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Worksheets

Hesi Winter 2020

Total questions: 204

Worksheet time: 5hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients about breast self examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time?

a)

At the onset of menstruation

b)

Every month during ovulation

c)

Weekly at the same time of the day

d)

1 week after menstruation begins

2.

Which of the following clinical manifestations are not associated with breast cancer? (SATA)

a)

Nipple discharge

b)

Left breast is larger than right breast

c)

Nipple retraction

d)

Peau d’orange

e)

Hair growth on areolas

3.

To ensure that the breast tissue will be spread evenly over the chest wall during an examination, the nurse asks the patient to lie supine with the arms and hands in which position?

a)

The ipsilateral arm behind the head

b)

Hands clasped just above the umbilicus

c)

Both arms overhead with palms upwards

d)

The dominant arm straight alongside the body

4.

A client has recently received a diagnosis of early-stage breast cancer. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to focus on?

a)

Maintaining the client’s hope

b)

Preparing a will and advanced directives

c)

Discussing replacement child care for client’s children

d)

Discussing the client’s past experiences with her grandmother’s cancer

5.

When discussing risk factors for breast cancer with a group of women, which of the following should the nurse stress as the greatest known risk factor for breast cancer?

a)

Being a woman older than 60 years

b)

Experiencing menstruation at 40 years or more

c)

Using estrogen replacement therapy during menopause

d)

Having a grandmother with postmenopausal breast cancer

6.

What side effects are most often associated with antineoplastic chemotherapy used to treat breast neoplasms? (SATA)

a)

Loss of vision

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Seizures

d)

Tinnitus

e)

Alopecia

7.

The community health nurse is creating a poster for an educational session for a group of women and will be discussing the risk factors associated with breast cancer. Which risk factors for breast cancer should the nurse list on the poster? Select all that apply.

a)

Multiparity

b)

Early menarche

c)

Early menopause

d)

Family history of breast cancer and history of previous cancer of the breast, uterus, or ovaries

e)

High-dose radiation exposure to chest

8.

Which of the following demonstrates incorrect BSE technique? (SATA)

a)

Using fingerpads to palpate breasts

b)

Sitting upright

c)

Arms flexed and relaxed on the sides of the body

d)

Lying down

e)

Using fingertips to palpate breasts

9.

Which nursing roles are important for the prevention and detection of cancer?

a)

Health promotion in relation to eating low-fibre, refined-carbohydrate diets

b)

Teaching about cancer risk factors

c)

Encouraging the public to participate in regular screening tests for all detectable cancer sites

d)

Using people’s natural fear of cancer to motivate changes in unhealthy lifestyles

10.

Which information will the nurse provide to a patient receiving radiation therapy or chemotherapy?

a)

Effective birth control methods should be used for the rest of the patient’s life

b)

Notify the health care team if nausea and vomiting are experienced during treatment so that these can be managed

c)

After successful treatment, a return to a person's previous functional level occurs

d)

The cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue that may occur during treatment can be reduced by restricting activity

11.

Maria recently underwent a mastectomy and refuses to acknowledge that her breast was removed. She believes that her breast is intact under the dressing. The nurse should:

a)

Remind Maria that she needs to accept her diagnosis so that she can begin rehabilitation

b)

Change her dressing so Maria can see the incision

c)

Reinforce Maria’s for several days under her body heals

d)

Recognize that Maria is experiencing denial, a normal stage of the grieving process

12.

Which nursing actions have the highest priority in the initial postoperative period? (SATA)

a)

Review hand and wrist exercises with the patient

b)

Observe the Jackson-Pratt drainage device

c)

Administer a PRN dose of prescribed analgesic

d)

Provide privacy for the patient and her family

e)

Monitor vital signs and pulse oximetry

13.

The nurse is preparing to care for a dying client, and several family members are at the client’s bedside. What therapeutic techniques should the nurse use when communicating with the family? (SATA)

a)

Discourage reminiscing

b)

Encourage expression of feelings, concerns, and fears

c)

Explain everything that is happening to all family members

d)

Touch and hold the client’s or family member’s hand if appropriate

e)

Be honest and let the client and family know they will not be abandoned by the nurse

14.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving home hospice care. The nurse understands that hospice care provides:

a)

Support and care for persons in the last phases of incurable diseases

b)

Support and care to patients at the end of life

c)

Support and respite for caregivers of terminal patients

d)

Support and care for patients who have acute illness

15.

