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Worksheets

Mutlple choice questions Biomate

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids?

a)

They are essential components of cell membranes.

b)

They are steroids, which are not soluble in water.

c)

They are made of fatty acids

d)

They are hydrophilic compounds.

2.

Which of the following reactions requires the removal of water to form a covalent bond?

a)

Glycogen form glucose subunits

b)

Dipeptide form alanine + glycine

c)

Cellulose form glucose

d)

Glucose + galactose form lactose

3.

Which of the following is the most significant difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells have a cell membrane; eukaryotic cells do not.

b)

Prokaryotic cells possess ribosomes; eukaryotic cells do not.

c)

Eukaryotic cells have DNA; prokaryotic cell do not.

d)

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles; prokaryotic cells do not.

4.

Which of the following statements is the function of lysosomes?

a)

Involved in generating ATP by aerobic metabolism

b)

Destroy worn out organelles

c)

Involved in the separation of chromosomes

d)

Involved in modifying, sorting and transporting proteins and lipids

5.

Plasmodesmata are….

a)

used in energy transformation within the cell.

b)

Typical of animal cells more than plant cells.

c)

cross connections between cell walls.

d)

found most frequently in bacteria.

6.

Which of the following muscle tissues has a striated appearance?

I. Skeletal

II. Cardiac

III. Smooth

a)

I and II only

b)

I only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

7.

1. In a hypotonic solution, an animal cell will …

a)

lyse

b)

experience turgor.

c)

neither gain nor lose water.

d)

shrivel.

8.

As mitosis begins, a condensed chromosome consists of two …

a)

centromeres.

b)

centrioles.

c)

chromatins.

d)

chromatids.

9.

In mitosis, the number of chromosome sets in daughter cells will be …

a)

half the number in the parent cell.

b)

twice the number in the parent cell.

c)

the same as in the parent cell.

d)

one fourth the number in the parent cell.

10.

If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l), animals LL and Ll have the same …

a)

genotypes

b)

phenotypes

c)

alleles

d)

genes

11.

If all offspring of a cross have the genotype Aa, the parents of the cross would most likely be…

a)

AA x aa

b)

Aa x Aa

c)

Aa x aa

d)

AA x Aa

12.

A woman with type A blood and a man with type B blood could potentially have offspring with which of the following blood types?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

All of the above

13.

Genes W, X , Y and Z are linked on the same chromosome. The following are the cross-over values between the genes.

W and X – 38%

W and Y – 26%

X and Z – 16%

Y and Z – 4%

The sequence of genes on the chromosome is …

a)

W Y Z X

b)

W Z Y X

c)

X Z Y W

d)

Y Z X W

14.

In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of the individuals show the recessive trait. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population?

a)

0.84

b)

0.36

c)

0.6

d)

0.4

15.

A butterfly population has a rare homozygous recessive form hh that occurs at a frequency of 0.04. The population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the trait. What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant form?

a)

0.02

b)

0.64

c)

0.98

d)

0.32

16.

In DNA replication, the helix is unwound by which type of enzyme?

a)

topoisomerase

b)

primase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

helicase

17.

The function of mRNA is to ……

a)

carry specific information from DNA and programmes protein synthesis.

b)

hold a group of ribosomes together

c)

transfer the genetic codes to ribosomal RNA

d)

transfer the genetic codes to DNA

18.

The function of tRNA is to ….

a)

form a site for protein synthesis

b)

transcribe the genetic code

c)

transport specific amino acids to specific sites on the mRNA

d)

synthesize amino acids

19.

What is the function of lactose of the lac operon?

a)

Binds to the promoter and prevents the repressor from binding to the operator

b)

Binds to the operator and prevents the repressor from binding to the promoter

c)

Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the promoter

d)

Binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the operator

20.

Hydroxylamine is a mutagen. It converts cytosine to a compound which pairs up with adenine. If DNA is treated with hydroxylamine, the mutation which results is an example of a base ________

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

inversion

d)

substitution

21.

Frameshift mutation is caused by base insertion or deletion except in the case where the number of base pair involved is_____________

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

seven

22.

