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WorksheetsLQA 23
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The Pereyra needle is used in which specialty area of surgery?
a)
Neurology
b)
Urology
c)
Orthopedics
d)
Ophthalmology
2.
The use of distilled water during a highly invasive genitourinary procedure such as a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is prohibited for irrigation because of the potential for:
a)
hemolysis of RBC
b)
electrolytic dissipation of current
c)
increase of blood pressure
d)
body fluid shift
3.
Why is a 30-cc bag Foley used after a TURP?
a)
Hemostasis
b)
Decompression
c)
Creation of negative pressure
d)
Aspiration
4.
The three lumens of a Foley are used for inflation, drainage, and:
a)
prevention of urine reflux
b)
access for sterile urine specimens
c)
continuous irrigation
d)
additional hemostasis
5.
The purpose of the kidney bar or kidney lift is to:
a)
increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest
b)
increase the space between the ribs
c)
stabilize the patient
d)
support the body in the flexed position
6.
Why is the table straightened before closing a kidney incision?
a)
To facilitate easier respirations
b)
To create better approximation of tissues
c)
To facilitate better circulation
d)
To prevent nerve damage
7.
Nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is termed:
a)
prostatitis
b)
benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
c)
balanitis
d)
prostatism
8.
Urethral strictures can be dilated by use of each of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Philips filiform and followers
b)
Van Buren sounds
c)
Braasch bulb
d)
McCarthy dilators
9.
A staghorn stone is one that lodges and continues to grow in the:
a)
renal calyx
b)
space of Retzius
c)
ureter
d)
hilum
10.
In cystoscopy, the irrigating solution is:
a)
distilled water
b)
glycine
c)
mannitol
d)
sorbitol
11.
Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires all of the following EXCEPT a/an:
a)
Alexander periosteotome
b)
Doyen raspatory
c)
Heaney clamp
d)
Stille shears
12.
Penile condylomata are most successfully removed by:
a)
dermabrasion
b)
laser
c)
cautery
d)
ultrasound
13.
Removal of a testis or the testes is called:
a)
orchiopexy
b)
orchiectomy
c)
epididymectomy
d)
vasectomy
14.
Which solution is NOT used during a trans-urethral prostatectomy?
a)
Normal saline
b)
Sorbitol
c)
Mannitol
d)
Glycine
15.
Temporary diversion of urinary drainage by means of an external catheter that drains the renal pelvis is called:
a)
vesicostomy
b)
nephrostomy
c)
pyelostomy
d)
cystostomy
16.
The procedure to treat organic sexual impotence is:
a)
spermatocelectomy
b)
varicocelectomy
c)
testicular implant
d)
penile implant
17.
Microscopic reversal of the male sterilization procedure is termed:
a)
spermatogenesis
b)
orchiopexy
c)
vasovasostomy
d)
vasectomy
18.
A needle biopsy of the prostate may be accomplished with a/ an:
a)
butterfly needle
b)
angiocatheter
c)
Tru-Cut needle
d)
taper needle
19.
When the male penis is curved ventrally with the meatus and the glans in close proximity to each other it is called:
a)
paraphimosis
b)
phimosis
c)
epispadias
d)
chordee
20.
Continuous irrigation following TURP is accomplished by use of a:
a)
suprapubic cystotomy tube
b)
30-cc three-way Foley catheter
c)
5-cc three-way Foley catheter
d)
30-cc two-way Foley catheter
21.
When the prostate gland is removed through an abdominal incision into the anterior prostatic capsule, it is called a __ prostatectomy.
a)
perineal
b)
suprapubic
c)
retropubic
d)
transurethral
22.
Kidney stones are sent to the laboratory in:
a)
saline
b)
water
c)
dry state
d)
formalin
23.
A Pereyra procedure is done for:
a)
stress incontinence
b)
chronic bladder infection
c)
drainage of the bladder
d)
impotence
24.
A percutaneous nephrolithotomy utilizes all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
ultrasound wand
b)
flexible nephroscope
c)
lithotripter
d)
lithotripter tub
25.
Orchiopexy can be defined as:
a)
fixation of an ovary
b)
uterine suspension
c)
testicle removal
d)
fixation of a testicle
26.
Abdominal resection of the prostate gland through an incision into the bladder is known surgically as a:
a)
retropubic prostatectomy
b)
suprapubic prostatectomy
c)
transurethral prostatectomy
d)
suprapubic cystostomy
27.
