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Animal Science Semester Test 1

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In which year were the first livestock animals brought over to the New World?

a)

1400s

b)

1500s

c)

1492

d)

1493

e)

1462

2.

The Brahman breed would be an example of __ cattle

a)

Bos taurus

b)

Bos indicus

c)

Humped

d)

Slick

3.

When animals are being used to pull loads, these animals are commonly referred as __________ animals.

a)

Draft

b)

Strong

c)

Haul

d)

Strudy

4.

Horses evolved from a foot tall, swamp dwelling, four toed, drawn horse called the ___

a)

Equus

b)

Merychippus

c)

Oligohippus

d)

Pliohippus

e)

Eohippus

5.

With the use of __, breeders are able to prevent injuries to animals as well as control the progeny.

a)

Natural cover

b)

Embryo transfer

c)

Artificial insemination

d)

Both B and C

6.

CAFO stands for __.

a)

Caring about feeding others

b)

Concentrated animal feeding operations

c)

Considerate animal feeding operations

d)

Concise about feeding others

7.

Originally, fairs and shows were done in order for farmers to __.

a)

Show their animals

b)

Sell their animals

c)

Breed their animals

d)

Both A and B

8.

All leftover fat and meat from the carcasses are referred to as __

a)

Waste

b)

Trash

c)

Trim

d)

Extras

9.

Plants which __ meat are marked by an offensive odor and are often far from people and towns

a)

Render

b)

Process

c)

Cook

d)

Fabricate

10.

Intramuscular fat is more commonly referred to as __

a)

Gristle

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Marbling

d)

Fat

11.

Which of the following is a true statement about hormones?

a)

Not approved for use in food producing animals

b)

Harm treated animal

c)

Occur naturally in plants and animal's system

d)

Harm the environment

12.

Which of the following accurately defines residue?

a)

The amount of time it takes for an antibiotic to leave an animal's system

b)

Antibiotics which have not completely left the animals system before slaughter

c)

Extra materials the animal produces after slaughter

d)

Heavy regulation of antibiotics

13.

Which of the following is an important component of sustainable agriculture?

a)

Pesticide use

b)

Heavy irrigation methods

c)

Depleting soil of nutrients

d)

Soil health

14.

Which of the following does NOT fall within the 3 sectors of animal welfare?

a)

Biological functioning

b)

Natural living

c)

Social aspect

d)

Mental state

15.

Infectious diseases of animals which can be transferred to humans clearly defines which of the following?

a)

Sustainability

b)

Zoonotic

c)

Susceptibility

d)

Plagues

16.

Which of the following is a food shopping trend?

a)

Watching popular food channels before shopping

b)

Ethnic diversity

c)

Companion shopping

d)

Sustainable packaging

17.

Which of the following is the first stage of the corn production process

a)

Reproduction

b)

Germination

c)

Planting

d)

Harvesting

18.

Which of the following is an environmental issue?

a)

Greenhouse gas emissions

b)

Soil erosion

c)

Water conservation

d)

Climate change

19.

GMO stands for which of the following

a)

Genes Modified Organically

b)

Genetically Modified Organisms

c)

General Methods of Organisms

d)

Genetic Modifications of Operations

20.

Poor transportation CANNOT cause which of the following health problems?

a)

Stress

b)

Brusing

c)

Swine flue

d)

Trampling

21.

Which of the following is the second step in swine hair removal

a)

Singeing

b)

Scalding

c)

Skinning

d)

Tumbling machine

22.

Antemortem inspection is done at which stage of the slaughter process

a)

Holding

b)

Splitting

c)

Grading

d)

Transportation

23.

Beef carcasseses with B maturity are in which age group

a)

Over 92

b)

42 to 72

c)

72 to 96

d)

30 to 42

24.

Which of the following animals was NOT included in the Humane Slaughter Act of 1958?

a)

Cattle

b)

Swine

c)

Chicken

d)

Horse

25.

Which beef cut is inexpensive and often used to feed a large number of people

a)

Shank

b)

Round

c)

Loin

d)

Brisket

26.

Which cut of pork meat only has thin layers of lean meat

a)

Loin

b)

Belly

c)

Ham

d)

Shoulder butt

27.

The hot box is usually set between what temperature range

a)

250 to 275 F

b)

180 to 360 F

c)

45 to 55 F

d)

26 to 28 F

28.

Which of the following is used in the slaughter process increases color and tenderness in the meat

a)

Electric stimulators

b)

Holding stage

c)

Stunning

d)

Evisceration

29.

