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lex june 2019

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

drums,bags and carboys are examples of___________containts?

a)

nonbulk

b)

bulk

c)

flammable- materials

d)

dry-bulk

2.

what is the most common method of transporting hazardous materals

a)

rail

b)

road

c)

air

d)

sea

3.

which tanker is used to transport ammonia, butane, or propane

a)

mc-306

b)

mc-312

c)

mc-331

d)

mc-338

4.

whitch tanker is used to transport cryogenic matertials?

a)

mc-306

b)

mc-312

c)

mc-331

d)

mc-338

5.

what does the national fire incident reporting system (NFIRS) do? (pg122)

a)

informs other responding units of current conditions

b)

gives descriptions of conditions as they appear on scene

c)

outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports

d)

provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene

6.

the standing part of the rope is:

a)

between two ropes of unequal diameter

b)

used to tie the knot or hitch

c)

between the working end and the running part

d)

used for hoisting or pulling

7.

which NFPA standard regulates requirements for life safety ropes?

a)

1983

b)

1991

c)

1973

d)

1500

8.

the working end of the rope is used:

a)

to stabilize objects being hoisted

b)

to secure a victim's hands or feet when dragging to safety

c)

as a safety measure when tying another knot

d)

to tie the knot or hitch

9.

the authorization for overhaul at a fire incident is given by the individual responsible for investigation and the

a)

IC

b)

fire chef

c)

overhaul crew

d)

salvage crew

10.

the activities conducted once the main body of fire has been extinguished are know as:

a)

salvage operations

b)

overhaul operations

c)

refurbish operations

d)

secondary operations

11.

what method of heat transfer occurs when a material is heated as the result of direct contact with a heat source

a)

potential

b)

radiation

c)

conduction

d)

convection

12.

what method of heat transfer can become the dominant mode as the fire grows in size

a)

potential

b)

radiation

c)

conduction

d)

convection

13.

what aspect of the fire development is a result of an increase in low level ventilation prior to upper level ventilation

a)

rollover

b)

backdraft

c)

combustion

d)

smoke explosion

14.

what type or freaction absords energy as it occurs

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

c)

exothermic

d)

endothermic

15.

what heat transfer method usually occurs through movement of hot smoke and fire gases

a)

potential

b)

radiation

c)

conduction

d)

convection

16.

what type of rapid fire development happens when all the combustible materials and gases in a compartment ignite almost simultaneously

a)

backdraft

b)

flashover

c)

combustion

d)

smoke explsion

17.

what is the step of extrication that begins at dispatch and continues throughout the incident (504)

a)

size up

b)

stabilizing the vehicle

c)

securing the electrical system

d)

securing passenger safety systems

18.

What basic presentation skill advises that firefighters should not use jargon when delivering a fire and life safety presentation? (1246)

a)

Positive attitude

b)

Conversational tone

c)

Best choice of words

d)

Good development of ideas

19.

What strategy for providing effective fire and life safety messages advises firefighters to instruct what to do rather than actions not to take? (1249)

a)

Positive messages

b)

Accurate messages

c)

Targeted messages

d)

Understandable messages

20.

What can the documentation developed during a preincident planning survey be used for? (1256)

a)

To improve on tactics that have been unsuccessful in the past

b)

To enhance the department’s public image

c)

To become familiar with structures in the district

d)

To identify code violations that fines should be assessed for

21.

Which of the following can be performed for further educational opportunity once hazards have been identified in a private dwelling fire safety survey? (1243)

a)

Reschedule for next inspection

b)

Explain fines from code violations

c)

Distribute fire and life safety literature

d)

Create new updated preincident planning report

22.

What strategy for providing effective fire and life safety messages takes into account factors such as season and recent fire incidents? (1250)

a)

Positive messages

b)

Accurate messages

c)

Targeted messages

d)

Understandable messages

23.

What method of organizing a message begins with an overview of the topic before describing each subsection? (1251)

a)

Step-by-step

b)

Whole-part-whole

c)

Simple-to-complex

d)

Known-to-unknown

24.

What strategy for providing effective fire and life safety messages requires the use of developed resources? (1249)

a)

Positive messages

b)

Accurate messages

c)

Targeted messages

d)

Understandable messages

25.

What conditions noted during a preincident planning survey will impact apparatus response and positioning? (1257)

a)

Distance from the street to the building

b)

Distance from front to rear entrance

c)

Property accessibility from the front and rear only

d)

Barriers to communication with building occupants

26.

A Firefighter II should use additional training to: (1058)

a)

predict victim responses to on-scene hazards.

b)

open a debate on the best attack strategy to use.

c)

gather votes from others on-scene to select attack strategies

d)

recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings.

27.

Which of the following BEST describes ignition of combustible liquids? (1068)

a)

These can be ignited without pre-heating.

b)

These need pre-heating and vapor for ignition.

c)

These require foam and an external fuel source for ignition.

d)

These must be heated above the flash point before igniting.

28.

Which of the following BEST describes the process taken at flammable gas incidents if gas is burning? (1076)

a)

Extinguish burning flame

b)

Request mutual aid extrication teams

c)

Use hose streams to protect exposures if needed

d)

Monitor, but do not shut off pressurized gas supply

29.

