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A2 EXTRA CS mmd

Total questions: 169

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Consider the following sequence of micro-operations.

MBR ← PC

MAR ← X

PC ← Y

Memory ← MBR

Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?

a)

Instruction fetch

b)

Operand fetch

c)

Conditional branch

d)

Initiation of interrupt service

2.

What are the main features of an operating system?

a)

Provides interface for users to interact with the computer

b)

Makes sure that all the parts of a computer work together

c)

Manages memory

d)

Swaps pages between memory and backing store

e)

Translates program from assembly language into machine code

3.

What are the purposes of scheduling?

a)

Make efficient use of processor time

b)

Make efficient use of resources

c)

Maximise the number of users

d)

Make efficient use of Binary

e)

Allow programs to run that need more memory

4.

How is virtual memory used?

a)

Uses paging/fixed size units

b)

Holds part of program not in use

c)

Uses first come first served

d)

If next user needs processor, user given time to slice

e)

it is used to store data in the cloud

5.

What is 6.625 in fixed point binary (4 bits for the whole number / 4 bits for fractional part)?

a)

01101010

b)

10001010

c)

01101100

d)

10001100

6.

What is 0.125 in fixed point binary (4 bits for the whole number / 4 bits for fractional part)?

a)

10001000

b)

00000010

c)

00001000

d)

00011000

7.

What is 5.5625 in fixed point binary (4 bits for the whole number / 4 bits for fractional part)?

a)

01011101

b)

01111001

c)

01011100

d)

01011001

8.

Convert 11011.1001 to denary.

a)

27.8125

b)

27.5625

c)

31.5625

d)

31.34375

9.

Which is NOT a disadvantage of fixed point binary numbers?

a)

cannot represent the range of numbers

b)

cannot represent the accuracy of numbers

c)

easier to process

10.

In floating point binary, it holds the detail of the number.

a)

Mantissa

b)

Exponent

11.

In floating point binary, it holds the multiplier.

a)

Mantissa

b)

Exponent

12.

010110100011 (8 bit signed mantissa / 4 bit signed exponent) what is the decimal number?

a)

5.625

b)

11.5

c)

-5.625

d)

-11.5

13.

100101000011 (8 bit signed mantissa / 4 bit signed exponent) what is the decimal number?

a)

9.25

b)

-9.25

c)

-6.75

d)

6.75

14.

011000001110 (8 bit signed mantissa / 4 bit signed exponent) what is the decimal number?

a)

0.1875

b)

-0.1875

c)

96

d)

-96

15.

Why do we carry out normalisation on floating point binary numbers?

a)

To convert the number into a negative number

b)

To round a decimal number down

c)

To provide the maximum level of precision

d)

To round a decimal number up

16.

What is the two's complement of 01100010 ?

a)

10011101

b)

11011101

c)

10011110

d)

10011111

17.

In normalised floating point form, a positive number always has what beginning?

a)

01

b)

10

18.

In normalised floating point form, a negative number always has what beginning?

a)

01

b)

10

19.

What is the normalised form of 0.0000111 0111

a)

1.0110000 0011

b)

1.0110000 0111

c)

0.1110000 0111

d)

0.1110000 0011

20.

What is the normalised form of 1.1100011 0011 ?

a)

1.0001100 0001

b)

1.0001100 0011

c)

0.1001100 0001

d)

0.1001100 0011

21.

Convert 88 to normalised floating point binary.

a)

0.1011000 0101

b)

1.0011000 0111

c)

0.1011000 0111

d)

0.1011000 0110

22.

Add 0.1100000 0001 and 0.1111100 0011 and normalise the result.

a)

1001.0100 0100

b)

0.1001010 0100

c)

1.0010100 0100

d)

0.1010100 0111

23.

Subtract 0.1110000 0011 from 0.1101000 0100 and normalise the result.

a)

0.1100000 0011

b)

1.0100000 0011

c)

0.1100000 0111

d)

1.0100000 0111

24.