A lumbar or simple flank incision for ureter or kidney surgery may include removal of which ribs?
a)
5 and 6
b)
7 and 8
c)
9 and 10
d)
11 and 12
28.
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the scrotum is a/ an:
a)
hydrocele
b)
enterocele
c)
varicocele
d)
hydronephrosis
29.
Bladder stones are crushed with a:
a)
basket catheter
b)
lithotrite
c)
cautery
d)
resectoscope
30.
Urethral meatal stenosis is corrected by a/ an:
a)
frenulotomy
b)
meatotomy
c)
urethral dilation
d)
extirpation of the penis
31.
In a penile implant, the inflation pump is located in the:
a)
distal penis
b)
proximal penis
c)
scrotum
d)
groin
32.
Excision of the tunica vaginalis is a:
a)
vagotomy
b)
vasectomy
c)
varicocelectomy
d)
hydrocelectomy
33.
Circumcision refers to:
a)
removal of the foreskin
b)
removal of the glans
c)
widening of the urethral opening
d)
lengthening of the foreskin
34.
An alternative approach to surgical TURP utilizing a cystoscopic setup as its base is:
a)
suprapubic prostatectomy
b)
transcystoscopic urethroplasty
c)
perineal prostatectomy
d)
retropubic prostatectomy
35.
The laser used to destroy small recurrent bladder tumors is the:
a)
CO2
b)
argon
c)
Nd:YAG
d)
Both A and B
36.
Following anastomosis of a ureter during a ureteral reimplantation procedure, a __ is left in place to ensure free drainage of the kidney postoperatively.
a)
Foley catheter
b)
ureteral catheter
c)
T-tube
d)
soft stent
37.
A reverse sterilization procedure in the male is called a/ an:
a)
vasostomy
b)
vasovasostomy
c)
epididymovasostomy
d)
Both B and C
38.
Before insertion of a penile implant, the insertion site, as well as the implant itself, is irrigated with:
a)
normal saline
b)
Betadine
c)
sterile water
d)
kanamycin and bacitracin
39.
To prevent thrombi from forming in the walls of the renal vein during transfer from the donor to the recipient, is given just before clamping of the renal vessels.
a)
furosemide
b)
protamine sulfate
c)
heparin
d)
mannitol
40.
The drug of choice for adequate diuresis of a living donor before, during, and postremoval of the kidney is:
a)
urea
b)
protamine sulfate
c)
Ringer's lactate solution
d)
mannitol
41.
All of the following are ideal requirements of cadaver donors EXCEPT:
a)
any age
b)
free of infection or malignancy
c)
normotensive up until death
d)
under hospital observation before death
42.
Cooling and flushing of pancreas, liver, and kidneys of cadaver donors is accomplished by cannulation of the organ and infusion of large amounts of cold:
a)
saline solution
b)
Ringer's lactate solution
c)
sterile water
d)
Sack's solution
43.
Nonconducting, isosmotic glycine irrigating solution must be used in the surgical presence of a:
a)
cystoscope
b)
ureteroscope
c)
resectoscope
d)
nephroscope
44.
All of the following procedures may be completed through a cystoscope EXCEPT:
a)
biopsy of bladder tumor
b)
removal of foreign body in bladder
c)
total removal of bladder tumor
d)
cystogram for diagnostic studies
45.
After incision is made into the scrotum dur- ing a vasectomy, the forceps used to grasp the vas and bring it to the surface for surgery is the:
a)
Allis
b)
Babcock
c)
Kelly
d)
mosquito
46.
Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) disintegrates stones by introducing shock waves into the body through the medium of:
a)
water
b)
air
c)
gas
d)
saline
47.
Laser lithotripsy utilizes the tunable pulsedyed laser known as:
a)
diode
b)
Nd:YAG
c)
Candela
d)
argon
48.
The inability to control urination is:
a)
reflux
b)
urinary incontinence
c)
hydrocele
d)
chronic bladder infection
49.
The radiographic diagnostic test used to outline the structures of the kidney ureters and bladder is known as:
a)
MRI
b)
retrograde pylogram
c)
GU radiograph
d)
KUB
50.
Overabsorbtion of irrigation fluid that may result in vascular overload is known as:
a)
extravasation
b)
intravasation
c)
hemolysis
d)
hydronephrosis
51.
