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Units 5 & 6 Quizizz Challenge

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which prenatal testing procedure confirms a positive pregnancy test?
a)
PAPP-A
b)
HCG
c)
AFP
d)
none of these
2.
Which of the following is the first period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
3.
Which of the following is the second period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
4.
Which of the following is the third period of prenatal development?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of these
5.
What process marks the beginning of the germinal period of prenatal development?
a)
fertilization
b)
implantation
c)
neuronal migration
d)
none of t
6.
What is the name for the group of about 12-15 cells with a "mulberry" appearance?
a)
morula
b)
zygote
c)
blastocyst
d)
none of thes
7.
In the blastocyst, which is the structure that allows for cell migration?
a)
trophoblast
b)
blastocoele
c)
inner cell mass
d)
none of these
8.
In the blastocyst, which is the structure that allows for cell migration?
a)
trophoblast
b)
blastocoele
c)
inner cell mass
d)
none of these
9.
In the blastocyst, which structure will become the embryo?
a)
blastocoele
b)
inner cell mass
c)
trophoblast
d)
none of these
10.
In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become:
a)
the embryo
b)
the digestive system
c)
four membranes
d)
none of these
11.
The cephalocaudal growth pattern refers to:
a)
the head developing first
b)
the spine developing 
c)
first the organs developing first
d)
none of these
12.
Which growth pattern means "spine on out"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
none of these
13.
Which growth pattern means "head on down"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
none of these
14.
In the embryo, which will become the nervous system?
a)
ectoderm
b)
mesoderm
c)
endoderm
d)
none of these
15.
In the embryo, what will become the reproductive system?
a)
ectoderm
b)
mesoderm
c)
endoderm
d)
none of these
16.
In the embryo, what will become the digestive tract and respiratory system?
a)
ectoderm
b)
mesoderm
c)
endoderm
d)
none of these
17.
In the embryo, the ectoderm will become
a)
the nervous system
b)
the circulatory system
c)
the digestive tract
d)
none of these
18.
Which support structure is a bag that contains clear fluid?
a)
amnion
b)
umbilical cord
c)
placenta
d)
none of these
19.
Which of the following is a group of tissues that connects small blood vessels between mother and child?
a)
placenta
b)
amnion
c)
umbilical cord
d)
none of these
20.
Which of the following contains two arteries and one vein that connects the baby to the placenta?
a)
amnion
b)
ectoderm
c)
mesoderm
d)
none of these
21.
Which of the following is a whitish coating on the skin of the fetus?
a)
lanugo
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
quickening
d)
none of the above
22.
Which of the following refers to the first movements that can be felt by the mother?
a)
lanugo
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
quickening
d)
none of these
23.
Which of the following is a soft, fine hair that develops on the fetus?
a)
lanugo
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
quickening
d)
amnion
24.
Lanugo is
a)
a whitish coating
b)
a soft, fine hair
c)
motor movements
d)
none of these
25.
Vernix caseosa refers to
a)
a bag of fluid
b)
a whitish coating
c)
a support structure
d)
motor movements
26.
During which prenatal period is the fetus considered viable?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
27.
Viability refers to
a)
 hearing a heartbeat
b)
ability to live outside the womb
c)
a minimum number of cells
d)
 none of these
28.
Cells of the nervous system are called
a)
somatic cells
b)
autosomes
c)
neurons
d)
none of these
29.
Development of new neurons is
a)
neuronal migration
b)
neurogenesis
c)
neural plasticity
d)
none of these
30.
Any substance or agent that can cause a birth defect is referred to as 
a)
a teratogen
b)
a contaminant
c)
an infectious agent
d)
none of these
31.
During which prenatal period does a teratogen have the most likelihood to lead to prenatal death?
a)
germinal
b)
embryonic
c)
fetal
d)
none of thes
32.
Research has shown that pregnant women who consume 200 or more milligrams of caffeine a day are at increased risk of 
a)
having a child with Down Syndrome
b)
having a miscarriage
c)
placenta previa
d)
none of these
33.
A condition that results in the partial or complete detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall is called
a)
placenta previa
b)
placental abruption
c)
none of these
34.
In order for incompatible blood types to impact prenatal development, the mother must be
a)
RH-positive
b)
RH-negative
35.
Which of the following conditions can result in very large babies?
a)
diabetes
b)
exposure to cocaine
c)
exposure to heroin
d)
none of these
36.
Which newborn assessment occurs at 1 and 5 minutes after birth?
a)
APGAR
b)
NBAS
c)
NNNS
d)
none of the
37.
In order to be defined preterm, an infant needs to be born before the completion of __ weeks of gestation.
a)
20
b)
24
c)
37
d)
40
38.
Skin-to-skin contact between infant and parent is called
a)
Kangaroo Care
b)
Bonding
c)
Imprinting
d)
none of these
39.
