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2019 Final Exam Study Guide: Infection Control & CulturalDiv

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A classification of people based on national origin and/or culture:
a)
acculturation
b)
cultural assimilation
c)
ethnicity
d)
ethnocentric
2.
Values, beliefs, ideas and characteristics passed from one generation to the next:
a)
culture
b)
assimilation
c)
customs
d)
ethnicity
3.
A strong feeling or belief about a person without reviewing the facts:
a)
bias
b)
ethnocentric
c)
prejudice
d)
stereotyping
4.
The process of assuming that everyone in the same ethnic, racial or cultural group act the same, share the same beliefs or attitudes: a particular group is the same:
a)
ethnicity
b)
ethnocentric
c)
prejudice
d)
stereotyping
5.
Which of the following is not one of the of the four (4) basic characteristics of culture?
a)
Culture is learned
b)
Culture is passed down
c)
Culture is shared
d)
Culture is social in nature
6.
Classification of people based on physical or biological characteristics:
a)
culture
b)
ethnicity
c)
nationality
d)
race
7.
The belief in the superiority of one's own ethnic group:
a)
acculturation
b)
cultural diversity
c)
ethnicity
d)
ethnocentric
8.
A person who believes God cannot be disproved or proved is:
a)
agnostic
b)
atheism
9.
The authority figure in a matriarchal family is:
a)
oldest female
b)
youngest female
c)
oldest male
d)
youngest male
10.
The authority figure in a patriarchal family is:
a)
youngest male
b)
oldest female
c)
youngest female
d)
oldest male
11.

Which of the following religions prohibits receiving blood or blood products?

a)

Jehovah's Witness

b)

Hinduism

c)

Buddhism

d)

Lutheran

12.

Which of the following religions is cremation not permitted?

a)

Islam

b)

Baptist

c)

Christian Scientist

d)

Hinduism

13.
Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions:  pathogen leaving the body through sexual secretions
a)
portal of exit
b)
portal of entry
c)
mode of transmission
14.
Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions:  identification of organisms
a)
portal of exit
b)
infectious agent
c)
portal of entry
15.
Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions:  food handling
a)
infectious agent
b)
source or reservoir
c)
mode of transmission
16.
person who gets a disease because of weak defenses
a)
causative agent
b)
susceptible host
c)
reservoir
d)
portal of entry
17.
Pathogen that causes disease
a)
portal of exit
b)
susceptible host
c)
causative agent
d)
portal of entry
18.
pathogen transmitted through air, soil, food or feces
a)
direct contact
b)
indirect contact
c)
opportunistic infection
d)
nosocomial infection
19.
infection acquired while body defenses are weak
a)
nosocomial
b)
opportunistic 
c)
direct
d)
indirect
20.
What is the single most effective way to break the chain of infection?
a)
handwashing
b)
sterilization
c)
cleaning surfaces
d)
nutrition
21.
Diseases caused by mites, fleas, and ticks are?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
staphlococcus
d)
ricksettsiae
22.
An infection that begins in a healthcare facility is a
a)
endogenous
b)
nosocomial
c)
exogenous
d)
opportunistic
23.
thrush and vaginitis are examples of this type of pathogen
a)
bacteria
b)
rickettsiae
c)
protozoa
d)
fungi
24.
organisms that can only live inside another living cell?
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
protozoa
d)
fungi
25.
The reservoir is a place where the pathogen can?
a)
survive
b)
reproduce
c)
be killed
d)
both  A & B
26.
all are part of PPE except
a)
gowns
b)
paper towels
c)
mask
d)
gloves
27.
What is a pathogen
a)
a doctor who specializes in curing diseases
b)
microbe that are beneficial when present
c)
a special machine that is used to grow microbes
d)
a small living organism that can cause disease
28.
Handwashing should be performed before and after:
a)
direct patient contact
b)
touching an environmental surface
c)
passing each meal tray
d)
handling clean linen
29.

A DENTAL ASSISTANT TEARS A GLOVE WHEN ASSISTING A DENTIST WITH A PATIENT WHO IS HIV POSITIVE. WHAT SHOULD THE ASSISTANT DO FIRST?

a)

NOTIFY OSHA

b)

REPORT THE INCIDENT TO THE CDC

c)

REMOVE THE GLOVES AND WASH HANDS

d)

PUT ON A NEW PAIR OF GLOVES

30.

DANIELLA ARRIVES TO WORK AT 7AM. AFTER USING THE BATHROOM, SHE TAKE THE BP AND TEMP OF 8 PATIENTS, THEN GOES ON BREAK AT 7:45AM TO EAT HER YOGURT. HOW MANY TIMES SHOULD DANIELLA HAVE PRACTICED HAND HYGIENE SO FAR?

a)

SEVEN

b)

NINE

c)

ELEVEN

d)

NINETEEN

31.

