

It draws in conditioned air and circulates return air

c)

It draws in return air and circulates conditioned air

d)

It pre-purges the heat exchanger and exhausts flue gases

59.

A flow switch that uses a large paddle to catch a draft to open or close its contacts is a(n) _________ switch.

a)

end

b)

float

c)

pressure

d)

sail

60.

In a gas furnace application, a switch that connects to the end of a damper motor shaft is a(n) _______ switch

a)

end

b)

float

c)

pressure

d)

sail

61.

In a gas furnace application, a switch that uses a diaphragm to connect its contacts is a(n) _______ switch

a)

end

b)

float

c)

pressure

d)

sail

62.

The higher the efficiency of a gas furnace, the more likely it is to develop _________.

a)

condensation

b)

electrical shorts

c)

gas leaks

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

63.

Combustion blowers are used in ________.

a)

all gas furnaces ever

b)

high-efficiency furnaces only

c)

mid-efficiency furnaces only

d)

mid-efficiency and high-efficiency furnaces

64.

In low-efficiency gas furnaces, flue gases are moved outdoors by _________.

a)

the combustion blower

b)

the indoor blower

c)

natural convection

d)

the pressure switch

65.

The two primary variables that determine a furnace's venting classification are the _____ of the flue gas

a)

chemical content and pressure

b)

chemical content and temperature

c)

pressure and temperature

d)

pressure and volume

66.

Category I furnaces include low-efficiency and mid-efficiency furnaces

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Low-efficiency=Natural convection & older

d)

Low-efficiency=Natural convection & newer

e)

Mid-efficiency=Induced draft combustion motors

67.

Category IV furnaces have a ______.

a)

flue gas temperature less than 140°F

b)

low concentration of chemicals

c)

low volume of flue gas

d)

negative pressure

68.

Category III furnaces require venting made of ________.

a)

galvanized steel

b)

masonry

c)

plastic (PVC or CPVC)

d)

stainless steel

69.

Radiant gas heaters typically use elements made of _______.

a)

ceramic

b)

lava rock

c)

nichrome

d)

tungsten

70.

Gas radiant heating is primarily used for _________

a)

central radiant heating

b)

forced-air heating

c)

hydronic heating

d)

spot heating

e)

central forced-air heating

71.

Factors that affect pip size in a gas piping installation include the following, except ________.

a)

the amount of gas consumed by the furnace per hour

b)

pressure drop of piping

c)

piping material

d)

the specific gravity of gas

72.

A gas piping installation to a furnace or broiler should include a(n) ______ to trap and collect possible contaminants that may flow with the gas.

a)

drip leg

b)

filter-drier

c)

P trap

d)

U bend

73.

After an annual gas furnace inspection, the customer should be reminded to shut off the system and notify the technician if there are ________.

a)

unusual odors in the conditioned space

b)

new or unfamiliar sounds while the furnace is operating

c)

visibly burned components on the furnace

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

74.

On a gas furnace service call when measuring gas pressure or duct static pressures, use a ________.

a)

digital manometer

b)

multimeter

c)

small inspection mirror

d)

thermometer

75.

On a gas furnace service call when measuring flame sensor rectification, use a _______.

a)

digital manometer

b)

multimeter

c)

small inspection mirror

d)

thermometer

76.

If the gas burners are operation when the combustion blower is not operating, the _______ may be ruined

a)

indoor filter

b)

heat exchanger

c)

flue pipe

d)

pressure switch

77.

A chimney or flue pipe should extend at least __________ above the highest part of a roof

a)

1/2"

b)

2"

c)

2'

d)

2 Yards

78.

The type of venting that is composed of masonry is ________.

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

79.

The type of venting that is composed of double-wall metal is ______.

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

80.

High-efficiency furnace flue gases can be vented to the outside through a PVC pipe

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Thermostatic draft regulators open when a bimetal element senses and reacts to the heat of _________.

a)

conditioned air

b)

flue gas

c)

outdoors

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above