wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Environmental Management (FCEM 4)

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements are true?

a)

An EMS provides a systematic approach to environmental management

b)

An EMS guarantees legal compliance

c)

An EMS may generates new business

d)

An EMS may lead to cost savings

2.

A manufacturing company is audited by a third party certification body as part of their EMS certification. The auditor identifies a number of areas where the company is not meeting the required standard. What terminology is used to describe these areas?

a)

Compliance

b)

Nonconformity

c)

Conformity

d)

Breaches

3.

Which of the following is not a principle of auditing ecosystem service?

a)

Integrity

b)

Evidence-based

c)

Independence

d)

Subjectivity

4.

Which of the following data cannot be described as being quantitative?

a)

Appearance of smoke coming out of a chimney

b)

Complaints received about waste odours

c)

Volume of waste being sent to landfill each year

d)

Best available techniques being used to reduce pollution

5.

An oil and gas company wants to submit permit applications for onshore oil and gas exploration. Which of the following stakeholders should the company consult with?

a)

Representatives from the local community

b)

The security Agents

c)

Environmental regulators

d)

All of the above

6.

The development of a documented process to assess the environmental performance of suppliers prior to appointment, would be covered by which part of an ISO 14001:2015 environmental management system?

a)

Context of the organisation

b)

Performance evaluation

c)

Operation

d)

Support

7.

"An audit of the purchasing department against ISO 14001" would best be described as which of the following audit types?

a)

Due diligence audit

b)

Activity audit

c)

Third party audit

d)

Legal compliance audit

8.

Which of the following is not a barrier to change?

a)

Staff are disengaged from their roles, colleagues,

managers and customers

b)

Involve staff from all areas of the organisation –

identify champions to engage and motivate.

c)

Report regularly to keep up momentum.

Staff are ‘falsely urgent’ – their time is taken up by

constant firefighting

d)

Complacency – thinking that what got us here will

take us forward

9.

Which of the following is a barrier to change?

a)

Make the business case for change.

Provide resources to enable a change in focus.

Emphasise that a shift to a leadership approach

is more sustainable, encourages greater staff

responsibility and output – less focus on reporting.

Provide leadership training.

b)

Identify the risks from not changing.

Highlight others’ achievements through different

ways of working.

c)

Working in isolated silos rather than holistically

d)

Establish a strategy to determine priorities.

Create a ‘change team’ and allocate adequate

resources.

10.

Which of the following is not an enabler of change?

a)

Create a ‘change team’ and allocate adequate

resource

b)

Reframe the risk associated with staying the same

c)

Create a ‘change team’ and allocate adequate

resource

d)

The necessary internal competence may not be in

place

11.

Which of the following is not part of the four simplified steps of the change management ?

a)

Determining the need for change

b)

Implementing the change

c)

Preparing and planning for change

d)

Reflecting on the the change.

12.

Change management could be simplified into four steps: Which of the following are part of the 4 steps?

a)

Determining the need for change

b)

Preparing and planning for change

c)

Implementing the change

d)

Sustaining the change.

13.

Which of the following is not part of Change Curve in relation to change management models?

a)

‘shock’

b)

‘anger’

c)

‘acceptance’

d)

‘capability’

14.

An environmentalist wants to use a model in Environmental Management Systems such as ISO 14001. Which of the following models will be appropriate?

a)

John P. Kotter’s ‘8 Steps to Successful Change

b)

ADKAR Model

c)

Deming Cycle (Plan–Do–Check–Act)

d)

Change Curve

15.

Which of the following are types of Environmental Management System (EMS)?

a)

ISO 14001 – international

b)

BS 8555 – enables phased implementation of ISO

14001 (British standard)

c)

Eco-management and Audit Scheme (EMAS) –

European standard

d)

Green Dragon Environmental Standard – Wales

e)

Integrated management (PAS 99) – environmental

standards combined with another discipline.

16.

