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4NA Revision Test Chemistry 1

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)
freeze the mixture
b)
filter the mixture
c)
evaporate the mixture
d)
distill the mixture
2.
a)
to purify water
b)
to obtain a salt from a salt solution
c)
to identify contaminants in food or drugs
d)
to measure the pH value of a solution
3.
What is the most suitable process to obtain salt crystals from seawater?
a)
evaporation
b)
distillation
c)
paper chromatography
d)
filtration
4.

Which dyes are present in the ink spot?

a)

blue, green and purple

b)

red, yellow and blue

c)

red, yellow and purple

d)

yellow, blue and green

5.

What is the flow of water in 6 and 7?

a)

6: water in; 7: water out

b)

6: water out; 7: water in

6.

What is the function of adding boiling chips to 15?

a)

to ensure smooth boiling of the mixture

b)

to increase the boiling point of the mixture

c)

to increase the speed of distillation

d)

to be dissolved in the mixture

7.

A mixture of water (bp 100oC) and alcohol (bp 78oC) is distilled. Which will be found in 8 first?

a)

water

b)

ethanol

8.

Sublimation is a ____________ change when __________________________

a)

chemical; gas turns into solid

b)

chemical; solid turns into gas

c)

physical; gas turns into solid

d)

physical; solid turns into gas

9.

Which of the following is the best method to separate ink?

a)

Separating funnel

b)

Chromatography

c)

Distillation

d)

Filtration

10.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.

How to test for hydrogen gas?

a)

Gas produced relights glowing splint.

b)

Gas produced extinguishes glowing splint with "pop" sound.

c)

Gas produced extinguishes lighted splint with "pop" sound.

d)

Gas produced gives a white ppt in limewater,

14.

How are solid particles arranged?

a)

Closely packed and orderly

b)

Closely packed and disorderly

c)

Far apart and orderly

d)

Far apart and disorderly

15.

During melting,

a)

heat energy is lost

b)

heat energy is gained

c)

temperature increases

d)

temperature remains constant

16.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

17.
Subatomic particles that are neutral in charge
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Nucleus 
d)
Electrons
18.
Atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons
a)
Ion
b)
Gluons
c)
Isotope
d)
Quarks
19.
True or False - Protons and Neutrons have about the same mass.
a)
True - They have about the same mass
b)
False - They do not have about the same mass
20.
How many protons does this atom have?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
21.

B

a)

A

b)

C

c)

C

d)

D

22.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

23.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

Limestone buildings made of calcium carbonate can react with ‘acid rain’.

Which gas is produced in this reaction?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

nitrogen dioxide

d)

sulfur dioxide

25.

The chemical formula of propanoic acid is C2H5COOH.

How many elements are present in propanoic acid?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

11

26.

Rubidium, Rb, is a Group I element.

Which compound is formed when rubidium reacts with cold water?

a)

RbO

b)

Rb2O

c)

RbOH

d)

Rb(OH)2

27.

A blast furnace is used to extract iron from its ore. The raw materials used are haematite, limestone and coke.


Why is limestone added to the blast furnace?

a)

to convert the ore into iron

b)

to cause the furnace to heat up

c)

to remove impurities in the ore as slag

d)

to produce oxygen for the coke to burn

28.

Which of the following is true for all aqueous solutions of acids?

a)

They turn blue litmus paper red

b)

They taste bitter and feel slippery.

c)

They react with all metals to form hydrogen gas.

d)

They react with ammonium salts to form ammonia gas

29.

Which pollutant is produced by both lightning activity and internal combustion engines?

a)

nitrogen dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

ozone

d)

sulfur dioxide

30.

Which statement about amphoteric oxide is correct?

a)

It will not react with either hydrochloric acid or sodium hydroxide.

b)

It will react with hydrochloric acid but not with sodium hydroxide.

c)

It will react with sodium hydroxide but not with hydrochloric acid.

d)

It will react with both hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.

31.

EC of 2,8,7 means the element is in

a)

Group 7 and Period 3

b)

Group VII and Period 3

c)

Group 3 and Period 7

d)

Group III and Period 7

32.