Subtract 0.1011000 0011 from 0.1100100 0010 and normalise the result.

a)

1.0110100 0010

b)

0.1110100 0010

c)

0.1101000 0010

d)

1.0110100 1000

25.

The Binary Integer 01001101 is represented in Denary as:

a)

73

b)

75

c)

77

d)

79

26.

5.23 would be stored as:

a)

Integer

b)

Real Number

c)

String

d)

Character

e)

Boolean

27.

What is the binary number 0111 1101 in hexadecimal?

a)

AC

b)

9C

c)

9D

d)

8B

28.

What is the Hexadecimal number 7C in denary?

a)

83

b)

123

c)

141

d)

124

29.

What is an integer?

a)

A number

b)

A positive number

c)

A whole number

d)

A number with a decimal part

30.

Which of these is a floating point number?

a)

3

b)

3.0

c)

7

d)

5.6

31.

Which of these cannot be accurately stored as a floating point number?

a)

1/8

b)

2/3

c)

4.00000000000000000001

d)

4/4

e)

17/9

32.

Which one of these binary numbers is the normalised form of 6.5?

6.5 = 00000110.1

a)

0.1011 0011

b)

0.1101 0011

c)

1.1001 0010

d)

1.1010 1010

33.

Convert 0x7A into binary

a)

0b0111 1010

b)

0b1001 1010

c)

0b0101 1111

d)

0b0111 1011

34.

Convert 0b01010001 into denary

a)

101

b)

127

c)

81

d)

57

35.

Add these two binary numbers together and convert into denary:

0.1011010 0110

+ 0.1110001 0111

a)

156

b)

157

c)

158

36.

Complete the following calculation, and leave it in normalized binary form:

0.1011010 0110

- 0.1110001 0111

a)

1.0111100 0111

b)

1.0111100 0110

c)

0.1011110 0110

37.

What does the number 10000001 represent when using two’s complement form?

a)

1

b)

-1

c)

-127

d)

-128

e)

More information needed

38.

How would -22 be represented with 6-bits in sign and magnitude form?

a)

010110

b)

110110

c)

101010

d)

10010110

e)

101110

39.

How many times more characters can Unicode (1 plane) represent compared to ASCII?

a)

512

b)

256

c)

64

d)

65536

40.

What is the major advantage of using Unicode over ASCII?

a)

It uses up more memory

b)

It can represent more characters

c)

It sounds much cooler

d)

67

41.

What is the value of 10011011 after 3 left shifts followed by 2 right shifts? Give answer in denary.

a)

54

b)

52

c)

46

d)

42

42.

What value do you get when you use 00110001 as an XOR on the value 01101101?

a)

01111100

b)

01011100

c)

01010110

d)

01101101

43.
X . X
a)
0
b)
1
c)
X
d)
__
 X
44.
X + X
a)
0
b)
1
c)
X
d)
__
X
45.
X + 0
a)
X
b)
__
X
c)
0
d)
1
46.
       __
X . X
a)
0
b)
1
c)
X
d)
__
X
47.
A . B 
is the same as
a)
B . A
b)
A . A
c)
B . B
d)
A + B
48.
__     __
A  .   B
is the same as
a)
_______
A + B
b)
A . B
c)
B . A
d)
______
A . B
49.
X . ( Y . Z )
is the same as 
a)
X . Y + Z
b)
( X + Y ) + Z
c)
( X . Y ) . Z
d)
( X . Z ) + Y
50.
A . ( B + C )
is the same as
a)
___________
A + B + C
b)
( A + B ) ( A + C)
c)
A . B . C
d)
( A . B ) + ( A . C )
51.
_____
A . B
a)
__    __
A + B
b)
__   __
A . B
c)
( A . B )
d)
( A + B )
52.

( A + B ) ( C + D )

is the same as

a)

AC + BD

b)

(A . B ) + ( C . D )

c)

A + B + C + D

d)

AC + AD + BC + BD

53.

