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CCNA2. part 1

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

2.

Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

a)

0.0.0.0

b)

10.16.100.128

c)

10.16.100.2

d)

110

3.

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

floating static route

b)

default static route

c)

summary static route

d)

standard static route

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

a)

S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

b)

S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

c)

C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

d)

S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

5.

What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

a)

:/128

b)

FFFF:/128

c)

::/64

d)

::/0

6.

A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

a)

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

b)

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

c)

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

d)

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

a)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 00/0 100

b)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

c)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

d)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

8.

Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

a)

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

b)

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

c)

It has an administrative distance of 1.

d)

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

9.

Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

a)

They Improve network security

b)

They use fewer router resources

c)

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes

d)

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

10.

To enable RIPv1 routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 172.16.64.32 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?

a)

172.16.64.32

b)

172.16.64.0

c)

172.16.0.0

d)

No address is displayed.

11.

A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

a)

The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.

b)

The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present

c)

The router will be reset to the default factory information

d)

The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers

12.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

90

d)

20512256

13.

Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?

a)

a level 1 child route

b)

a level 1 parent route

c)

a level 1 ultimate route

d)

a level 2 supernet route

14.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

a)

The network prefix is incorrect.

b)

The destination network is incorrect.

c)

The interface is incorrect

d)

The next hop address is incorrect.

15.

A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

a)

parent route

b)

default route

c)

supernet route

d)

level 2 child route

e)

ultimate route

16.

Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

a)

scalability

b)

ISP selection

c)

speed of convergence

d)

the autonomous system that is used

e)

campus backbone architecture

17.

Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

a)

physical

b)

access

c)

core

d)

distribution

18.

What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

a)

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

b)

aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

c)

provides access to the user

d)

provides fault isolation

19.

What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

a)

provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies

b)

distributes access to end users

c)

represents the network edge

d)

acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

20.

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

a)

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

b)

the source MAC address and the incoming port

c)

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

d)

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

21.

Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

a)

Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address

b)

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table

c)

Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped

d)

Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports

22.

What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?

a)

access

b)

core

c)

data link

d)

network access

23.

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

a)

borderless switching

b)

cut-through switching

c)

ingress port buffering

d)

store-and-forward switching

24.

In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

a)

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

b)

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

c)

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

d)

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

25.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is examining a configuration implemented by a new intern who attached an IP phone to a switch port and configured the switch. Identify the issue, if any, with the configuration.

a)

The voice VLAN should be 150.

b)

The configuration is correct.

c)

There must be a data VLAN added.

d)

The spanning-tree BPDU guard feature is missing.

26.

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

a)

vty line

b)

IP address

c)

default gateway

d)

VTP domain

e)

loopback address

27.

A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

a)

auto secure MAC addresses

b)

dynamic secure MAC addresses

c)

dynamic secure MAC addresses

d)

sticky secure MAC addresses

28.

A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

a)

off

b)

restrict

c)

protect

d)

shutdown

29.

Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

a)

switchport mode access

switchport port-security

b)

switchport mode access

switchport port-security

switchport port-security maximum 2

switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport port-security violation restrict

c)

switchport mode access

switchport port-security maximum 2

switchport port-security mac-address sticky

d)

switchport mode access

switchport port-security maximum 2

switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport port-security violation protect

30.

Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

a)

RIP v2

b)

IEEE 802.1Q

c)

Rapid Spanning Tree

d)

ARP