Which metal is extracted by electrolysis?

a)

calcium

b)

copper

c)

zinc

d)

iron

33.

pH of 1 means the substance is a

a)

weak acid

b)

weak alkali

c)

strong acid

d)

strong alkali

34.

Acid reacts with carbonate to form

a)

salt and water

b)

salt and hydrogen

c)

salt, water and carbon dioxide

d)

salt, water and ammonia

35.

Which solution causes Universal indicator to turn from green to blue?

a)

nitric acid

b)

vinegar

c)

water

d)

calcium hydroxide

36.

Neutralisation happens when

a)

acid reacts with metals

b)

acid reacts with alkalis/bases

c)

acid reacts with metal carbonates

d)

acid reacts with ammonium salts

37.

Bases are

a)

metal oxides / hydroxides

b)

non - metal oxides

38.

What is the approximate volume of nitrogen in 500 cm3 of air?

a)

50 cm3

b)

100 cm3

c)

200 cm3

d)

400 cm3

39.

How is carbon monoxide produced?

a)

complete combustion of fuels in cars

b)

complete combustion of fossil fuels in cars

c)

incomplete combustion of fossil fuels in cars

d)

incomplete combustion of fuels in cars

40.

What is the effect of sulfur dioxide on the evnvironment?

a)

It causes acid rain.

b)

It causes acid rain which corrodes limestone buildings.

c)

It forms stable compound with haemoglobin in blood and starve the body of oxygen and cause death.

41.

Why are alloys generally used to make everyday objects?

a)

Alloys are often stronger 7 stronger than pure metals.

b)

Alloys have higher melting point than pure metals.

c)

Alloys are less expensive to produce than pure metals.

d)

Alloys have ionic bonds instead of metallic bonds.

42.
Which of the following is NOT a property of a metal?
a)
ductile
b)
good electrical conductor
c)
good thermal insulator
d)
malleable
43.
Which of the following is classified as an alkali metal?
a)
Lithium
b)
Calcium
c)
Iron
d)
Gold
44.
True or False:  Alkali metals have low densities and low melting points.
a)
True 
b)
False
45.
Which gas is produced as a waste product when iron is extracted from its ore in the blast furnace?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Oxygen
46.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
47.

Which statement is not a reason for recycling iron?

a)

Recycling decreases the energy requirement.

b)

Recycling decreases the amount of natural resources available.

c)

Recycling decreases the environmental damage due to mining.

d)

Recycling decreases the amount of scrap iron accumulating in the environment.

48.

Which diagram shows arrangement in steel?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

Sodium + calcium bromide -->

a)

sodium bromide + calcium

b)

no visible reaction

50.

calcium + copper(II) bromide --> calcium bromide + copper

a)

calcium is less reactive than copper, thus it displaces copper from copper(II) bromide

b)

calcium is more reactive than copper, thus it displaces copper(II) from copper(II) bromide

c)

calcium is more reactive than copper, thus it displaces copper from copper(II) bromide

51.

What are the three raw materials for iron extraction?

a)

calcium, limestone and hematit

b)

coke, limestone and haematite

c)

coke, limestone and hematite

d)

coke, limewater and haematite

52.

Which of the following correctly describes metal reactions?

a)

Metals react with water to form metal oxide and hydrogen.

b)

Metals react with water to form metal hydroxide and hydrogen.

c)

Metals react with acids to form metal hydroxide and hydrogen.

d)

Metals react with steam to form metal oxide and hydrogen.

e)

Metals react with acids to form salt and hydrogen.

53.
A compound that contains hydrogen and carbon is known as a ....
a)
Mixture
b)
Hydrocarbon
c)
HydrogenCarbon
d)
Crude oil
54.
The process of separating the different length hydrocarbons from crude oil is known as...
a)
Distillation
b)
Cracking
c)
Fractional Distillation
d)
Filtering
55.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
56.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
57.
How many carbon atoms are in butane
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
58.
If an alkane has 20 carbon atoms, how many hydrogen atoms will it have?
a)
20
b)
22
c)
40
d)
42
59.
The longer the hydrocarbon, the _______ the boiling point
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
60.
The longer the hydrocarbon, the ________ the flammability?
a)
Lower
b)
Higher
61.
What are the two products of complete combustion?
a)
Water and carbon monoxide
b)
Water and carbon dioxide
c)
Hydrogen and water
d)
Carbon dioxide
62.