Which of these are logic gates?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOT

d)

IF

e)

ELSE

54.

What is the output of an AND gate if its inputs are 1 and 1?

a)

1

b)

0

55.

What is the output of an AND gate if its inputs are 1 and 0?

a)

1

b)

0

56.

Which logic gate does this symbol represent?

a)

AND

b)

OR

c)

NOT

d)

IF

e)

ELSE

57.

What is the output Y of this logic cricuit if A = 1, B = 1, and C = 1

a)

0

b)

1

58.

What is the output Z of this logic cricuit if A = 1 and B = 1

a)

0

b)

1

59.

Which property: A+B = B+A or A * B = B*A

a)

Associative

b)

Distributive

c)

Commutative

d)

Bermuda Triangle

60.

Which property: (A + B) + C = A + (B + C) or (A * B) * C = A * (B * C)

a)

Commutative Property

b)

Associative Property

c)

Distributive Property

d)

Not your property

61.

A * (B + C) = A* B + A * C

a)

Commutative Property

b)

Associative Property

c)

Distributive Property

d)

No one's property

62.

Who wrote this law: ~ (A + B) = ~A * ~B

a)

Boole

b)

Euler

c)

DeMorgan

d)

Wolfertz

63.
This  flip-flop transitions on
a)
the falling clock edge.
b)
the rising clock edge.
c)
high clock level.
d)
low clock level.
64.

Which law says 'Break the line, change the sign'?

a)

De Morgans

b)

Association

c)

Commutative

d)

Distirbutative

65.

This law allows for the removal of brackets from an expression and the regrouping of variables

a)

DeMorgans

b)

Associative

c)

Commutative

d)

Distributative

66.

This declares you can multiply or factor out an expression which is what you do in ordinary algebra

a)

De Morgans

b)

Distributive

c)

Associative

d)

Commutative

67.

This law states that the order of application of two separate terms is not important

a)

De Morgans

b)

Commutative

c)

Distributive

d)

Associative

68.

What rules have to be followed for absorption to apply?

a)

The operators inside and outside of the brackets must be different, The terms outside the brackets must also be inside the brackets

b)

The operators inside and outside of the brackets must be the same, The terms outside the brackets must not be inside the brackets

69.

Which law is this an example of:

A(B+C) = (A.B)+(A.C)

A+(B.C) = (A+B).(A+C)

a)

Associative

b)

Commutative

c)

Absorption

d)

Distributive

70.

This is the OR version of which law?

AV(BVC) = (AVB)VC = AVBVC

a)

Commutative

b)

Associative

c)

Distributive

d)

De Morgans

71.

This is an example of which law?

A.B = B.A

A+B = B+A

a)

Commutative

b)

Distributive

c)

Absorption

d)

Associative

72.

What is double negation?

a)

Multiplying by 2

b)

If you reverse something twice you end up back where you started

c)

A negative number

73.

What are the key reasons for compressing data?

a)

Less space needed for storage

b)

Less time to transmit

c)

Higher quality files

d)

Reduced amount of processing power

e)

Limited RAM

74.

Lossless compression...

a)

Is used when not all the information is needed

b)

Is not as effective as lossy compression

c)

Can fully regenerate the original file

d)

Includes files such as .ZIP

e)

Would be a sensible choice for a music download site

75.

Lossy compression...

a)

Permanently removes data from a file

b)

Always leads to a noticeable loss of quality

c)

Aims to remove redundant data

d)

Can return the original file to its original quality

e)

Would be a sensible choice for a music download site.`

76.

Dictionary based compression...

a)

Is a lossless compression format

b)

Creates a dictionary of common letter combinations to encode words with fewer characters

c)

Creates a dictionary of smaller letters so less space is used

d)

Sends the dictionary with the data

e)

Doesn't need to send the dictionary with the data

77.

