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Physical Science NCFE Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mass, relative density, solubility, color, texture, state of matter, conductivity, etc.

a)

Physical state

b)

Chemical properties

c)

Physical Properties

d)

Inferences

2.
What is the definition of Melting / freezing point
a)
the temperature at which a substance changes from a liquid to a solid or a solid to a liquid by the loss or addition of heat; for water this temperature is 0°C
b)
the decimal measuring system based on the meter, liter, and gram as units of length, volume (capacity), and weight or mass
c)
a combination of two or more substances that can be easily separated in some physical way
d)
properties of matter that can be observed, measured, or changed without changing the matter itself
e)
floating or sinking when compared to water
3.
Example for chemical property
a)
malleability
b)
texture
c)
combustion
d)
sour taste
4.
Cookies and cream ice cream would be classified as
a)
A homogenous mixture
b)
A heterogenous mixture
c)
An element
d)
A compound
5.
Two substances physically combined and that appears the same throughout is classified as
a)
A homogeneous mixture
b)
A heterogeneous mixture
c)
An element
d)
  A compound
6.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
7.

A homogeneous mixture that is cloudy/milky and shows light scattering.

a)

colloid

b)

suspension

c)

solution

8.

The chart shows the density of five gases. A gas has a volume of 4.52 L. If its mass is 8.05 g, what is the identity of the gas?

a)

helium

b)

neon

c)

argon

d)

krypton

9.

Four different liquids will be separately poured into a single beaker. The liquids are ethanol, milk, oil, and water. The density for each liquid at room temperature is listed in the table below. How will the liquids be arranged from bottom to top in the beaker?

a)

milk, water, oil, ethanol

b)

milk, water, ethanol, oil

c)

water, milk, oil, ethanol

d)

water, oil, ethanol, milk

10.

Which substance is most likely classified as a colloid?

a)

soft drink

b)

oxygen gas

c)

water

d)

fog

11.

This chart lists the densities of various gemstones. A gemstone has a mass of 6.24 g and a volume of 1.98 cm3. What is the identity of the gemstone?

a)

opal

b)

diamond

c)

garnet

d)

topaz

12.

Which situation provides the best evidence that a chemical reaction is taking place?

a)

a metal strip bends when heated

b)

a solution freezes in the freezer

c)

two solutions mixed in a beaker produce a solid

d)

a chemical completely dissolves in a water and the temperature of the solution remains constant

13.

A teacher wants to demonstrate a chemical reaction to her students. Which activity would best demonstrate a chemical reaction?

a)

placing a metal in an acid to create a gas

b)

measuring the densities of liquid water and ice

c)

melting a solid piece of aluminum

d)

filling a balloon with helium gas

14.

An atom has 29 protons, 29 electrons, and 35 neutrons. What is the mass number of the atom?

a)

29

b)

35

c)

64

d)

93

15.

How many protons are there in an atom of Boron?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

11

d)

10

16.

Which describes an atom with an atomic number of 9?

a)

10 protons, 9 neutrons

b)

9 protons, 10 neutrons

c)

4 protons, 5 neutrons

d)

3 protons, 3 neutrons

17.

Which of the following best describes the atom shown in the Bohr diagram?

a)

It has 6 electrons

b)

It has a positive charge.

c)

It has 6 valence electrons.

d)

It has a full outermost energy level.

18.

Which groups are the most chemically reactive?

a)

Alkali Metals (1) & Halogens (17)

b)

Alkali Metals (1) & Transition Metals (3-12)

c)

Transition Metals (3-12) & Halogens (17)

d)

Metalloids (13-15) & Noble Gases (18)

19.

If an atom has 10 protons and 12 neutrons what is the mass number?

a)

22

b)

10

c)

12

d)

2

20.

What do the dots on this diagram represent?

a)

valence electrons

b)

all electrons

c)

protons

d)

neutrons

21.

How many valence electrons does Fluorine (F) have?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

17

d)

18

22.

Which element is represented by this electron dot diagram?

a)

boron (B)

b)

Sulfur (S)

c)

phosphorus (P)

d)

bromine (Br)

23.

Which two elements have the same number of valence electrons?

a)

C and O

b)

Na and Mg

c)

Cl and F

d)

Ga and Ge

24.

How many valence electrons are in a neutral atom of nitrogen (N)?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

15

25.

Which of these elements is the most chemically reactive?

a)

beryllium (Be)

b)

calcium (Ca)

c)

strontium (Sr)

d)

radium (Ra)

26.