All are urethral catheters EXCEPT:
a)
whistle tip
b)
spiral tip
c)
Braasch bulb
d)
three-way Foley
52.
When performing an ileal conduit for urinary diversion, the ureters are implanted into:
a)
bladder
b)
ileum
c)
trigone
d)
large intestine
53.
If a patient is undergoing a right nephrectomy for a right renal tumor, the position is:
a)
a right lateral kidney
b)
a left lateral kidney
c)
supine
d)
prone
54.
What syringe is used to evacuate bladder, prostate or Stone fragments?
a)
Cystoscope
b)
Ellik
c)
Toomey
d)
Both B and C
55.
Which of the following dilators are used to dilate the urethra?
a)
Hanks
b)
Hagar
c)
Cysto
d)
Van Buren
56.
Which incision is used when doing a TURP?
a)
Suprapubic
b)
Retropubic
c)
Pfannenstiel
d)
None of the above
57.
Insertion of a suprapubic catheter into the bladder for drainage away from the vaginal and urethral area is:
a)
Foley catheter
b)
ileal conduit
c)
cystostomy
d)
Stamey procedure
58.
Discharge of urine from the urinary bladder is called:
a)
plasma flow
b)
albumen urea
c)
renal clearance
d)
micturition
59.
The condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the top side of the penis?
a)
Penile implant
b)
Hypospadias
c)
Epispadias
d)
Meatotomy
60.
This procedure is performed on a patient with chronic and end-stage renal disease to aid in filtering the blood and removing ingested toxins.
a)
AV fistula
b)
AV shunt
c)
Peritoneal dialysis
d)
All of the above
61.
The tissue covering of the kidney that keeps it in its normal position is:
a)
glomerulus
b)
renal pelvis
c)
Gerota's
d)
loop of Henley
62.
Which of the following instruments are used to dilate the urethra?
a)
Hank
b)
Hagar
c)
Bakes
d)
Van Buren
63.
The first step of urine production where fluids are dissolved and forced through the membrane is:
a)
glomerular filtration
b)
peritoneal dialysis
c)
hemolysis
d)
osmosis
64.
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is:
a)
renal pelvis
b)
nephron
c)
renal calyx
d)
Gerota' s capsule
65.
Procedure to remove urinary calculus include:
a)
ileal conduit
b)
laparoscopic nephrectomy
c)
ESWL
d)
TURP
66.
The trigone includes:
a)
openings of both ureters
b)
urethral opening in the bladder
c)
Both A and B
d)
connection of the kidney to ureter, ureter to bladder, bladder to urethral meatus
67.
Rupturing of RBCs and releasing their contents into the surrounding blood stream is caused by:
a)
hemolysis
b)
extravasation
c)
hydronephrosis
d)
distribution
68.
The catheter placed in the bladder through a surgical opening in the abdomen for urinary diversion is:
a)
Coude
b)
Robinson
c)
supra pubic
d)
None of the above
69.
How many cc's of sterile water is used to fill a 16-F 5-cc Foley catheter?
a)
1 to 5
b)
5 to 6
c)
8 to 10
d)
10 to 12
70.
When performing a penile implant, the reservoir is placed in the_, the cylinders in the __ , and the pump in the __ .
a)
scrotum, penis, abdomen
b)
penis, scrotum, abdomen
c)
abdomen, penis, scrotum
d)
abdomen, scrotum, penis
71.
Transrectal seed implantation is performed for cancer within the prostate. The physicians involved with the treatment include all except:
a)
radiation oncologist
b)
OB/GYN
c)
GU
d)
medical physicist
72.
A vesicovaginal fistula is a fistula between the:
a)
vagina and intestines
b)
vagina and anus
c)
vagina and bladder
d)
vagina and the rectum
73.
A TVT sling is used for:
a)
urinary stress incontinence
b)
kidney stones
c)
kidney tumor
d)
Both b and C
74.
All are true regarding a kidney transplant EXCEPT:
a)
the right kidney is usually taken because it is the smaller one and the larger kidney is left for the donor patient.
b)
Gibson incision is used
c)
Mannitol is used
d)
a kidney transplant is the transplantation of only a cadaver donor kidney into the recipient's iliac fossa
75.
The most common tumor of the kidney in children is:
a)
Wilms tumor
b)
neuroblastoma
c)
nephrosarcoma
d)
glioblastoma
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