Run-length encoding...

a)

is Lossless

b)

is Lossy

c)

Can only be used for text

d)

Records the number of repeats of an individual element

e)

Can be used for a wide variety of file types

78.

Encryption...

a)

Uses at least one key to cipher data

b)

Is only used on text

c)

Can be symmetric or asymmetric

d)

Is impossible to break

e)

Has developed a lot as processing power has increased

79.

Symmetrical encryption techniques...

a)

Are the most secure types of encryption

b)

Use a single key to encode/decode

c)

Use multiple keys to encode/decode

d)

Include XOR, Caesar and Route

e)

Include RSA, Diffie-Hellman and DSS

80.

Asymmetrical encryption techniques...

a)

Are the most secure types of encryption

b)

Use a single key to encode/decode

c)

Use multiple keys to encode/decode

d)

Include XOR, Caesar and Route

e)

Include RSA, Diffie-Hellman and DSS

81.

Asymmetrical encryption...

a)

Often requires considerable processing power

b)

Is impossible to break

c)

Is being threatened by the possibility of quantum computing

d)

Can be brute-force attacked

e)

Is very widely used, even in small businesses

82.

What is the correct Run-length encoding for the data: cccmmmmmsssssdcccccc

a)

3c5m5s1d6c

b)

c3m5s5d1c6

c)

cmsdc35516

d)

cccmmmmmsssssdcccccc

83.

Definition of encryption

a)

Using an algorithm and a key to convert message data into a form that is not understandable without that key.

b)

A method of trying to find the plain text from the cipher text without the decryption key.

c)

Process of turning legible text into gobbledygook.

d)

Using an algorithm and a key to convert encrypted message data into its plain text equivalent.

84.

Definition of decryption

a)

Using an algorithm and a key to convert message data into a form that is not understandable without that key.

b)

A method of trying to find the plain text from the cipher text without the decryption key.

c)

Process of turning legible text into gobbledygook.

d)

Using an algorithm and a key to convert encrypted message data into its plain text equivalent.

85.

A Caesar cipher encrypts the plaintext Et tu, Brute into the ciphertext ix xy, fvyxi. What would the same cipher encrypt it was Greek to me into?

a)

mx aew kviio xs qi

b)

ny bfx lwjjp yt rj

c)

ep swo cnaag pk ia

d)

qb eia ozmms bw um

86.

Why are Caesar ciphers so easy to crack?

a)

There are only 25 possible 'shifts', so a brute force attack will easily find the key required.

b)

Use of frequency analysis will be able to find common letters and words.

c)

Each key is only used once.

d)

The number of shifts is calculated from the number of characters in the plaintext.

87.

The Caesar cipher is an example of what type of cipher?

a)

Substitution cipher

b)

Transposition cipher

c)

Public key encryption

d)

Vernam cipher

88.

What are the conditions required for a Vernam cipher to be 100% mathematically secure?

a)

The key is used only once, and then destroyed/

b)

The key is made up of truly random characters/

c)

The key must be made up of fewer characters than the plaintext message.

d)

Different keys must be used to encrypt and decrypt a message.

89.

Which Boolean operator is used to produce the cipher text from the plaintext and the key?

a)

XOR

b)

NOR

c)

OR

d)

NAND

90.

The letter m has an ascii code of 1101101. As part of a Vernam cipher, the key 0101001 is applied to that letter. What is the resulting ciphertext?

a)

1000100

b)

0111011

c)

1100101

d)

1101001

91.

Which cipher is considered to be 100% mathematically secure?

a)

Caesar cipher

b)

Vernam cipher

c)

Transposition cipher

d)

Railfence cipher

92.

If a cipher is theoretically possible to break, but not when using current technology in a timeframe that would be useful is known as what?

a)

Computationally secure

b)

Intractably resistant

c)

Algorithmically impossible

d)

Cryptographically unbreakable

93.