During labor, the cervix thins, which is called
a)
effacement
b)
dilation
c)
none of these
d)
quickening
40.
The period after childbirth is called the ____ period.
a)
postpartum
b)
germinal
c)
gestational
d)
none of these
41.
Postpartum, the uterus returns to its pre-pregnant size through a process called
a)
involution
b)
quickening
c)
imprinting
d)
none of these
42.
In the 1950s, which drug resulted in thousands of infants being born with serious limb abnormalities?
a)
Thalidomide
b)
Tylenol
c)
Xanax
d)
none of these
43.
Which of the following is the term for organ formation in prenatal development?
a)
none of these
b)
quickening
c)
involution
d)
lanugo
44.
Which pattern of growth means "head to tail"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
cephalographic
d)
none of these
45.
Which pattern of growth means "spine on out"?
a)
cephalocaudal
b)
proximodistal
c)
neurogenesis
d)
none of these
46.
It is expected that infants will ____ their birth weight in the first four months of life.
a)
lose half
b)
double
c)
triple
d)
none of these
47.
During which year of infancy is physical growth the greatest?
a)
the first year
b)
the second year
c)
consistent across both years
48.
About how many neurons are we born with?
a)
100
b)
1 million
c)
1 billion
d)
none of these
49.
At birth, the brain weighs about ___ of its adult weight.
a)
1/4
b)
1/3
c)
1/2
d)
none of these
50.
The cell body of a neuron is called the
a)
soma
b)
axon
c)
dendrite
d)
none of these
51.
The fatty insulation on the axon of a neuron is called:
a)
myelin
b)
nodes of ranvier
c)
soma
d)
none of these
52.
What is responsible for white matter in the brain?
a)
soma
b)
dendrites
c)
myelin
d)
none of these
53.
The development of new neurons is called:
a)
neurogenesis
b)
neuronal migration
c)
neural plasticity
d)
none of these
54.
Flexibility of the nervous system is referred to as
a)
neurogenesis
b)
neural plasticity
c)
neuronal migration
d)
none of these
55.
Which lobe of the brain contains the somatosensory cortex?
a)
parietal lobe
b)
temporal lobe
c)
frontal lobe
d)
occipital lobe
56.
What lobe of the brain contains the motor cortex?
a)
frontal lobe
b)
parietal lobe
c)
occipital lobe
d)
temporal lobe
57.
What lobe of the brain contains the prefrontal cortex?
a)
frontal
b)
parietal
c)
occipital
d)
temporal
58.
What lobe of the brain processes auditory information?
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
parietal
d)
occipital
59.
What lobe of the brain processes visual information?
a)
frontal
b)
occipital
c)
parietal
d)
temporal
60.
What is the most common sleep related problem in infancy?
a)
REM disorder
b)
somnambulism
c)
night waking
d)
none of these
61.
Which stage of sleep starts the sleep cycle of a newborn?
a)
REM
b)
Stage 1
c)
Deep Sleep
d)
none of these
62.
What is the number one cause of infant death in the United States?
a)
kwashiorkor
b)
marasmus
c)
Shaken Baby Syndrome
d)
none of these
63.
Which of the following is a disease that results in the wasting away of body tissues during the first year of an infant's life?
a)
kwashiorkor
b)
marasmus
c)
SIDS
d)
none of these
64.
Which of the following nutritional issues results in swelling of the abdomen and feet?
a)
kwashiorkor
b)
marasmus
c)
SIDS
d)
none of these
65.
Which reflex involves the infant turning their head towards something that brushes against their cheek?
a)
Rooting
b)
Sucking
c)
Moro
d)
none of these
66.
Which reflex is a startle response?
a)
Rooting
b)
Sucking
c)
Moro
d)
None of these
67.
True or False: A newborn's grasp is reflexive in the first days of life.
a)
True
b)
False
68.
Which reflex will turn into more complex voluntary motor movement as the infant ages?
a)
Rooting
b)
Moro
c)
Grasping
d)
none of these
69.
Skills involving large muscle activity are called ____ motor skills.
a)
Vast
b)
General
c)
Fine
d)
none of these
70.
When would you expect an infant to begin to sit up independently for short periods of time?
a)
1 month
b)
3 months
c)
6 months
d)
1 year
71.
True or False: Infants that were raised in a cradle board tend to show long-lasting gross motor deficits.
a)
True
b)
False
72.
Buttoning a shirt and using a fork require ____ motor skills.
a)
Specific
b)
Fine
c)
General
d)
none of these
73.
Which grasp involves the whole hand?
a)
ulnar
b)
pincer
c)
general
d)
none of these
74.
Which grasp involves the thumb and forefinger?
a)
ulnar
b)
pincer
c)
pointer
d)
none of these
75.
Which grasp will appear first developmentally?
a)
ulnar
b)
pincer
76.