An older adult died following a myocardial infarction that occurred while performing yard work. Which of the following actions would indicate that the client’s partner was experiencing prolonged grief?

a)

Initially denied the partners death

b)

Talked extensively about the partner in the years following death

c)

Suggests that the partner will be home soon on the anniversary of death

d)

Cries uncontrollably and unpredictably in the weeks following the death

16.

What are the physical manifestions at EOL? (SATA)

a)

Absent blink reflex

b)

Increased metabolism

c)

Cold, clammy skin

d)

Decreased RR

e)

Increase in urine output

17.

A nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient during the 11 PM to 7 AM shift. The patient says, "I just can't sleep. I keep thinking about what my family will do when I am gone." What response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

a)

"Oh, don't worry about that now. You need to sleep."

b)

"What seems to be concerning you the most?"

c)

"I have talked to your wife and she told me she will be fine."

d)

"I have to go and give medicines, you should discuss this with your wife."

18.

After a patient dies of ovarian cancer, her daughter says to the nurse, "You'll probably think I'm terrible, but I'm glad she can finally rest peacefully." Which response by the nurse is best?

a)

"Your feelings are a normal response to watching your loved one suffer."

b)

"It's unusual for family members to be grateful that a loved one has died."

c)

"Your mother's death has been very hard on you; you should seek counselling."

d)

"I don't understand what you mean by this comment."

19.

A hospitalized client tells the nurse that a living will is being prepared and that the lawyer will be bringing the will to the hospital today for witness signatures. The client asks the nurse for assistance in obtaining a witness to the will. Which is the most appropriate response to the client?

a)

“I will sign as a witness to your signature.”

b)

“You will need to find a witness on your own.”

c)

“Whoever is available at the time will sign as a witness for you.”

d)

“I will call the nursing supervisor to seek assistance regarding your request.”

20.

The client did not have an advance directive when he suffered a serious stroke. Who is responsible to be instituted when the patient cannot communicate his or her specific wishes?

a)

Adult children

b)

Notary and attorney

c)

Physician and family

d)

Physician and nursing staff

21.

The home health nurse is asked by a family member what he should do if the patient’s chronic illness continues to worsen even with increased medical interventions. The nurse recognizes that the family member is posing a question about goals of care at the end of life. What should the nurse do?

a)

Encourage the family to think more positively about the patient’s new therapy

b)

Avoid the discussion because it has to do with medical, not nursing, diagnoses

c)

Begin the discussion by asking the family member what he believes the goals should be

d)

Initiate a discussion about advance directives with the patient, family, and health care team

22.

The home care nurse is visiting an older client whose spouse died 6 months ago. Which behaviors by the client indicates effective coping? (SATA)

a)

Neglecting personal grooming

b)

Looking at old snapshots of family

c)

Participating in a senior citizens program

d)

Visiting the spouse’s grave once a month

e)

Decorating a wall with the spouse’s pictures and awards received

23.

Which of the following is one of the most common and difficult issues faced by older bereaved spouses?

a)

Adjusting to physical problems

b)

Overcoming mental health problems

c)

Completing tasks of daily living

d)

Managing finances

24.

According to Kübler-Ross’s stages of dying, a patient may feel overwhelmingly lonely and withdraw from interpersonal interaction during this phase:

a)

Denial

b)

Anger

c)

Bargaining

d)

Depression

25.

Which of the following behaviours are part of Kübler-Ross’s theory of the stages of grief?

a)

Denial

b)

Withdrawal

c)

Anger

d)

Depression

e)

Relief

26.

The health care provider prescribes levothyroxine (Synthroid) for a client with myxedema. After teaching regarding this drug, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the client says which of the following?

a)

“I can expect the medication dose may need to be adjusted.”

b)

“I only need to take this drug until my symptoms are improved.”

c)

“I can expect to return to normal function with the use of this drug.”

d)

“I will report any chest pain or difficulty breathing to the doctor right away.”