Select the true statements about operating systems:

a)

A computer can only have one OS

b)

The OS manages memory, storage, security, printing and other useful functions of the system

c)

The OS provides a user interface

d)

All OSes allow you to use multiple programs at once

94.

This image shows...

a)

Memory paging

b)

Memory segmentation

c)

Distributed processing

d)

Virtual memory

95.

This image shows...

a)

Memory paging

b)

Memory segmentation

c)

Distributed processing

d)

Virtual memory

96.

Select the true statements about memory paging:

a)

Processes are split into equal sized frames

b)

A page table is used to record all the pages

c)

Unused pages are swapped out of main memory and into virtual memory

d)

Processes are split into variable sized frames

97.

Segmentation:

a)

Splits processes into variable sized pieces

b)

Splits processes into set sized pieces

c)

Keeps processes together in RAM

d)

Places processes wherever there is space in RAM

e)

Can cause stack overflows

98.

The role of scheduling is...

a)

To make sure tasks get as much time as they need on the CPU

b)

To make sure that all tasks get time on the processor and respond in a reasonable time

c)

To make sure that the user does not have to wait for processes to run

d)

To prevent the user from crashing the computer

99.

An OS which you would use in day-to-day life on a normal school computer is a...

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

100.

For a very large and complex system which needs multiple processors, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

101.

For a system which needs a guaranteed response rate, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

102.

For a simple system with very limited processing power, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

103.

To share one processor's power between multiple people, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

104.

The BIOS allows you to:

a)

Change the computer's time/date settings

b)

Change the order in which drives are booted from

c)

Change the computer's operating system

d)

Change the user's login details

105.

Device drivers...

a)

allow peripherals to communicate with the OS

b)

allow users to communicate with the OS

c)

allow peripherals to work directly with the CPU

d)

allow users to change settings of their peripherals

106.

A virtual machine...

a)

uses secondary storage instead of RAM when the computer runs out of space on the main memory

b)

allows software to act as hardware, running code or an operating system within another OS.

c)

can only be used through the internet

d)

relies on cloud storage

107.

Select the real methodologies:

a)

Agile

b)

XP

c)

XD

d)

Spiral

e)

Waterfall

108.

Iterative development methodology which values end-user input:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

109.

Iterative development methodology which values code quality:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

110.

Iterative development methodology which values speed of development:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

111.

Iterative development methodology which focuses on risk-management:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

112.

Sequential development methodology which focuses on comprehensive documentation:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

113.

A small start-up who want to get a prototype onto the market for testing should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

114.

A large company who want to develop their software so people actually want to use it should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

115.

A processor company who need to develop high-quality code with minimal errors should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

116.

Most software companies use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

117.

Very large projects which require a lot of paperwork and documentation should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

118.

A company who need to manage a lot of risk should use:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

119.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

120.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

121.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

122.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

123.

This methodology is:

a)

XP

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Spiral

e)

RAD

124.

Application Software is...

a)

software designed for a specific task

b)

software designed for general use

c)

software such as Steam, Word and PowerPoint

d)

software such as WinZIP, Norton AntiVirus and Windows Defender

125.

Utility Software is...

a)

software designed for a specific task

b)

software designed for general use

c)

software such as Steam, Word and PowerPoint

d)

software such as WinZIP, Norton AntiVirus and Windows Defender

126.

Open Source software is...

a)

Always bug free

b)

Usually well documented

c)

Fully editable

d)

Free to use

e)

Definitely suitable for use by a large organisation

127.

Closed Source software is...

a)

Always bug free

b)

Sometimes very expensive

c)

Generally well-tested

d)

A good choice for large organisations

e)

Usually well-supported by the developer

128.

Converts high-level code to low-level:

a)

Interpreter

b)

Compiler

c)

Assembler

129.

Creates an executable file

a)

Interpreter

b)

Compiler

c)

Assembler

130.

Must be installed for the code to run on another machine

a)

Interpreter

b)

Compiler

c)

Assembler

131.