Which of the following is NOT a quality grade for young beef (A and B maturity)

a)

Prime

b)

Choice

c)

Cutter

d)

Select

30.

What are by-products

a)

Retail cuts

b)

Product of the animal used as ingredient in non-meat products

c)

Non-major meats cuts sold to niche markets

d)

Primal cuts

31.

What does URMIS stand for

a)

Uniform Reform Meat Identify Stands

b)

United Retail Meat Identity Stands

c)

Uniform Retail Meat Incorporated Study

d)

Uniform Retail Meat Identity Standards

32.

What is the primary determination of beef quality grade

a)

Marbling

b)

Firmness

c)

Color of lean

d)

Maturity

33.

What is NOT a determining factor in yield grading

a)

Hot carcass weight

b)

Size of the ribeye muscle

c)

Texture

d)

Amount of external fat

34.

Which animal's heart valves are used in humans

a)

Swine

b)

Cattle

c)

Sheep

d)

Chickens

35.

Which of the following tells a newly hatched herring gull to peck a small red spot on its mother's beak in order to be fed

a)

Genetics

b)

Instinct

c)

Phermones

d)

Habituation

36.

Which of the following controls walking

a)

Genetics

b)

Hormones

c)

Pheromones

d)

Enviornment

37.

Which of the following pheromones is excreted from the stinger of a worker bee which signals other bees to the threat, explaining why once one bee has stung others move in

a)

Trail pheromones

b)

Aggregation pheromones

c)

Alarm pheromones

d)

Territorial pheromones

38.

Which of the following pheromones helps regulate population density

a)

Epideicitc pheromones

b)

Aggregation pheromones

c)

Territorial pheromones

d)

Sex pheromones

39.

Which of the following causes females to become more agitated and aggressive towards other animals and humans?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Amino acidds

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Testosterone

40.

Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of the male sex organs and sperm

a)

Estrogen

b)

Testosterone

c)

Progesterone

d)

Epinephrine

41.

Which of the following hormones is released when dogs fight or feel threatened

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Epinephrine

42.

Which of the following causes animals to communicate through the ground or other foundation

a)

Substratum

b)

Acoustic

c)

Habituation

d)

Chemorecption

43.

Which of the following takes place when one animal watches the actions of another and learns from those

a)

Habituation

b)

Conditioning

c)

Observation

d)

Playing

44.

Which of the following explains the reason for rapid learning which occurs during a brief receptive period, often right after birth or hatching

a)

Habituation

b)

Imprinting

c)

Reasoning

d)

Condition

45.

Beef is the second highest consumed meat in the United States

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which is NOT a segment of the beef cattle industry

a)

Cow/calf

b)

Farrow to finish

c)

Stocker

d)

Seedstock

47.

__ are a number estimate of breeding potential for characteristics, such as gain, muscling and maternal and carcass traits

a)

Sterotypes

b)

EPDs

c)

Genotypes

d)

None of the above

48.

What is an advantage of synchronizing a cow herd

a)

Longer calving season

b)

Results in a ununiform calf crop

c)

More labor intensive

d)

None of the above

49.

Which is the most intensely managed area of beef cattle production

a)

Reproduction

b)

Calf management

c)

Nutrition

d)

Facilities

50.

__ is /are the first limiting nutrient in cattle

a)

Protein

b)

Vitamins

c)

Water

d)

Roughage

51.

Breeding stock can receive implants

a)

True

b)

False

52.

It is much easier and less expensive to prevent sickness than to treat it

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Cattle have a __ or their own safety zone.

a)

Fear zone

b)

Bubble

c)

Sight zone

d)

Flight zone

54.

What are some programs feedlot managers should establish to prevent water and air pollution

a)

Control rainfall runoff

b)

Manage solid manure

c)

Maintain feedlot surface

d)

All of the above

55.

Calm cattle have a larger flight zone

a)

True

b)

False

56.

An animal which is thrown off balance will tend to settle down

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Thin boned cattle will behave like deer

a)

True

b)

False

58.

The cattle's last experience in the chute is the most important

a)

True

b)

False

59.

When trying to move cattle the relationship to their point of shoulder is most important

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Cattle will continue to move if the crowd pen is always full

a)

True

b)

False

61.

To improve cattle movement skylights are recommended

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Skylights create a shadow free enviornment

a)

True

b)

False

63.

