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Concordia Nursing Patho/Pharm 351 Exam 2

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What would you recommend to a patient taking levodopa/carbidopa having nausea and vomiting?

a)

Take 30 minutes before meal and lower the dose

b)

Take with a high protein snack and raise the dose

c)

Take on an empty stomach and raise the dose

d)

Lower the dose and take with low protein snack

2.

What type of stroke is a patient with uncontrolled a-fib likely to experience?

a)

Ischemic thrombosis

b)

Ischemic embolism

c)

Hemorrhagic

d)

Ischemic stenosis

3.

Which patient is most at risk for hemorrhagic stroke?

a)

65 Year old male with carotid stenosis

b)

89 Year old female with atherosclerosis

c)

88 Year old male with uncontrolled HTN and Hx of aneurysm

d)

55 Year old female with a flutter

4.

A patient is recovering from a stroke with issues understanding speech. What area is affected?

a)

Expressive; Wernicke's area

b)

Receptive; Broca's area

c)

Expressive; Hippocampus

d)

Receptive; Wernicke's area

5.

Which neurotransmitter has been implicated in the development of Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Serotonin

6.

Slow movement and poor coordination are known as-

a)

Akinesia

b)

"Freeze up tremors"

c)

Bradykinesia

d)

Pill-rolling

7.

What is a common side effect of Ropinirole (Requip)?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Coughing

d)

Dark sweat or saliva

8.

Slightly jerky arm movements are known as

a)

Lead pipe rigidity

b)

Cogwheel rigidity

c)

Pronator rigidity

d)

Flexor rigidity

9.

Walking pneumonia is caused by which organism?

a)

Fungi

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

d)

Influenza

10.

Pain in an effected limb that improves with rest is caused by which of the following?

a)

Deep vein thrombosis

b)

Venous stasis

c)

Cellulitis

d)

Intermittent claudication

11.

Which disease has airway hyperesponsiveness and reversible airway obstruction?

a)

COPD

b)

Asthma

c)

Chronic emphysema

d)

Penumonia

12.

Which immune system causes bronchoconstriction in asthma?

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic

13.

Asthma that causes symptoms less than 2 days a week is:

a)

Mild persistent

b)

Intermittent

c)

Moderate persistent

d)

Severe persistent

14.

What medication(s) are used in step 1 of Asthma treatment?

a)

SABA

b)

Low-dose ICS

c)

LABA

d)

Oral corticosteroid

15.

If a patient's asthma is not controlled with a low dose ICS, what drug should be added?

a)

LABA or medium dose ICS

b)

Racemic epi or LABA

c)

LABA and Oral corticosteroid

d)

Cromolyn or LABA

16.

Which is not a risk of oral glucocorticoids?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Peptic ulcer

c)

Risk for infection

d)

Adrenal suppression

17.

Which to you administer first? Bronchodilator or inhaled glucocorticoid?

a)

Bronchodilator

b)

Inhaled glucocorticoid

18.

What 2 medications are in Advair?

a)

Salmeterol/Albuterol

b)

Albuterol/ Fluticasone

c)

Salmeterol/Fluticasone

d)

Albuterol/ Ipratropium

19.

Type A COPD (emphysema) is characterized by an:

a)

Increase in alveoli

b)

Atrophy of distal air space

c)

Loss of elastic tissue

d)

Decrease in cilia function

20.

Use of accessory muscles is associated with

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

21.

Pursed-lip breathing is associated with

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

22.

Dyspnea on exertion is associated with which disorders?

a)

Heart failure and emphysema

b)

Heart failure and chronic bronchitis

c)

Asthma

23.

Chronic cough is associated with

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Asthma

24.

Excessive mucous production is associated with

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

25.

Excess body fluids are associated with

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

26.

Barrel chest is associated with

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

27.

Digital clubbing is associated with

a)

Emphysema

b)

Chronic bronchitis

28.

When does COPD treatment begin?

a)

Onset of symptoms

b)

Peak flow <70% and symptoms

c)

Oxygen SaO2 <90% and symptoms

d)

Peak flow <60%

29.

Incomplete expansion of the lung or portion of the lung is

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Pulmonary embolism

30.