27.

The client did not have an advance directive when he suffered a serious stroke. Who is responsible for identifying end-of-life measures to be instituted when the patient cannot communicate his or her specific wishes?

a)

Adult children

b)

Notary and attorney

c)

Physician and family

d)

Physician and nursing staff

28.

A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic, with little relief. Which problem may be causing this pain? (Silvestri, pp. 952 - NCLEX)

a)

A) Infection under the cast

b)

B) The anxiety of the client

c)

C) Impaired tissue perfusion

d)

D) The recent occurrence of the fracture

29.

Which cast care instructions should the nurse provide to a client who just had a plaster cast applied to the right forearm? SATA (Silvestri, pp. 952 - NCLEX)

a)

A) Keep the cast clean and dry

b)

B) Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry

c)

C) Keep the cast and extremity elevated

d)

D) Expect tingling and numbness in the extremity

e)

E) Use a hair dryer set on a warm to hot setting to dry the cast

30.

The nurse is preparing a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism for discharge. The nurse determines that the client understands discharge instructions if the client states that which signs and symptoms are associated with this diagnosis? SATA (Silvestri, pp.647 - NCLEX)

a)

A) Puffiness of the face

b)

B) Weight loss

c)

C) Feeling cold

d)

D) Loss of body hair

e)

E) Persistent lethargy

31.

A client admitted to an emergency department and a diagnosis of myxedema coma is made. Which action should the nurse prepare to carry out initially? (Silvestri, pp.646 - NCLEX)

a)

A) Warm the client

b)

B) Maintain a patent airway

c)

C) Administer thyroid hormone

d)

D) Administer fluid replacement

32.

What values would you expect from the radioactive iodine uptake test of someone with hypothyroidism? Include values from 2-4H and 24H after the test. SATA. (Silvestri, p.628 - NCLEX)

a)

Below 3%

b)

Below 5%

c)

Above 10%

d)

Above 30%

33.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hypothyroidism? (Silvestri, p. 634, table 50-2)

a)

Constipation

b)

Lethargy and fatigue

c)

Weight gain

d)

Goiter

34.

What is the triad of symptoms the nurse would expect to find during assessment of the client with Parkinson's disease?

a)

Spasticity, diplopia, tremor

b)

Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia

c)

Ataxia, drowsiness, dysarthria

d)

Diplopia, tremor, bradykinesia

35.

What is the mechanism of action of the antiparkinsonian medication carbidopa-levodopa? (Silvestri, p.924; Lewis, p.1554,-5)

a)

Levidopa is a precursor of dopamine and can cross the blood brain barrier

b)

Carbidopa prevents levodopa from being broken down by dopa decarboxylase so it can cross the blood brain barrier to inhibit dopamine production

c)

Carbidopa-levodopa relieves bradykinesia, tremors, and rigidity

d)

Carbidopa prevents L-dopa from being broken down by dopa decarboxylase, allowing more L-dopa to reach the brain, increasing the amount of dopamine available to the CNS

36.

In planning care for a patient who has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, which nursing diagnosis is the priority?

a)

Ineffective coping related to depression and dysfunction due to disease process

b)

Impaired verbal communication related to limited ability to move facial muscles

c)

Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and motor weakness

d)

Risk for constipation related to medication side effects and reduced activity

37.

Fat embolism syndrome usually occurs within 24-72 hours of orthopedic injury. When assessing a client for fat emboli, you should assess for: (select all that apply)

a)

Bradypnea

b)

Mental changes

c)

Urticaria

d)

Petechiae

38.

The nurse explains to a client with a distal tibial fracture returning for a 3-week checkup that healing is indicated by which of the following?

a)

Callus formation

b)

Complete bony union

c)

Hematoma at the fracture site

d)

Presence of granulation tissue

39.

What is some interdisciplinary care that could assist a patient experiencing the progressive effects of Parkinson's disease? (Silvestri, p. 913; Lewis, p. 1556-7)

a)

Speech-language pathologist

b)

Social work

c)

Physical therapy/rehabilitation

d)

Psychotherapy/counselling

40.

