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finals quiz 1

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A type of solid that is characterized by a lack of well-defined arrangement and long-range molecular order.

a)

amorphous solid

b)

crystalline solid

c)

molecular solid

2.

It is the basic repeating structural unit of a crystalline solid.

a)

unit cell

b)

lattice point

c)

lattice structure

d)

crystals

3.

True or False. All seven crystal systems are characterized by sides and angles between sides that are equal to each other.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The crystal system that is characterized by sides and angles between sides that are equal to each other.

a)

simple cubic

b)

tetrahedral

c)

rhombohedral

d)

hexagonal

5.

True or False. The larger the coordination number, the tighter the atoms are packed together.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The coordination number for the simple cubic cell is _____.

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

7.

The number of atoms per unit cell for a body-centered cubic crystal structure is _______

a)

2

b)

9

c)

4

d)

8

8.

The type of crystal wherein each lattice point is occupied by a molecule

a)

molecular crystal

b)

ionic crystal

c)

covalent network crystal

d)

metallic crystal

9.

The covalent crystals are crystals in which lattice points are occupied by

a)

non-metals

b)

metal and non-metal

c)

molecules

d)

metallic atoms

10.

The type of crystal that is a poor conductor of electricity when solid but good conductor when molten or in aqueous solutions.

a)

ionic crystal

b)

covalent crystal

c)

molecular crystal

d)

metallic crystal

11.

Which of the following is NOT one of the two metallic bonding models?

a)

bond theory

b)

band theory

c)

electron-sea model

12.

These materials are normally not good conductor of electricity but in an elevated temperature are good conductors

a)

insulators

b)

capacitors

c)

semiconductors

d)

conductors

13.

True or False. All metals are solid at room temperature.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Property of metals which allows them to be drawn into wires.

a)

ductility

b)

malleability

c)

toughness

d)

conductivity

15.

True or False. Metals have low electronegativities and they tend to form cations.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

It is the science and technology of extracting metals from their ores.

a)

Extraction

b)

Materialgy

c)

Metallurgy

d)

Metallergy

17.

It is the term for process of concentrating the ore by heating the mineral in air

a)

roasting

b)

combustion

c)

bayer process

d)

purification

18.

In the flotation process, it is the ore component that is moistened by the polar water molecules and sinks to the bottom of the tank.

a)

gangue

b)

mineral

c)

metal

19.

It is the reduction process that is employed for most active metals.

a)

chemical reduction

b)

electrolytic reduction

c)

metallic reduction

20.

In the electrorefining of copper, it is the electrode which acts as the cathode

a)

pure copper

b)

impure copper

c)

platinum

21.

It is a substance composed of large repeating numbers of reactive organic units.

a)

polymer

b)

lattice structure

c)

monomer

d)

unit cell

22.

A chain of two monomers form a

a)

dimer

b)

diner

c)

polymer

d)

bimer

23.

Which of the following is a classification of polymer based on structure?

a)

linear polymer

b)

synthetic polymer

c)

organic polymer

d)

plastics

24.

Examples of this type of polymers are starch, natural rubber, proteins and cellulose.

a)

Natural polymers

b)

Organic polymers

c)

Synthetic polymers

d)

Branched polymers

25.

Which of the following plastic resin identification code is the most recyclable?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

6

d)

7

26.

These are polymers whose chain is not essentially composed of carbon atoms.

a)

Organic polymer

b)

Inorganic polymer

c)

Elastomers

d)

Cross-linked polymers

27.

It is a type of polymer with chains of a single monomer chain branched with a monomer chain of a different species.

a)

graft polymer

b)

cross-linked polymer

c)

branched polymer

d)

linear polymer

28.

These are viscous liquid polymers that are capable of permanent hardening through phase change and wetting.

a)

Elastomers

b)

Thermoplastics

c)

Thermosets

d)

Liquid resins

29.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a polymer?

a)

it can conduct electricity

b)

it has high mechanical properties

c)

it has high temperature resistance

d)

it has good corrosion resistance

30.

What resin type is usually used in pipe and tubing and pipe fittings?

a)

polyvinyl chloride

b)

acrylics

c)

polypropylene

d)

polyethylene

31.