Converts low level code to machine code

a)

Interpreter

b)

Compiler

c)

Assembler

132.

The correct order of the stages of compilation is:

a)

Lexical Analysis, Syntax Analysis, Code Generation, Code Optimisation

b)

Lexical Analysis, Syntax Analysis, Code Optimisation, Code Generation

c)

Syntax Analysis, Lexical Analysis, Code Optimisation, Code Generation

d)

Syntax Analysis, Lexical Analysis, Code Generation, Code Optimisation

133.

Removing whitespace is in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

134.

Token creation is in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

135.

Symbol table is created in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

136.

The code is checked against the rules in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

137.

The syntax tree is created in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

138.

The user will first be alerted to errors found in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

139.

The syntax tree is converted into object code in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

140.

Redundant code is removed in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

141.

The code is improved to run as fast as possible in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

142.

An entity is represented by what in a database?

a)

Table

b)

Row

c)

Column

d)

Cell

143.

A record is represented by what in a database?

a)

Table

b)

Row

c)

Column

d)

Cell

144.

An attribute is represented by what in a database?

a)

Table

b)

Row

c)

Column

d)

Cell

145.

Which of these are required for a relational database to meet 1st normal form?

a)

Data must be atomic

b)

No repeating groups of data

c)

No repeating attributes

d)

Sets of data must have a unique identifier

e)

Must meet 2nd normal form

146.

Which of these are required for a relational database to meet 2nd normal form?

a)

Must meet 1st normal form

b)

All the non-key attributes must depend on the whole primary key

c)

All the non-key attributes must not depend on another non-key attribute

d)

Must meet 3rd normal form

147.

Which of these are required for a relational database to meet 3rd normal form?

a)

Must meet 2nd normal form

b)

All the non-key attributes must depend on another non-key attribute

c)

All the non-key attributes must not depend on another non-key attribute

d)

Must meet 4th normal form

148.

What is the purpose of normalisation?

a)

Eliminate redundant data

b)

Reduce data inconsistencies

c)

Produce redundant data

d)

Increase data inconsistencies

149.

Which type of relationship does the ERD represent?

a)

One-to-many

b)

Many-to-many

c)

One-to-one

150.

Which type of relationship does the ERD represent?

a)

One-to-many

b)

Many-to-many

c)

One-to-one

151.

In a RDBMS such as MS Access, which type of relationship is required to create relationships between entities?

a)

One-to-many

b)

Many-to-many

c)

One-to-one

152.

Which keys are required to create relationships between entities?

a)

Primary key and foreign key

b)

Primary key and secondary key

c)

Foreign key and domestic key

d)

Secondary key and foreign key

153.

What is a foreign key?

a)

Uniquely identifies the records in a table

b)

An attribute that is a primary key in another table

c)

A record that meets 3rd normal form

d)

A primary key made up from two or more attributes

154.

What is a composite primary key?

a)

A primary key that can be duplicated in the same table

b)

An attribute that is a primary key in another table

c)

A foreign key that is a primary key in more than one other table

d)

A primary key made up from two or more attributes

155.

Data type used for telephone numbers

a)

Text

b)

Number

c)

Date/Time

d)

Yes/No

e)

Currency

156.

A table where all attributes are dependent on the primary key and are independent of each other, and no row contains two or more multivalued facts about an entity, is said to be in ____.

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

4NF

157.
To be in 2NF:
a)
Any field not relating to the PK is placed in a separate table
b)
The records all relate easily
c)
Each table has a foreign key
d)
There are no redundancies
158.
To be in 1NF: 
a)
Each field contains the smallest meaningful value
b)
There are multiple values in the single field
c)
There are no duplicate records
d)
A primary key is assigned
159.

What is the correct order of clauses in a SQL statement?

a)

SELECT, FROM, ORDER BY, WHERE

b)

SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY

c)

SELECT, WHERE, FROM, ORDER BY

d)

WHERE, FROM, SELECT, ORDER BY

160.