When activated clean agent systems suppress the fire by: (1072)

a)

blanketing the fire.

b)

deploying both water and another agent.

c)

cooling nearby objects eliminating radiant heat.

d)

filling the compartment with extinguishing agent.

30.

Which of the following BEST describes the flash point of flammable liquids? (1068)

a)

Less than 100°F (38°C)

b)

Greater than 100°F (38°C)

c)

Each varies, but it is never less than 50°F (10°C)

d)

Each varies, but it is always higher than 50°F (10°C)

31.

Techniques for extinguishment at bulk transport vehicle fires are similar to fires in: (1075)

a)

high-rise structures.

b)

underground tunnels.

c)

residential occupancies.

d)

flammable fuel storage facilities.

32.

Water as a mechanical tool can move ___ to where they can burn safely. (1073)

a)

Class A fuels

b)

Class B fuels

c)

Class C fuels

d)

Class K fuels

33.

Increased intensity of sound or fire from a relief valve indicates that the: (1070)

a)

valve is safely relieving excess pressure

b)

valve is reacting to the change of a gas to liquid.

c)

vessel is overheating and a rupture is imminent.

d)

vessel is releasing vapor to prevent overloading.

34.

Which of the following BEST describes what the size and quantity of hoselines can impact on-scene? (1060)

a)

The need for other resources.

b)

The location of apparatus on-scene.

c)

The use of the two-in, two-out rule.

d)

The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant.

35.

Which of the following defines the actions taken by the first-arriving engine company? (1058)

a)

Chief officer

b)

Department SOPs

c)

Incident Commander

d)

Pre-incident surveys

36.

Which of the following BEST describes when to withdraw when using the fast-attack command approach? (1065)

a)

When formal command ends.

b)

When combat command is required.

c)

When the incident is finalized and the Incident Command Post is no longer needed.

d)

When the incident is not stabilized, but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required.

37.

Which of the following BEST describes how operating pressure can be maintained for water-based suppression systems? (1071)

a)

Using the lowest possible pressure for all attack lines

b)

Requesting utilities shut off water to nearby structures

c)

Turning system water off and on periodically during suppression efforts

d)

Deploying supply hoses from hydrant to fire department connection (FDC)

38.

Which of the following BEST describes safety considerations during a blitz attack? (1062)

a)

Steam can assist in suppression efforts.

b)

Specialized rescue tools can injure teams.

c)

Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat

d)

This type of attack is only coordinated with the Incident Commander.

39.

What type of fixed system can allow deployment of attack hoselines in large area structures or industrial sites? (1071)

a)

Foam system

b)

Standpipe system

c)

Water-based system

d)

Automatic sprinkler system

40.

When pressure vessels are exposed to flame impingement, a minimum of ___ must be applied at each point of flame impingement. (1074)

a)

500 gpm (2 000 L/min)

b)

1000 gpm (4 000 L/min)

c)

1500 gpm (6 000 L/min)

d)

2000 gpm (8 000 L/min)

41.

What Command approach is used when the problem is not obvious to the first-arriving unit? (1064)

a)

Formal

b)

Combat

c)

Fast-attack

d)

Nothing showing

42.

Which of the following BEST describes emergency incident priorities? (1057)

a)

Extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation

b)

Property conservation, salvage, life safety

c)

Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation

d)

Incident stabilization, environmental conservation, confinement

43.

23. Four hazardous atmospheres that fire fighters are likely to encounter at a

fire are:

a)

A. super-heated air, toxic gases, oxygen deficiency, and smoke.

b)

B. toxic gases, hyperventilation, oxygen deficiency, and heat.

c)

C. heat, light, smoke, and chemical chain reaction.

d)

D. carbon monoxide, ammonia, water, and hydrogen sulfide.

e)

,m,

44.

What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122)

a)

Informs other responding units of current conditions

b)

Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene

c)

Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports

d)

Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene

45.

What do the stops do on an extension ladder?

a)

A. Prevent it from over-extending

b)

B. Limit how far the fly sections can collapse

c)

C. Lock the extensions in place when extended

d)

D. Prevent the whole ladder from slipping on the ground

e)

hjk

46.

Where does the top beam of the ladder rest in the one-fire fighter carry?

a)

A. On the hip

b)

B. In the hand

c)

C. On the shoulder

d)

D. On the crook of the elbow

e)

jk,

47.

One of the primary functions of the truck/ladder company is:

a)

A. performing forcible entry to fire building.

b)

B. directing traffic at fire scene.

c)

C. laying supply lines for engine companies.

d)

D. fire attack.

48.

Which of the following statements regarding the two SCBA types in fire service

use is incorrect?

a)

A. In an open-circuit SCBA, exhaled air is vented to the outside atmosphere.

b)

B. In a closed-circuit SCBA, exhaled air stays in the system for filtering,

cleaning, and circulation.

c)

C. The closed-circuit type is commonly used for structural firefighting

d)

D. SCBAs for fire service use are designed and built in accordance with NIOSH

and NFPA standards.

49.

What is the first step a fire fighter should perform before donning the SCBA?

a)

A. Check the air supply of the SCBA unit.

b)

B. Check the PASS device.

c)

C. Test the low air alarm.

d)

D. Loosen all straps on the harness.