Nanorods, nanowires and nanotubes are examples of _____ nanomaterials.

a)

0-D

b)

1-D

c)

2-D

d)

3-D

32.

It is an example of a 2-D nanomaterial.

a)

nanoparticle

b)

nanowire

c)

nanofilm

d)

bundles of nanotubes

33.

It is the science of manipulating atoms and molecules in the nanoscale.

a)

nanotechnology

b)

nanomaterial

c)

nanoparticle

d)

nanometer

34.

These are semiconductor nanoparticles that are about 1-10nm in diameter.

a)

nanoparticle

b)

quantum dots

c)

nanoelectronics

d)

ultraviolet

35.

True or False. The larger the diameter of the quantum dots, the closer its light emitted to red.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

An approach in nanomaterial synthesis in which bulk solids are disassembled into finer, nanosized particles

a)

bottom-up approach

b)

top-down approach

c)

down-size approach

d)

up-size approach

37.

Preparation of ultra-fine nanoparticles, nanoshells and nanotubes is possible in this type of nanomaterial synthesis

a)

bottom-up approach

b)

top-down approach

c)

up-size approach

d)

down-size approach

38.

What happens to the quantum dots when they are irradiated with UV light?

a)

an electron is excited from the valence bond to the conduction band

b)

an electron is excited from the conduction bond to the valence band

c)

it releases energy in the form of light

39.

No electron delocalization occurs in this nanomaterial

a)

1-D nanomaterial

b)

0-D nanomaterial

c)

2-D nanomaterial

d)

3-D nanomaterial

40.

True or False. For solid nanoparticles, the spacing between energy levels increases as the size of the particle decreases.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

It is the outermost layer of the atmosphere.

a)

Exosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Mesosphere

42.

It is the form of nitrogen which can be assimilated by plants.

a)

nitrate

b)

nitrogen monoxide

c)

nitrogen dioxide

d)

atmospheric nitrogen

43.

It is a process in the oxygen cycle which is the major mechanism by which molecular oxygen is regenerated from carbon dioxide and water.

a)

photosynthesis

b)

oxygen capture

c)

oxygen fixation

d)

oxygen regeneration

44.

One of the major air pollutants which is formed when nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds combine chemically with oxygen in sunlight.

a)

ozone

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

toxic air pollutant

d)

greenhouse gas

45.

One of the major air pollutants which is a corrosive gas that cannot be seen or smelled at low levels but can have a "rotten egg" smell at high levels. This can react in the atmosphere to form acid rain.

a)

sulfur dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

nitrogen dioxide

d)

nitrogen monoxide

46.

It is the trapping of heat near the Earth's surface by gases in the atmosphere, particularly carbon dioxide.

a)

greenhouse gases

b)

greenhouse effect

c)

global warming

d)

climate change

47.

It is the main source of carbon dioxide emissions.

a)

energy supply

b)

industry

c)

residential and commercial

d)

agriculture

48.

It is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

a)

Kyoto Protocol

b)

Montreal Protocol

c)

Paris Climate Agreement

49.

It is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that comes out of the ground from the radioactive breakdown of uranium in soil, rock and water.

a)

Radon

b)

Thorium

c)

Xenon

d)

Ozone

50.

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a)

nitrogen

b)

water vapor

c)

CFCs

d)

methane

51.

It is the measure of all the salts dissolved in water.

a)

Salinity

b)

Tonicity

c)

Hardness

d)

Saltiness

52.

This type of water contains a significant amount of dissolved minerals such as calcium and magnesium.

a)

saltwater

b)

freshwater

c)

hard water

d)

soft water

53.

A process in the water cycle where water on the ground surface enters the soil.

a)

infiltration

b)

surface runoff

c)

precipitation

d)

transpiration

54.

Which of the two statement/s is/are true?

A. Water has high specific heat.

B. Water's high specific heat means large amount of heat is needed to vaporize a small amount of it

a)

A only

b)

B only

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the choices

55.

Which of the following is not a natural contaminant in water?

a)

dissolved minerals

b)

organic matter

c)

heavy metals

d)

Radon

56.