Which term pertains to the interaction between external information and our sense receptors?
a)
sensation
b)
perception
c)
neurogenesis
d)
none of these
77.
Which term pertains to the interpretation of sensory information by our brain?
a)
sensation
b)
perception
c)
interpretation processing
d)
none of these
78.
True or False: Newborns are far-sighted.
a)
True
b)
False
79.
Which color would a 5-month old infant tend to prefer? 
a)
royal blue, a saturated color
b)
baby blue, an unsaturated color
c)
an infant this age would not have a preference
80.
True or False: By the time an infant can crawl, they have developed depth perception.
a)
True
b)
False
81.
Which apparatus measures depth perception in infants?
a)
Visual Cliff
b)
Snellen Eye Test
c)
Object Permanence Test
d)
none of these
82.
Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development take place in infancy?
a)
sensorimotor
b)
preoperational
c)
concrete operational
d)
formal operational
83.
Which types of schemas are used in infancy?
a)
behavioral
b)
cognitive
84.
Which of the following is an example of assimilation?
a)
an infant places everything into its mouth
b)
an infant learns that some things taste bad
85.
What term refers to the ability to understand that just because you can't see something doesn't mean it doesn't exist.
a)
perceptual constancy
b)
object permanence
c)
sensorimotor constancy
d)
none of these
86.
What type of memory do you use when you remember skills and procedures?
a)
implicit
b)
explicit
87.
What type of memory requires conscious recollection?
a)
implicit
b)
explicit
c)
none of these
88.
Inside your explicit memory is contained knowledge of
a)
skills, like riding a bike
b)
procedures
c)
your memory of the first day of school
d)
none of these
89.
Which area of the brain is responsible for memory?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
hippocampus
c)
brain stem
d)
none of these
90.
What is the sound system of language?
a)
phonology
b)
morphology
c)
syntax
d)
none of these
91.
What is a minimal unit of meaning in language?
a)
phoneme
b)
syntax
c)
morpheme
d)
none of these
92.
What language rule system involves vocabulary?
a)
phonology
b)
morphology
c)
syntax
d)
none of these
93.
What language rule system involves the appropriate use of language in different contexts?
a)
semantics
b)
pragmatics
c)
syntax
d)
none of these
94.
The way that words are combined in a language involves
a)
phonology
b)
syntax
c)
semantics
d)
none of these
95.
We should expect the vocabulary spurt to occur at about ___ months of age.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
18
d)
none of these
96.
Overextension means
a)
applying a word too generally
b)
applying a word too narrowly
c)
using improper syntax
d)
none of these
97.
Which area of the brain is responsible for production of language?
a)
Broca's area
b)
Wernicke's Area
c)
Suprachiasmatic Nucleus
d)
none of these
98.
Which brain area is responsible for language comprehension?
a)
Broca's area
b)
Wernicke's area
c)
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
d)
none of these
99.
Adults can enhance language acquisition by reprising things a child says, which is called
a)
recasting
b)
motherese
c)
child-directed speech
d)
expanding
100.
Which area of the limbic system is responsible for fear and aggression?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
amygdala
c)
thalamus
d)
hippocampus
101.
Which area of the limbic system is responsible for maintaining homeostasis?
a)
thalamus
b)
hypothalamus
c)
hippocampus
d)
none of these
102.
Which of the following is NOT a primary emotion?
a)
surprise
b)
happiness
c)
fear
d)
guilt
103.
Which cry involves breath holding?
a)
basic
b)
anger
c)
pain
d)
none of these
104.
True or False: A newborn's first smiles are reflexive in nature.
a)
True
b)
False
105.
What is Erikson's 1st stage of development that takes place in infancy?
a)
trust vs. mistrust
b)
autonomy vs. shame and doubt
c)
integrity vs. despair
d)
none of these
106.
When would we expect to see self-recognition develop in an infant?
a)
6 months
b)
12 months
c)
18 months
d)
none of these
107.
What is the ability to "read" emotions of others?
a)
social referencing
b)
perceptual constancy
c)
temperament
d)
none of these
108.
Which researcher studies attachment in monkeys?
a)
Piaget
b)
Freud
c)
Erikson
d)
none of these
109.
Which of Ainsworth's attachment styles is characterized by clinging and pushing away?
a)
securely attached
b)
insecure avoidant
c)
insecure resistant
d)
insecure disorganized
110.
What is Erikson's second stage of development?
a)
trust vs. mistrust
b)
integrity vs. despair
c)
initiative vs. guilt
d)
none of these
111.
In temperament studies, most children would be classified as:
a)
easy
b)
difficult
c)
slow-to-warm up
d)
none of these
112.
True or False: Child-Directed speech is typically an automatic behavior.
a)
True
b)
False
113.
Which theorist believed that humans are biologically wired to learn language at a certain time?
a)
Chompsky
b)
Bowlby
c)
Bandura
d)
none of these