Which is not a symptom of atelectasis?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Decreased chest expansion

c)

Absent breath sounds

d)

Orthopnea

31.

Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching regarding beta blockers?

a)

Beta blockers block the actions of angiotensin II.

b)

Beta blockers decrease heart rate and contractility.

c)

Beta blockers decrease peripheral vascular resistance.

d)

Beta blockers decrease the release of renin.

32.

Why is heparin used to treat a DVT and not warfarin (Coumadin)?

a)

Heparin has fewer side effects

b)

The onset of Coumadin is delayed

c)

Coumadin prevent platelet aggregation

d)

Heparin has a longer half-life

33.

What is a common side effect of statin medications?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Yellow halos in vision

c)

Migraine

d)

Myopathy

34.

What is the action of an ACE Inhibitor?

a)

Help lower LDL cholesterol

b)

Help raise HDL cholesterol

c)

Increase venous return to the heart

d)

Reverse pathological changes in the heart

35.

What is the most common cause of patients stopping ACE Inhibitors?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Cough

c)

Anemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

36.

Which medication would be use to treat hypertension in a diabetic patient?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Beta blocker

c)

Thiazide diuretic

d)

Direct acting vasodilator

37.

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle by increasing:

a)

Stroke volume

b)

Blood volume

c)

Preload

d)

Afterload

38.

Which of the following is not a sign of right sided heart failure

a)

Jugular Vein distention

b)

Weight gain

c)

Persistent cough

d)

Peripheral edema

39.

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle by increasing:

a)

Stroke volume

b)

Blood volume

c)

Preload

d)

Afterload

40.

Stroke volume is defined as

a)

blood in left ventricle before systole

b)

volume of blood pumped from left ventricle

c)

volume of blood pumped from right ventricle

d)

blood in right ventricle before systole

41.

Preload is defined as

a)

volume in heart at end of systole

b)

volume in heart at end of diastole

c)

maximum volume heart pumps

d)

volume in vena cava before diastole

42.

Cardiac output is measured by

a)

afterload x stroke volume

b)

afterload x heart rate

c)

heart rate x stroke volume

d)

preload x stroke volume

43.

Thiazide diuretics work by

a)

decreasing fluid volume overload

b)

increasing pulmonary edema

c)

decreasing exertion tolerance

d)

decreasing cardiac output

44.

Aspirin can cause all but which of the following?

a)

GI bleeding

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Allergic reaction

d)

Thromboembolism

45.

What is the cause of Atherosclerosis?

a)

Age over 65

b)

Hyperlipidemia

c)

Heredity

d)

Hypertension

46.

A patient on heparin needs which labs assessed?

a)

PT/INR

b)

Potassium

c)

aPTT

d)

Troponin I

47.

A patient on Coumadin (warfarin) needs which labs assessed?

a)

PT/INR

b)

Potassium

c)

aPTT

d)

Troponin I

48.

Afterload is defined as

a)

Workload of the myocardium

b)

Workload of right ventricle to circulate blood to lungs

c)

Workload of the atria

d)

Workload of left ventricle to circulate systemic blood

49.

Swelling that worsens during the day is caused by

a)

heart failure

b)

chronic venous insufficiency

c)

pulmonary edema

d)

intermittent claudication

50.

When a patient is on a loop or thiazide diuretic, what lab should be assessed regularly?

a)

PT/INR

b)

Potassium

c)

Sodium

d)

Calcium

51.

Therapeutic effects of diuretics include

a)

Decreasing fluid volume

b)

Lower blood pressure

c)

Improved exercise tolerance

d)

All of the above

52.

For a patient with acute asthma exacerbation, what medication is the best choice

a)

Inhaled corticosteroid

b)

Anticholinergic

c)

SABA

d)

LABA

53.

Bronchoconstriction, mucosal edema, and wheezing are symptoms of which disorder?

a)

Asthma

b)

Emphysema

c)

Chronic bronchitis

d)

Pneumonia

54.

Which medication. is contraindicated in people with poor metabolism?

a)

Heparin

b)

Aspirin

c)

Clopidogrel

d)

Coumadin

55.

Which type of hypertension is secondary to an identifiable cause?

a)

Primary

b)

Stage I

c)

Secondary

d)

Stage II

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