A pollution resulting from diffuse sources.

a)

point source pollution

b)

non-point source pollution

c)

eutrophication

d)

water pollution

57.

One of the heavy metals which is volatile and highly toxic in vapour; commonly found in fluorescent light bulbs and can cause damage to kidney, severe brain damage can cause damage to vision.

a)

mercury

b)

cadmium

c)

lead

d)

arsenic

58.

What are the two nutrients in which in excess amounts in water bodies can cause structural changes to the ecosystem.

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Potassium

d)

Carbon

59.

Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

A. Dissolved oxygen can increase with an increase in water temperature.

B. Higher dissolved oxygen is obtained if waterbody is disturbed by waves.

a)

A only

b)

B only

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the choices

60.

A desalination process which uses high pressure to force saltwater through a membrane filter to remove the salt.

a)

reverse osmosis

b)

distillation

c)

filtration

61.

It is the middle and thickest layer of Earth and is composed of hot softened rock and contains iron and magnesium.

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

core

62.

It is the removal or transport of broken rock materials away from the original site.

a)

erosion

b)

weathering

c)

transpiration

63.

A type of weathering which is due to vegetation, animals or microorganisms.

a)

chemical weathering

b)

biological weathering

c)

physical weathering

64.

What happens to the sedimentary rock when exposed to high heat and pressure?

a)

it becomes igneous rock

b)

it becomes sediments

c)

it becomes metamorphic rock

d)

it becomes magma

65.

It is the ability of the soil to provide nutrients in proper quantities and in a balanced way for the growth of plants.

a)

soil production

b)

soil productivity

c)

soil fertility

d)

soil ability

66.

It is one of the factors that results in decrease in soil fertility in which water soluble nutrients are carried to lower areas, far beyond the reach of many plant roots.

a)

Leaching

b)

Soil capping

c)

Soil erosion

d)

Filtration

67.

True or False. If there has been an accumulation of salts in soil, there will be decreased soil osmotic pressure allowing water to move into the plants.

a)

False

b)

True

68.

What are the three main macronutrients in a chemical fertilizer?

a)

N,P,Ca

b)

Mg,P,Ca

c)

Ca,Mg,Na

d)

N,P,K

69.

This type of chemical fertilizer are less likely to leach and encourage more uniform growth but nutrients are not immediately available to plants.

a)

Slow-release fertilizer

b)

Quick-release fertilizer

70.

1. Which of the following is NOT an effect of monocropping?

a)

increase in pH

b)

exhaustion of nutrients

c)

likelihood of buildup of pests and diseases

d)

decrease in biodiversity

71.

This type of hazards include carcinogens, toxic agents, reproductive toxins, irritants and agents that damage the lungs, skin, eyes or mucous membranes.

A. health hazard

B. physical hazard

a)

A only

b)

B only

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the choices

72.

True or False. The storage condition of chemicals can influence how it will behave and the hazards it presents.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

True or False. The warning labels must include the expiration date of the chemical.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

It is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will form a vapor in the air near its surface that will briefly ignite on exposure to an open flame.

a)

flash point

b)

boiling point

c)

dew point

d)

pyrolysis point

75.

A type of chemical hazard that causes visible destruction of living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact. Examples are acetic acid and sodium hydroxide.

a)

corrosive

b)

reactive-oxidizing

c)

reactive explosive

d)

toxic

76.

Which of the following questions can't be answered by a Material Safety Data Sheet?

a)

Who makes or sells it?

b)

Who should handle it?

c)

What to do is exposed?

d)

What the chemical is?

77.

What are the two primary routes of entry for hazardous materials in a laboratory?

a)

inhalation

b)

ingestion

c)

dermal contact

d)

injection

78.

It is the concentration in air that kills half of the test population.

a)

LC50

b)

LD50

c)

LG50

d)

LB50

79.

Safety goggles are used for eye protection.

True or False. There is a personal protective equipment for hearing protection.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

True or False. Washing of hands thoroughly after working with hazardous materials may not be necessary if you wore gloves.

a)

True

b)

False