How do we select all rows for the "Designer" table?

a)

SELECT * FROM Designer

b)

SELECT [All] FROM Designer

c)

SELECT Designer.*

d)

SELECT FROM Designer

161.

How would we script a SQL query to select "Description" from the Item table?

a)

SELECT Item.Description

b)

EXTRACT Description FROM Item

c)

SELECT Item FROM Description

d)

SELECT Description FROM Item

162.

Which query would return only the fields DesignerID and Designer?

a)

SELECT * FROM Designers

b)

SELECT DesignerID, Name FROM Designers

c)

SELECT DesignerID AND Designer FROM Designers

d)

SELECT DesignerID, Designer FROM Designers

163.

You are required to update the phone number for only the DesignerID "SMI01" in the "Designer" table. Which of these would successfully do that?

a)

UPDATE Designer SET PhoneNo = '01224123456'

b)

UPDATE Designer (PhoneNo) VALUES ('01224123456')

c)

UPDATE Designer SET PhoneNo = '01224123456' WHERE DesignerID = 'SMI01'

d)

UPDATE PhoneNo = '01224123456' FROM Designer WHERE DesignerID = 'SMI01'

164.

With SQL how can I return all items in the Item table sorted from the lowest priced to the highest priced?

a)

SELECT * FROM Items ORDER BY Price ASCENDING

b)

SELECT * FROM Items ORDER BY Price ASC

c)

SELECT * FROM Items BY Price LOWEST TO HIGHEST

d)

SELECT * FROM Items ORDER BY Price DESC

165.

How would you DELETE records from the Items table with a "Chair" Type?

a)

DELETE 'Chair' FROM Items

b)

DELETE Type FROM Items WHERE Type = 'Chair'

c)

DELETE FROM Items WHERE Type = 'Chair'

d)

DELETE ITEMS WHERE Type = 'Chair'

166.

How would you display Chairs in the Items table that have a Price greater than £50.

a)

SELECT * FROM Items WHERE Type = 'Chair' AND Price > 50

b)

SELECT * FROM Items WHERE Type = 'Chair' OR Price < 100

c)

SELECT * FROM Iterms WHERE Type = 'Chair' AND Price >= 50

d)

SELECT * FROM Items WHERE Price > 50

167.

Which SQL statement would add a record to the database?

a)

INSERT INTO Designer VALUES ('SMI01', 'M Smith', 'mail@msmith.com', '01224123456')

b)

INSERT VALUES ('SMI01', 'M Smith', 'mail@msmith.com', 01224123456') INTO Designer

c)

INSERT ('SMI01', 'M Smith', 'mail@msmith.com', '01224123456') INTO Designer

d)

INSERT Designer INTO VALUES (''SMI01', 'M Smith', 'mail@msmith.com', '01224123456')

168.
Return 5 movies that have an imdb rating greater than 4 and are comedies.
a)
SELECT * FROM movies WHERE imdb_rating > 4 AND genre = ‘comedy’ LIMIT 5;
b)
SELECT ALL  FROM movies WHERE imdb_rating < 4 AND genre = ‘comedy’ LIMIT 5;
c)
SELECT * FROM movies WHERE imdb rating > 4 AND genre = comedy LIMIT 5;
d)
SELECT ALL FROM movies WHERE imdb_rating > 4 AND genre = ‘comedy’;
169.
a)
SELECT * FROM movies WHERE genre = 'romance' AND imdb_rating > 7.5 ORDER BY year DESC LIMIT 4;
b)
SELECT * FROM movies WHERE genre = 'romance' AND imdb_rating > 7.5 ORDER BY year ASC LIMIT 4;
c)
SELECT * FROM movies WHERE genre = romance AND imdb_rating > 7.5 ORDER BY year DESC LIMIT 4;
d)
SELECT * FROM movies WHERE genre = 'romance' AND imdb_rating < 7.5 ORDER BY year DESC LIMIT 4;

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