If a patient has an open fracture, a tetanus booster required if they have not gotten a booster within:

a)

10 years

b)

5 years

c)

1 year

d)

4 months

41.

Why do nurses promote deep breathing exercises? SATA

a)

promote full lung expansion

b)

reduce the risk of atelectasis

c)

prevent constipation

d)

reduce the risk of pneumonia

42.

How should you take Levothyroxine (Synthroid)? SATA

a)

On an empty stomach

b)

after breakfast

c)

once started, for the rest of your life

d)

once a day

43.

What is a symptom of hypothyroidism?

a)

hyperthermia

b)

tachycardia

c)

weight loss

d)

brittle nails

44.

A patient suspected of having hypothyroidism would have a serum lab report that reveals which of the following?

a)

Decreased TSH, T4, and T3

b)

Elevated TSH and decreased T4

c)

Decreased TSH and elevated T4 and T3

d)

Elevated TSH, T4, and T3

45.

A patient who has just undergone thyroidectomy is experiencing a high fever and tachycardia and is very restless. Which of the following complications would you expect is occurring?

a)

myxedematous coma

b)

thyroid storm

c)

anxiety r/t surgical procedure

d)

Hypothyroidism

46.

Pt is admitted to the emergency department, diagnosis of Myxedema coma, 1st action of RN?

a)

Warm the Pt with a blanket

b)

Maintain patent airway

c)

Administer thyroid hormone

d)

Administer fluid replacement

47.

Which of the following are characteristic of hypothyroidism? Select all that apply.

a)

oily skin

b)

weight gain

c)

diarrhea

d)

anorexia

e)

gradual onset of symptoms

48.

The nurse should tell the client who is taking levothyroxine, to notify the health care provider (HCP) if which problem occurs?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Tremors

c)

Cold intolerance

d)

Excessively dry skin

49.

RN preparing a Pt with hypothyroid for discharge, RN determines that Pt understands discharge instructions if Pt states which signs and symptoms associated with his diagnosis? (SATA)

a)

Tremors

b)

Feeling warm

c)

Loss of body hair

d)

Weight loss

e)

Persistent lethargy

50.

A patient with hypothyroidism may have present which of the following symptom

a)

vomiting, diarrhea

b)

tachycardia, sleep and disturbances

c)

hypertension, and sleep disturbances

d)

urinary incontinence and bradycardia

51.

Pt admitted to unit after thyroidectomy, which assessment is the priority for the Pt

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Level of hoarseness

c)

Respiratory distress

d)

Edema at surgical site

52.

How does levothyroxine function?

a)

It replaces the thyroid gland

b)

It acts like like the thyroid hormones, released from thyroid gland

c)

It decreases the size of the gland

d)

It increases iodine levels

53.

Family member shares with nurse that is getting harder to understand what the patient is trying to say, even when allowing more time. What intervention will the nurse recommend to address the problem?

a)

Speak to patient using a slow, exaggerated voice

b)

Stand directly in front of patient when speaking

c)

Do not become frustrated with patients because it only makes things worse

d)

Use an erase slate so that patient can write everything

54.

What is the triad of symptoms the nurse would expect to find during assessment of the client with Parkinson's disease?

a)

Spasticity, diplopia, tremor

b)

tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia

c)

ataxia, drowsiness, dysarthria

d)

diplopia, tremor, bradykinesia

55.

Carbidopa-Levodopa is prescribed for a client with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse monitors the client for side and adverse effects of the medication. Which finding indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect?

a)

Pruritus

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Impaired voluntary movements

56.

A client has just been admitted to the nursing unit following a thyroidectomy. Which assessment is the priority for this client? (NCLEX, p.647)

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Level of hoarseness

c)

Respiratory distress

d)

Edema at the surgical site

57.

The nurse is instructing a client with Parkinson's disease about preventing falls. Which client statements reflects a need for further teaching?

a)

"I can sit down to put on my pants and shoes"

b)

"I try to exercise every day and rest when I'm tired"

c)

"My son removed all loose rugs from my bedroom"

d)

"I don't need to use my walker to get to the bathroom"

58.