A manual chute is safer for the animals

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Back stop gates are needed periodically throughout the enclosure

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which breed classification is a cross breed between a fine wool breed and a long wool breed

a)

Fine wool breeds

b)

Medium wool breeds

c)

Long wool breeds

d)

Hair sheep breeds

66.

Which type of operation is aimed toward maximizing production and market value of offspring

a)

Seedstock

b)

Purebred

c)

Commercial

d)

All of the above

67.

Sheep consume roughly 30 to 50% of their body weight each day

a)

True

b)

False

68.

__ are common problem of sheep as they attach to the lining of the digestive tract which they absorb nutrients and suck blood

a)

Internal parasites

b)

External parasites

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

69.

Which disease is caused by heavy feeding or a drastic change in feed over a short period of time

a)

Tetanus

b)

Overeating disease

c)

White muscle disease

d)

Coccidiosis

70.

Which disease causes stones or crystals to be formed in the urinary tract

a)

Parasites

b)

White muscle disease

c)

Urinary calculi

d)

Tetanus

71.

A body condition score of nine is considered to be the best prior to breeding animals

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The gestation or pregnancy length in sheep is __ __

a)

148 days

b)

128 days

c)

168 days

d)

248 days

73.

Gestation ends with what is known as __ or birth

a)

Estrus

b)

Dystocia

c)

Colostrum

d)

Parturition

74.

__ is known as removing the wool around the dock and mammary glands

a)

Shearing

b)

Clipping

c)

Tagging

d)

All of the above

75.

__ is a form of ownership or strategic management where all or more than 1 section of an industry is combined under the same ownership

a)

Seedstock operation

b)

Vertical integration

c)

Farrow to finish

d)

Farrow to nursery

76.

Which breed is red with white face, feet and underline

a)

Hampshire

b)

Duroc

c)

Hereford

d)

Tamworth

77.

What is the first limiting nutrient of all animals

a)

Water

b)

Protein

c)

Minerals

d)

Vitamins

78.

What is a main factor in selecting breeding hogs

a)

Muscling

b)

Frame size

c)

Structural correctness

d)

Maternal traits

79.

__ is the period of time in a sow's cycle when she is receptive to a boar for breeding purposes and the vulva is swollen and red

a)

Gestation

b)

Farrowing

c)

Castration

d)

Estrus

80.

Which of the following is the fastest growing division in the goat industry

a)

Meat

b)

Milk

c)

Fiber

d)

Genetics

81.

Which state is leading state in milk goat industry

a)

Texas

b)

Oklahoma

c)

California

d)

New Mexico

82.

The boer goat was imported to US in which year

a)

1990

b)

1992

c)

1993

d)

1997

83.

Which of the following is the fiber produced from the undercoat of a goat's pelt

a)

Wool

b)

Cashmere

c)

Chevre

d)

Mohair

84.

Which benefit does goat milk have over cow milk

a)

Lower butterfat content

b)

Higher butterfat content

c)

More easily digested by humans

d)

Broader product line

85.

Which goat breed undergoes a temporary paralysis when frightened

a)

Kiko

b)

Myotonic

c)

Alpine

d)

LaMancha

86.

Which of the following goat breeds are seasonal breeders and tend to have single kid crops

a)

Angora goats

b)

Boer goats

c)

Tennessee fainting goats

d)

Nubian goats

87.

Which breed is known for being used for both milk and meat production

a)

Boer

b)

Angora

c)

Nubian

d)

Fainting goats

88.

Which of the following is a common fence used in a goat production

a)

Barbed wire

b)

Woven wire

c)

Pipe

d)

Wooden

89.

Which of the following accounts for more than 3/4 of all livestock lost to predators

a)

Coyotes and Dogs

b)

Bears

c)

Bobcats

d)

Foxes

90.

Morgan is a producer and wants to identify her animals by an individual animal number as well as her operation identification

a)

Ear tagging

b)

Branding

c)

Tattooing

d)

Collars

91.

Which instrument is used to perform bloodless dehorning

a)

Burdizzo

b)

Barnes dehorner

c)

Heated iron

d)

Clippers

92.

Which of the following terms defines a castrated male goat

a)

Billy

b)

Buck

c)

Ewe

d)

Wether

93.

When should a goat's hooves be trimmed

a)

When goats are shorn for the summer

b)

Goats live on rough environment terrain

c)

Sidewall of hoof extends past sole of the foot

d)

Hoof is event with plane of foot

94.

Which stomach compartment produces bacteria to break down roughages

a)

Rumen

b)

Reticulum

c)

Omasum

d)

Abomasum