Which ISO sits within the ISO 14000 family of standards is internationally recognised EMS standard which provides organisations with a framework to protect the environment, and respond to changing environmental conditions in balance with socio-economic needs.?

a)

ISO 14001 It specifies requirements that enable an organisation to achieve the intended outcomes that it sets for its EMS.

b)

ISO 14020 series – environmental labels and

declarations

c)

ISO 14031 – environmental performance evaluation

d)

ISO 14015 – environmental assessment of sites and

organisations

17.

Which of the ISO 14000 family of standards deals with incorporating eco-design in organisations?

a)

ISO 14063

b)

ISO 14064

c)

ISO 14040

d)

ISO 14006

18.

Which part of the Deming cycle relates to the statement 'establish objectives and processes necessary to deliver results'?

a)

Plan

b)

Do

c)

Check

d)

Act

19.

Certification by a United Kingdom Accreditation Service (UKAS) accredited certification body normally involves

an application to determine the scope and risk. Which of the following is not part of the certification process ?

a)

Determines the intent of the EMS and readiness for stage 2. It includes a review of documentation to make sure the key parts of the standard have been considered.

b)

Conduct an environmental review to determine the external and internal issues, needs and expectations of interested parties, risks and opportunities, environmental aspects and compliance obligations

c)

Continued assessments are conducted to ensure the system remains effective after certification. A more in-depth strategic review is conducted after three years.

d)

Focuses on the effectiveness of the systems at achieving their intended outcome, and is more in-depth than stage 1. It covers all requirements of the standard and all in-scope activities.

20.

Which of the following is not part of the basic steps when implementing an EMS?

a)

Develop and fulfilling an internal audit programme – addressing non-conformities

b)

Identify the processes and documented information required

c)

Conduct an environmental review to determine the external and internal issues, needs and expectations of interested parties, risks and opportunities, environmental aspects and compliance obligations

d)

Conduct the management review unnessary

21.

Which of the statements below does not fall within the implementation of an Environmental Management System?

a)

Get top management support and assign responsibility and authority to ensure the system conforms, and for reporting performance

b)

Consider potential objectives and devise the policy statement

c)

Consider the competencies required and gain staff commitment and improving awareness

d)

Determine the scope but do not consider the operational and emergency processes required

22.

one of the statements below is not a benefits of Environmental Management Systems

a)

Provides a systematic approach to initiating and continuing environmental improvements and helps meet compliance obligations

b)

Internal resources are required to establish and maintain, and certification involves additional cost

c)

Provides information to management and demonstrates green credentials; retains and wins work

d)

Can identify cost-saving opportunities and reduces risk, including prosecution risk

23.

Select all the challenges of Environmental Management Systems from the statements below

a)

Certification involves additional management time and negative publicity, if certification is lost

b)

Can cause confidentiality concerns and information on performance may leak externally

c)

There can be inconsistencies between auditors and can become focused on meeting requirements rather than improving performance

d)

Enhances environmental performance by identifying resource-efficiency opportunities and improves the delivery of products and services

e)

No guarantee of improvement and scope and objectives are down to the organisation’s discretion

24.

There are 22 sub-clauses within 10 high-level clauses . All

requirements must be met for organisations to claim conformity. Which clause/(clauses contain the requirements)

a)

Clauses 4–10

b)

Clauses 1–10

c)

Clauses 4–6

d)

Clauses 1- 6

25.

The following are examples of raw data and unadjusted by any other factor except.

a)

Electricity could be expressed as ‘kWh per 1,000

units produced’

b)

Total water consumed in litres over a set period

c)

Total product sold in units over a set period

d)

Total waste sent to landfill in tonnes over a set

period.

26.

Select all the examples of raw data adjusted to consider a factor such as number of employees, floor space, product

produced, weather conditions or another output.

a)

If gas is used for heating, it could be expressed as ‘kWh relative to heating degree days

b)

Total energy consumed in kWh over a set period

c)

Energy used for air conditioning could be expressed as ‘kWh relative to cooling degree days’ or electrical input relative to cooled air output

d)

Water usage could be reported as ‘litres per employee’ or ‘litres per m²’

27.