This diagram represents a neutral atom of fluorine-19. Which best describes the structure of fluorine-19?

a)

2 electrons in the first energy level; 7 electrons in the second energy level

b)

2 electrons in the first energy level; 8 electrons in the second energy level

c)

9 protons and 9 neutrons in the nucleus

d)

10 protons and 9 neutrons in the nucleus

27.

Which pair of elements has the most physical and chemical properties in common?

a)

Ge and Se

b)

K and Kr

c)

Al and Ga

d)

Ba and Bi

28.

The three main types of nuclear radiation are alpha, beta, and gamma. Which of the following lists these types of radiation from highest penetrating power to lowest penetrating power?

a)

alpha, gamma, beta

b)

beta, alpha, gamma

c)

beta, gamma, alpha

d)

gamma, beta, alpha

29.

Which of the following statements accurately describes alpha particles in terms of charge and mass?

a)

Alpha particles are positively charged and less massive than beta particles.

b)

Alpha particles are negatively charged and

less massive than beta particles.

c)

Alpha particles are positively charged and

more massive than beta particles.

d)

Alpha particles are negatively charged and

more massive than beta particles.

30.
 Fermium-253 has a half-life of 0.334 seconds. A radioactive sample is considered to be completely decayed after 10 half-lives. How much time will elapse for this sample to be considered gone?
a)
0.334 seconds
b)
3.34 seconds
c)
1.77 seconds
d)
13.4 seconds
31.
Which of the following equations are correctly balanced?
a)
12CO2 +H2O --> C6H12O6 + O2
b)
CO2 + 9H2O --> C6H12O6 + O2
c)
CO2 + H2O --> 3C6H12O6 + O2
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6O2
32.
Which coefficients balance this equation:
NH3  +  O2 ---->   NO  + H2O
a)
2,3,5,6
b)
5,5,4,6
c)
4,6,4,5
d)
4,5,4,6
33.
How many HCl molecules do you need to balance this equation? 
Mg +  __HCl --->  MgCl2 + H2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
34.
4Si + S8 --> 2Si2S4
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Double displacement
35.
3Ca + 2AlCl3 --> 3CaCl2 + 2Al
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single diplacement
d)
Double displacement
36.
3KOH + H3PO4 --> K3PO4 + 3H2O
a)
Synthesis 
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Double displacement
37.
2NO2 --> N2 + 2O2
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Combustion
38.

Which of the following is an ionic compound:

a)

CH4

b)

I2

c)

CO

d)

LiBr

39.

The proper formula for magnesium hydroxide:

a)

Mg(OH)2

b)

Mg2OH

c)

MgOH2

d)

Mg2OH2

40.

Table salt (NaCl) is which type of chemical bond?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Metallic

41.
What do the electrons do in an ionic bond?
a)
they share electrons between elements
b)
they transfer electrons from one element to another
42.
How are covalent bonds explained?
a)
When one atom takes the other atom's electron
b)
When the atom shares an electron with an another atom
c)
When the two nucleus merge
d)
When the neutrons leave the nucleus
43.

What is the name of Mg(OH)2?

a)

Magnesium Hydroxide

b)

Magnesium Dihydride

c)

Magnesium Dihydroxide

d)

Magnesium Hydride

44.

Which of the following is the correct formula for Lithium Phosphate?

a)

Li3P

b)

Li3PO4

c)

Li3Po4

d)

Li4PO

45.

What type of bond is P4S10?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Both

d)

Metallic

46.

The ions for K and N will form what compound?

a)

KN

b)

K2N3

c)

K3N

d)

KN3

47.

Electrons are being shared between atoms in a certain compound. Which elements could most likely form this compound?

a)

Iron (Fe) and oxygen (O)

b)

Sulfur (S) and chlorine (Cl)

c)

Lithium (Li) and fluorine (F)

d)

Aluminum (Al) and iodine (I)

48.

Which of these elements is the most chemically reactive?

a)

beryllium (Be)

b)

calcium (Ca)

c)

Strontium (Sr)

d)

radium (Ra)

49.

This chart shows the effects of several solutions on litmus paper. Which information can be determined from the litmus paper tests?

a)

Solutions 1 and 5 are both acids.

b)

Solutions 2 and 8 are both neutral.

c)

Solutions 3 and 6 are both bases.

d)

Solutions 4 and 7 are both acids.

50.

A jogger travels 5000 m in 1200 seconds. Calculate the jogger’s average speed in m/s. Choose correct formula:

v = d/t or a = vf - vi /t

a)

0.24 m/s

b)

3,800 m/s

c)

3.17 m/s

d)

4.17 m/s

51.