8.7: What liquid is used to detect carbon dioxide?

a)

Water

b)

Alkene Water

c)

Bromine Water

d)

Limewater

63.
What gas is given off what a hydrocarbon has incomplete combustion?
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Carbon Monoxide
d)
Oxygen
64.
What is cracking?
a)
Shorter chain fractions are built up into longer chain fractions.
b)
The petrol fraction is removed from the rest of the crude oil.
c)
The crude oil is separated into fractions by heating.
d)
Longer chain fractions are broken into shorter chain fractions.
65.

The general formula of the alkanes is:

a)

CnH2n

b)

CnH2n-2

c)

CnH2n+2

d)

C2nHn

66.

Petrol is used for:

a)

Fuel in cars

b)

Fuel in aircraft

c)

Domestic heating and cooking

d)

Road surfacing

67.

Kerosene (paraffin) is used for:

a)

Fuel for cars

b)

Domestic heating and cooking

c)

Fuel in aircraft

d)

Fuel for large ships and in power stations

68.

Diesel oil is used for:

a)

Fuel in cars

b)

Fuel in aircraft

c)

Road and roof surfacing

d)

Fuel in some cars and larger vehicles

69.

Members of a homologous series have:

a)

The same general formula

b)

A trend in chemical properties

c)

A trend in physical properties

d)

The molecular formulas of successive members differ by CH2

70.

Cracking conditions are:

a)

Catalyst

b)

Temperatures of 200°C - 400°C

c)

Temperatures of 400°C - 700°C

d)

Pressure of 70 atm

e)

Pressure of 40 atm

71.

Alkanes are unsaturated hydrocarbons.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The general formula of the alkenes is:

a)

CnH2n+2

b)

CnH2n

c)

CnH2n-2

d)

Cn+2H2n

73.

What is this molecule?

a)

Butane

b)

But-1-ene

c)

But-2-ene

d)

Butene

74.

What is the chemical test to differentiate between alkane and alkene?

a)

Pass aqueous bromine into both substances.

with alkane: Red brown bromine turns colourless quickly

with alkene: No visible reaction.

b)

Pass aqueous bromine into both substances.

with alkane: No visible reaction.

with alkene: Red brown bromine turns colourless quickly

75.

Which of the following best describes alkanes?

a)

They are unsaturated hydrocarbons with C-C single bonds only.

b)

They undergo substituition when there is light catalyst.

c)

They undergo addition with hydrogen when there is light catalyst.

d)

They undergo substitution with chlorine when there is light catalyst.

76.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal and 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
77.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal and 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
78.
How are covalent bonds explained?
a)
When one atom takes the other atom's electron
b)
When the atom shares an electron with an another atom
c)
When the two nucleus merge
d)
When the neutrons leave the nucleus
79.
How are ionic bonds formed?
a)
When atoms share an electron
b)
When opposite charged atoms attract
c)
When one atom takes a proton
d)
When one atom takes a neutron
80.

A bond between a metal and a nonmetal is called a(n)

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

transfer bond

81.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: MgO

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

82.

Covalent molecules have ____ BP because _____ amount of heat energy is needed to overcome _________ ____________ force of attraction between ______.

a)

high ; large; strong electrostatic ; ions

b)

high ; large; strong intermolecular ; molecules

c)

low ; small; weak intermolecular ; molecules

d)

low ; small; weak electrostatic ; molecules

83.

Addition with hydrogen to ethene requires

a)

aluminium oxide catalyst, high temperature and high pressure

b)

nickel catalyst, 200 deg Celsius

c)

light catalyst

d)

aqueous bromine

84.

Cracking is

a)

the breakdown of long hydrocarbon molecules to smaller molecules

b)

when alkene undergo addition

c)

when alkane undergo combustion

d)

when ethene undergoes addition with hydrogen

85.

Down Group I,

a)

reactivity decrease

b)

melting point decrease

c)

colour darkens