Different data types may need to be managed in

different ways. _________________ requires all environmental

communications to be reliable.

a)

ISO 14006:2015

b)

ISO 14026:2015

c)

ISO 14000:2015

d)

ISO 14001:2015

28.

Which statements relate to the reasons why monitoring is an essential element of environmental management?

a)

Measuring the extent to which objectives have been achieved – e.g. environmental performance, expected return on investment for energy-efficient product installations

b)

Legal requirements – e.g. a permit or licence requirement and to provide data for decision-making – e.g.greenhouse gas (GHG) reductions

c)

Contractual obligation – e.g. zero waste to landfill on construction sites and significant resource uses

d)

Demonstrating the failure of an environmental

improvement programme.

29.

___________________ is defined as a “quantitative value or measure of energy performance, as defined by the organisation”. This could be expressed as a simple metric, ratio or a more complex model. Energy performance is defined as a “measurable result related to efficiency [ratio of output to input], energy use [e.g. lighting] or energy consumption [i.e. quantity]’.

a)

Energy Performance Indicators (EnPIs) ISO 50001

b)

Waste management, energy

c)

Emission limit values

d)

Water quality

30.

The challenge or aim for reporting on energy

performance is to find indicator(s) which have the

following essential attributes:

a)

It responds only to changes in energy performance,

and is not affected by factors such as the weather,

product throughputs or other potentially distorting

influences

b)

The direction and magnitude of change are

consistent with, and proportionate to, the change in

energy performance

c)

The chosen indicator can survive non-routine changes to the monitored object, such as the

addition or removal of production capacity, and the

acquisition, disposal or remodelling of buildings.

d)

measurable result related to efficiency [ratio of output to input],

energy use [e.g. lighting] or energy consumption [i.e.quantity].

31.

Methods to measure compliance include the following:

a)

Evaluating regulatory contact received and conducting inspection

b)

Monitoring of performance

c)

Conducting tests and drills and complaints

d)

Legal settlement

32.

Audits also can be classified into the following:

a)

‘Activity’ – e.g. energy, waste, water, packaging

b)

'Compliance’ – e.g. liability, risk, evaluation of

compliance, pre-acquisition

c)

‘Management’ – focusing on procedures, policies,

system clauses

d)

Civil case - e.g. summoned to the law courts

33.

Conducting an audit can be broken down into three

stages:

a)

Reporting

b)

Scoping

c)

Planning

d)

Conducting

34.

Third-party audits tend to classify findings as either:

a)

Minor – usually relates to a single identified lapse, which would not indicate a breakdown in the management system’s ability to achieve its intended outcomes.

b)

Report - The main body of the report should detail the audit

findings. Audit findings indicate conformity or nonconformity,

as well as identification of observations, opportunities for improvement or recording of good practices.

c)

Observation – and/or Opportunity for

Improvement – is usually considered a risk of future

non-conformity, and may be raised where there

is insufficient objective evidence to justify a nonconformity, or to make the organisation aware of a potential non-conforming situation. Observations

also can be used to comment on good practice or to

identify an opportunity for ‘improvement’ to enhance

the system or realise an efficiency.

d)

Major – usually indicates a breakdown in the management system's ability to achieve its intended outcomes. It also can mean a failure to fulfil one or more requirements of the standard

or a legal breach. A major non-conformity puts certification at risk.

35.

Following the audit, organisations are required to

investigate the underlying cause of findings to

determine corrective action. Corrective action plans

should contain:

a)

Details of the conformity and the root cause

b)

The ‘correction’ to fix the immediate issue and

‘corrective’ action to prevent recurrence

c)

Responsibilities and timescales

d)

Evaluation of the effectiveness of corrective action

36.

Auditor competence should include a consideration

for:

a)

Knowledge and experience of the management system being audited (ISO 14001) and Audit principle knowledge and skills, procedures and methods (observation, interview and analytical

skills)

b)

Knowledge and experience of the audit topic – e.g.

environmental issues, legislation and risk

c)

Appropriate personal behaviours and management

and delegation skills, if leading an audit and Other – organisational context, specific industry

knowledge and experience.

d)

Ineffective experience (type and length) in conducting different types of audit