A car starts from a stoplight and is traveling with a velocity of 10 m/sec east in 20 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car? Choose correct formula:

v = d/t or a = vf - vi /t

a)

-0.5 m/s2

b)

0.5 m/s2

c)

2 m/s2

d)

200 m/s2

52.

This graph represents the motion of a cart. How does the speed of the cart compare when t = 6 s and t = 12 s?

a)

The speed of the cart at 6 s is greater than when time equals 12 s.

b)

The speed of the cart at 6 s is less than when time equals 12 s.

c)

The speed of the cart is 2 m/s at 6 s and 12 s.

d)

The speed of the cart os 0.5 m/s at 6 s and 12 s

53.

A ball at rest is dropped and hits the ground in 1.5 s with a final speed of 15 m/s. How would the acceleration and final speed of the ball be affected if it were dropped from a greater height on Earth? (Ignore friction.)

a)

Its final speed would remain the same because its rate of acceleration would remain the same.

b)

Its final speed would increase because its rate of acceleration would remain the same.

c)

Its final speed would remain the same because its rate of acceleration would decrease.

d)

Its final speed would increase because its rate of acceleration would increase.

54.

The graph represents the motion of a cart. What is the average speed of the cart?

a)

0.83 m/s

b)

1.17 m/s

c)

5 m/s

d)

65 m/s

55.

Why does the weight of an object change with increasing elevation on Earth?

a)

The mass of the object decreases with higher elevation.

b)

The force of gravity acting on the object increases with higher elevation.

c)

The force of gravity acting on the object decreases with higher elevation.

d)

The mass of the object increases with higher elevation.

56.

The diagram shows a board on top of two bricks with a cylinder on top of the board. The board exerts an upward force of 50 N. Which best explains this situation?

a)

The board has a weight of 50 N

b)

The cylinder has a weight of 50 N

c)

The combined weight of the two bricks is 50 N

d)

The combined weight of the bricks, board, and cylinder is 50 N

57.

A 100 kg student kicks a 1.4 kg ball with a force of 450 N. What force does that ball apply on the student?

a)

4.5 N

b)

300 N

c)

450 N

d)

675 N

58.

A large rock has a mass of 750 kg. What is its weight?

a)

76.5 N

b)

740.2 N

c)

759.8 N

d)

7,350 N

59.

This diagram shows a 40-kg object being pulled in one direction while friction acts on it in the opposite direction? What is the net force on the object?

a)

160 N

b)

140 N

c)

120 N

d)

20 N

60.

A 1,500-kg truck has a net force of 4,200 N acting on it. What is the truck’s acceleration?

a)

6,300,000 m/s/s

b)

2,700 m/s/s

c)

2.8 m/s/s

d)

0.36 m/s/s

61.

Why does a student’s hand feel cold when holding an ice cube?

a)

Heat flows from the ice cube to the hand.

b)

Heat flows from the hand to the ice cube.

c)

Cold flows from the hand to the ice cube.

d)

Cold flows from the ice cube to the hand.

62.

Which describes the kinetic energy of a ball in free fall?

a)

The kinetic energy remains the same while the velocity increases.

b)

The kinetic energy decreases because the velocity increases.

c)

The kinetic energy increases because the velocity increases.

d)

The kinetic energy remains the same while the velocity decreases.

63.

It takes 6.0 seconds for a pulley system to lift a crate weighing 300. N to a height of 5.0 meters. How much power is required to life the crate?

a)

360 W

b)

250 W

c)

10 W

d)

0.1 W

64.

An object has a mass of 12.8 kg and a velocity of 8.4 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the object?

a)

53.8 J

b)

107.5 J

c)

451.6 J

d)

903.2 J

65.

Calculate the KE of a moving 4 kilogram object traveling at a velocity of 3 m/s. KE=12mv2KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2  

a)

18 J

b)

36 J

c)

24 J

d)

48 J

66.
A high specific heat means...
a)
It heats up quickly with energy added
b)
It requires more energy to change temperature
67.

Where would this tossed baseball have the least amount of kinetic energy?

a)

point W

b)

point X

c)

point y

d)

point z

68.

Where would this tossed baseball have the greatest amount of kinetic energy?

a)

point W

b)

point X

c)

point y

d)

point z

69.

A ball with a mass of 5 kg is dropped from a resting position of 10 m above the ground. What is the potential energy of the ball just before it is dropped?

a)

0J

b)

49J

c)

98J

d)

490J

70.