Which nursing task(s) can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)

a)

Empty foley catheter and report output for a client with a urinary tract infection

b)

Assist with feeding Leo breakfast at the dining room table

c)

Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a client with a headache

d)

Help Leo ambulate down the hall to the shower area

e)

Review the vital signs of a client who passed out in the day room

59.

Member from the support group asks, “How does someone get Parkinson’s disease?” What is the best response by the nurse?

a)

It occurs mostly in men who have a history of seizure activity

b)

Smoking cigarettes over a long period of time may cause Parkinson’s

c)

There is really no known specific cause for Parkison’s disease

d)

It is hereditary and usually passed to male son by the mother

60.

When evaluating a client's skeletal traction apparatus, it is important to ensure that:

a)

The client's body is maintained in proper alignment

b)

Rope knots fit snugly into pulleys

c)

The footplate that supports the client's foot touches the foot of the bed

d)

The weights that apply traction force are intermittently removed

61.

Which of the following is associated with fat embolism syndrome and places a client at an increased risk?

a)

Their recent fracture

b)

Their athletic ability

c)

Their slow pulse rate

d)

Ancef (cefazolin) therapy

62.

What is a major goal of treatment for the client with a chronic, progressive neurological disease?

a)

Reversal of pathophysiological features

b)

Total remission of the disease

c)

Adaptation by client and family to the disease

d)

Continuation of usual lifestyle

63.

A patient who is diagnosed with Parkinson disease (PD) states, “I can’t tie my shoelaces anymore.” The healthcare provider recognizes that this patient’s problem is due to a deficiency in which of these neurotransmitters?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

64.

Which of the following indicates a neuro-vascular problem during the nurse's assessment of a client with a fracture?

a)

Exaggeration of extremity movement

b)

Decreased sensation distal to the fracture site

c)

Increased redness and heat below the injury

d)

Purulent drainage at the site of an open fracture

65.

What statement by a patient, who just received a cast on the right arm for a fracture, requires you to notify the physician immediately?

a)

"it is really itchy inside my cast !"

b)

"I can feel my fingers and move them"

c)

"I've been using ice packs to reduce swelling"

d)

"My pain is so severe that it hurts to stretch or elevate my arm"

66.

A male patient with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease (PD) has been admitted to a long-term care facility. Which action should the healthcare team take in order to promote adequate nutrition for this patient?

a)

Provide multivitamins with each meal.

b)

Provide a diet that is low in complex carbohydrates and high in protein.

c)

Provide small, frequent meals throughout the day that are easy to chew and swallow.

d)

Provide the patient with a minced or pureed diet that is high in potassium and low in sodium.

67.

A 65-year-old woman was just diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The priority nursing intervention is

a)

searching the Internet for educational videos

b)

evaluating the home for environmental safety.

c)

promoting physical exercise and a well-balanced diet.

d)

designing an exercise program to strengthen and stretch specific muscles.

68.

Which of the following explanations of skeletal traction would be accurate?

Select all that apply

a)

Skeletal traction is applied directly to bone

b)

Skeletal traction should help prevent damage to the tissues near the fracture site

c)

Skeletal traction is designed to prevent movement at the fracture site

d)

Skeletal traction should help restore bone fragments at the fracture site to their normal position

e)

Skeletal traction involves insertion of a pin that will permanently remain in the bone

69.

Monitoring patient for signs/symptoms of osteomyelitis is important. Signs/symptoms of osteomyelitis commonly include: Select all that apply

a)

fever

b)

Localized erythema

c)

generalized rash

d)

localized bone tenderness

e)

localized swelling

70.

What nursing interventions should be included for a client with a fractured femur? (SATA)

a)

Low fiber diet

b)

Frequent examination of skin

c)

Deep breathing exercises

d)

Limit fluid intake

e)

Teaching about treatment plan

71.

Which of the following problems are applicable to a client with a fractured femur? (SATA)

a)

Acute pain

b)

Ineffective airway clearance

c)

Impaired skin integrity

d)

Risk for constipation

72.

Which intervention will help to communicate with a client with Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Speak using a slow, exaggerated voice

b)

Stand directly in front of client with Parkinson’s disease when they are speaking

c)

Do not become frustrated with client with Parkinson’s disease as it will make things worse

d)

Use an erase slate so that client with Parkinson’s disease can write everything

73.