KARLA DELIVERS A MEAL TRAY TO MRS. GARCIA. SHE MOVES MRS. GARCIA'S TISSUE BOX AND MAGAZINE TO THE BEDSIDE TABLE. AS KARLA LEAVES THE ROOM, WHAT IS THE MINIMAL HAND HYGIENE REQUIRED?

a)

NONE SINCE KARLA DID NOT TOUCH THE PATIENT

b)

WASH FOR 2 MINUTES WITH SOAP AND WATER

c)

WASH USING ANTIMICROBIAL SOAP

d)

WASH USING ALCOHOL BASED SANITIZER

32.
Which type of pathogen is HIV?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Fungi
c)
Protist
d)
Virus
33.

Which type of pathogen causes malaria?

a)

Protozoa

b)

Virus

c)

Bacteria

d)

Fungi

34.
What is a nonpathogen?
a)
a disease causing microorganism
b)
a beneficial microorganism used to maintain certain body processes
c)
the smallest microorganism
d)
none of the above
35.
What are the main classes of microorganisms?
a)
bacteria,protozoa, fungi, rickettsiae, viruses
b)
bacteria, bacilli, thrush
c)
protozoa, spirilla, pathogens
d)
pathogens, nonpathogens
36.
Which microorganism is only visible using an electron microscope? 
a)
bacteria
b)
rickettsiae
c)
fungi
d)
viruses
37.
What is an aerobic organisms?
a)
do not require oxygen to live
b)
require oxygen to live
c)
multiply on their own
d)
none above
38.
What is an anaerboic organism?
a)
live and reproduce in the absence of oxygen
b)
require oxygen to live
c)
cause disease and infection
d)
all of the above
39.
What are the 4 types of infection?
a)
endogenous, exogenous, noscomial, pus-producing
b)
endogenous, nosocomial, aerobic
c)
endogenous, exogenous, nosocomial, opportunistic
d)
none of the above
40.
Which type of infection originates inside the body?
a)
nosocomial
b)
exogenous
c)
oppourtunistic
d)
endogenous
41.
Solutions that destroy microorganisms or inhibit their growth on living tissue 
a)
Antiseptics 
b)
Biohazard 
c)
Isolation 
d)
Quarantine 
42.
A sealed chamber in which objects are exposed to heat and steam under pressure
a)
Autoclave
b)
Ultrasound
c)
Filtration
d)
Radiation
43.
Destroying most microorganisms on nonliving things by physical or chemical means
a)
Disinfecting
b)
Sterilizing
c)
Antiseptics
d)
Cleaning
44.

This means an object is free of all microbes

a)

Ascptic

b)

disinfected

c)

sterile

d)

clean

45.

An approach to infection control to treat all body fluids and substances as infectious is called:

a)

Infection Control Protocol

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Standard Precautions

d)

Medical Precautions

46.
PPE stands for:
a)
Private Protective Equipment
b)
Personal Protective Equipment
c)
Personal Pizza Extreme
d)
Protective Personal Equipment
47.

Precautions used to protect against infections spread by skin to skin touch are:

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Dermatitis precautions

d)

Contact precautions

48.

How are used sharps disposed of?

a)

recap needle and place into sharps container

b)

Rinse under warm water and place into sharps container

c)

Wrap the sharp in a parer towel and place in biohazardous waster

d)

Drop the entire sharp into sharp container

49.

How long should a pair of gloves be worn?

a)

until they are dirty

b)

for one procedure or patient

c)

until they tear

d)

for 30 mins or until wet

50.

With PPE, outside the gown is considered?

a)

sterile

b)

neutral

c)

clean

d)

contaminated

51.

In 1991, what organization established Bloodborne Pathogen Standards that MUST be followed by all healthcare facilities?

a)

the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

b)

Center of Disease Control (CDC)

c)

World Health Organization (WHO)

52.

When must health care professionals use Standard Precautions? (Check all that apply)

a)

Contact with blood or any fluids that contain blood?

b)

Body secretions

c)

Tissue, urine, fecal and cell specimens

d)

Mucous Membranes

53.

Droplet Precautions must be followed by patients suspected to have (Check all that apply)

a)

Influenza

b)

E. coli

c)

Mumps and other viral infections

54.

Select the 3 main types of transmission-based precautions

a)

Standard Precautions

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

d)

Airborne

55.

Which is not a common Aesptic technique?

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Disinfection

c)

Sterilization

d)

Bio-terrorism

56.

When the outbreak of the disease occurs over a wide geographic are and a high proportion of the population.

a)

Panedmic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Communicable Disease

d)

Big Problem

57.

Type of precautions that is used on all patients.

a)

Standard

b)

Airborne

c)

Droplet

d)

Contact

58.

Tuberculosis is an example of an infectious agent that would need this type of precaution when entering the room.

a)

Droplet

b)

Airborne

c)

Droplet

59.

This precaution must be followed for patients known or suspected to be infected with a pathogen transmitted through coughing, sneezing, talking, or laughing.

a)

Airborne

b)

Droplet

c)

Contact

60.
What vaccine is the place of employment responsible for providing for high risk employees?
a)
HIV Vaccine
b)
Hepatitis B Vaccine series
c)
Chicken Pox vaccine series
d)
MMR
61.
Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria
a)
cocci
b)
spirilla
c)
bacilli
d)
toxins
62.
Round shaped bacteria that rarely show movement are
a)
spirilla
b)
toxin
c)
cocci
d)
bacilli
63.
Ringworm is caused by
a)
Virus
b)
Fungi
c)
protozoa
d)
helminth
64.
What is used to cure someone with a bacterial infection such as strep throat
a)
aspirin
b)
radiation
c)
antibiotics
d)
ibuprophen
65.
Under standard precautions, what personal protective equipment should be worn during the delivery of a baby?
a)
gloves, mask, gown
b)
gloves and mask
c)
gown, mask ,protective eyewear
d)
gloves, gown, mask, protective eyewear
66.
Standard precautions were developed by....
a)
occupational safety and health administration
b)
federal drug administration
c)
department of health human services
d)
centers of disease control and prevention
67.

True/False

AIDS is caused by the HBV virus.

a)

True

b)

False

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