A 5000N block is lifted 10 m. How much work was done? (W=Fxd)

a)

50000 J

b)

5000 J

c)

500 J

d)

50 J

71.
In which of these cases is work being done? 
a)
A student sleeps
b)
A student pushes a locked door that does not move
c)
a student carries his chair into another room
d)
A student sits on the carpet
72.

How much power is required to do 180 J in 2.4 s? P=W/t

a)

7.5 W

b)

178W

c)

75 W

d)

430 W

73.

How do radio waves and visible light waves differ?

a)

Radio waves have a shorter wavelength than visible light waves.

b)

Radio waves move faster than visible light waves.

c)

Radio waves have a lower frequency than visible light waves.

d)

Radio waves have more energy than visible light waves.

74.

If the velocity of a sound wave remains constant and its frequency increases, which characteristic of the wave will decrease?

a)

amplitude

b)

wavelength

c)

energy

d)

speed

75.

How does the energy of ultraviolet radiation compare to the energy of microwaves?

a)

Ultraviolet radiation has less energy than microwaves, because ultraviolet radiation has a lower frequency.

b)

Ultraviolet radiation has more energy than microwaves, because ultraviolet radiation has a higher frequency.

c)

Microwaves have less energy than ultraviolet radiation, because microwaves have shorter wavelengths.

d)

Microwaves have more energy than ultraviolet radiation, because microwaves have longer wavelengths.

76.

If a wave has a frequency of 0.4 Hz and a wavelength of 15 m, what is its velocity?

a)

0.2 m/s

b)

6.0 m/s

c)

38 m/s

d)

60 m/s

77.

Which is true of infrared waves?

a)

They have shorter wavelengths than X-rays

b)

They give off more energy than gamma rays

c)

They have longer wavelengths than ultraviolet waves

d)

They have higher frequencies than visible light waves

78.

A flashlight bulb connected to a 6 V battery draws 0.5 A current. What is the power used by the flashlight?

a)

1.25 W

b)

3 W

c)

6.5 W

d)

12 W

79.

This diagram represents a closed circuit with three light bulbs and a 10-volt battery. If bulb 3 burns out in the circuit, what will most likely happen?

a)

bulb 1 and bulb 2 will continue to glow

b)

bulb 1 and bulb 2 will not glow as brightly

c)

bulb 1 will glow but bulb 2 will not glow

d)

bulb 1 and bulb 2 will not glow

80.

A series circuit has a current of 3 A. The circuit contains a 12 Ω resistor. What is the voltage of the circuit?

a)

0.25 V

b)

4 V

c)

15 V

d)

36 V

81.

This diagram represents a closed circuit. How much current flows through this circuit?

a)

0.5 A

b)

2 A

c)

18 A

d)

72 A

82.

How does a step-down transformer alter the amount of voltage from a power line to a building?

a)

It increases output voltage by increasing the number of wire turns in the secondary coil

b)

It decreases output voltage by decreasing the number of turns in the secondary coil.

c)

It increases output voltage by decreasing the number of wire turns in the secondary coil.

d)

It decreases output voltage by increasing the number of turns in the secondary coil.

83.

How would decreasing the diameter of the wires in a circuit influence the resistance and flow of electrons in the circuit?

a)

It would decrease the resistance, causing fewer electrons to flow through the circuit.

b)

It would increase the resistance, causing fewer electrons to flow through the circuit.

c)

It would decrease the resistance by allowing more electrons to flow through the circuit.

d)

It would increase the resistance by allowing more electrons to flow through the circuit.

84.

A copper wire is connected across a constant voltage source. Which change will cause an increase in the current flowing through the wire?

a)

an increase in the length of the wire

b)

an increase in the resistance of the wire

c)

an increase in the diameter of the wire

d)

an increase in the insulation around the wire

85.

What makes an electromagnet stronger?

a)

greater number of loops

b)

smaller number of loops

c)

decreasing the current

d)

decreasing the voltage

86.
Thicker wires have _______ resistance than thinner wires.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
the same
87.
As the resistance in a circuit increases, the electric current __________.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
88.
What will happen if one light bulb is removed from this circuit?
a)
The other bulbs will go out.
b)
The other bulbs will stay on
c)
The other bulbs will get dimmer.
d)
The battery will become stronger.
89.

Which diagram correctly shows how electrically charged balls will act?

a)
b)
c)
d)
90.

This diagram represents a closed circuit with three light bulbs and a 10-volt battery. If bulb 3 burns out in the circuit, what will most likely happen?

a)

bulb 1 and bulb 2 will continue to glow

b)

bulb 1 and bulb 2 will not glow as brightly

c)

bulb 1 will glow but bulb 2 will not glow

d)

bulb 1 and bulb 2 will not glow

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