One possible result of chromosomal breakage can be that a fragment reattaches to the original chromosome in a reverse orientation. This is called ______________

a)

disjunction

b)

translocation

c)

deletion

d)

inversion

23.

Which of the following may result in polyploidy?

I Treatment with colchicine

II Crossing over

III Independent assortment of chromosomes

IV Non-disjunction

a)

I and II

b)

I and IV

c)

II and III

d)

II and IV

24.

Errors during DNA replication, repair or recombination can lead to base-pair substitutions. Such changes are called _________________

a)

conditional mutations

b)

mutagens

c)

spontaneous mutations

d)

saltatory changes

25.

Which statement is not true of plasmids?

a)

Examples of plasmids include EcoRI and BamHI

b)

They carry a small number number of genes

c)

They replicate independently of the host’s chromosome

d)

They are DNA molecules

26.

Bacteria carrying a plasmid with an antibiotic resistance gene are important in cloning because __________________________

a)

they help in screening

b)

they can kill other bacteria

c)

they can produce antibiotics for commercial purposes

d)

they protect themselves after being released into the environment

27.

Gene cloning technology involve _____________

a)

non coding nucleotide sequences

b)

plasmids

c)

bacteria

d)

B and C above

28.

Which of the following are true of restriction enzymes?

I. It restrict transcription

II. It is found in all eukaryotic cells

III. It acts on palindromic sequences

IV. It is sensitive to changes in temperature and pH

a)

I and II

b)

I and III

c)

II and IV

d)

III and IV

29.

Which of the following is not a tool used in recombinant DNA technology?

a)

Cloning vector

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Target DNA

d)

DNA ligase

30.

DNA ligase …….

a)

seals plasmid and DNA fragments through the formation of phosphodiester bonds

b)

cuts human DNA at specific nucleotides sequences

c)

copies the bacterial gene

d)

joins the vector and DNA fragments through the formation of phosphodiester bonds

31.

Plasmids are important in biotechnology because they are

a)

a vehicle for the insertion of foreign genes into bacteria

b)

recognition sites on recombinant DNA strands

c)

surfaces for protein synthesis in eukaryotic recombinants

d)

surfaces for respiratory processes in bacteria

32.

What are the advantages of asexual reproduction?

a)

It promotes genetic stability

b)

It enhances the survival rates of parents

c)

The limited number of offspring prevents overpopulation

d)

It promotes geographic distribution of species

33.

In angiosperms, sperms are formed by

a)

meiosis in the anther

b)

meiosis in the pollen grain

c)

mitosis in the anther

d)

mitosis in the pollen tube

34.

Which statement about the megasporocyte is true?

a)

It undergoes meiosis to produce three haploid cells

b)

It is a diploid cell located within an ovule

c)

It divides mitotically to form a male gametophyte

d)

It plays an important role in cross-pollination

35.

In spermatogenesis, the primordial germ cells undergo differentiation to form

a)

spermatids

b)

sperms

c)

diploid spermatogonia

d)

haploid spermatogonia

36.

In males, gonadotropin – releasing hormone stimulates the _________ to secrete _________ .

a)

Anterior pituitary; inhibit

b)

Anterior pituitary; FSH and LH

c)

Anterior pituitary; testosterone

d)

Posterior pituitary; FSH and LH

37.

The function of the corpus luteum is to

a)

nourish and protect the egg cell

b)

secrete progesterone and estrogen

c)

maintain pregnancy by production of human chorionic gonadotropin

d)

produce prolactin in the milk sacs of the mammary gland

38.

During an acrosome reaction, the acrosome…..

a)

Detaches, allowing the sperm to penetrate the egg

b)

Releases enzyme that digest the outer layer of the egg

c)

Secretes calcium ions, which cause the sperm to fuse with the egg

d)

Releases inhibin, which causes the sperm to bind to the egg

39.

Which of the below is NOT a phase in individual growth?

a)

Cell division

b)

Cell maturity

c)

Cell enlargement

d)

Cell differentiation

40.

What is the type of growth pattern for lizard.

a)

Isometric

b)

Allometric

c)

Intermittent

d)

Limited