When describing Parkinson’s disease to a support group, which statement is the best?

a)

There is a premature death of cells in the part of the brain called the basal ganglia

b)

A chemical imbalance in the brain leads to movement and coordination problems

c)

There is increased dopamine in the substantia nigra due to hypertrophy of cells

d)

Parkinson’s is a chronic muscle disorder that causes wasting of skeletal muscles

74.

RN preparing to administer med using Pt’s NG tube, which action should the nurse take before administering the med? (SATA)

a)

A. Check residual volume

b)

B. Aspirate stomach contents

c)

C. Turn off suction to the NG tube

d)

D. Remove tube, place it into another nostril

e)

E. Test stomach contents for pH indicating acidity

75.

An order for transfusion not required when;

a)

Transfusing albumin

b)

The transfusion is urgent

c)

The patient is a minor

d)

None of the above

76.

RN preparing to administer med using Pt’s NG tube, which action should the nurse take before administering the med? (SATA)

a)

A. Position the client at high fowler to prevent aspiration

b)

B. Aspirate the NG tube after med administration to maintain patency

c)

C. Clamp the NG tube for 30-60 mins following med admin

d)

D. Change the suction setting to low intermittent suction for 30 minutes after med admin

77.

You began transfusing Becca at 07:00 it is now 11:00 and only 3/4 of the blood unit is transfused, what do you do?

a)

Restart Becca's IV and continue the transfusion

b)

Continue administration till unit is done

c)

Stop the transfusion and document only partial unit was administered

d)

Increase the rate so the unit administers faster

78.

RN assessing for correct placement for NG tube, aspirated contents present a pH of 7.35, which action to take immediately

a)

A. Retest pH using another strip

b)

B. Document NG tube as in correct place

c)

C. Check for placement by auscultating for air injected into the tube

d)

D. Call the HCP to request a prescription for a chest radiograph

79.

You are discharging a client home, with a new PICC line. You determine that your patient needs further teaching about the PICC line when he says

a)

“I need to wear a medic alert tag or bracelet”

b)

“I need to have a repair kit available at home, in case I need it”

c)

“I need to keep the insertion site protected when I’m in the shower or bath”

d)

“I need to keep my activity level to a minimum while this line is in place”

80.

RN to administer a bolus feeding via NG tube, residual volume 150ml, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take

a)

A. Hold the feeding and re-instill the residual amount

b)

B. Re-instill the amount and continue with administering the feeding

c)

C. Elevate HOB to >45 degrees and administer the feeding

d)

D. Discard the residual amount and proceed with administering the feeding

81.

The nurse is concerned that a patient’s central venous access device (CVAD) may have become dislodged. How might the nurse assess for this complication?

a)

check for blood return

b)

palpate skin for coiling

c)

listen for gurgling sounds

d)

asses for pain at site

82.

Teaching Pt with GERD about substances to avoid. What to include?

a)

A. Coffee

b)

B. Chocolate

c)

C. Peppermint

d)

D. Nonfat milk

e)

E. Fried chicken

83.

Discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed Crohn’s disease about dietary measures to implement during exacerbation episodes Which statement of Pt indicates further instruction

a)

A. “I should increase the fiber in diet”

b)

B. “I need to avoid caffeinated beverages”

c)

C. “Learn stress reduction techniques”

d)

D. “I can have exacerbations and remissions with Crohn’s disease”

84.

RN providing care for Pt with a recent transverse colostomy, which observation requires immediate notification of HCP

a)

A. Stoma is beefy red and shiny

b)

B. Purple discoloration of the stoma

c)

C. Skin excoriation around the stoma

d)

D. Semi-formed stool noted in the ostomy pouch

85.

What symptoms are concurrent with Parkinson's disease

a)

Tremor

b)

Ability to control urine output

c)

Forward tilt to posture

d)

Clear speech

86.

A parkinson's patient has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. As a nurse what is your priority assessment?

a)

Page the doctor

b)

Provide patient with stool softeners

c)

Assess bowel sounds and check for distension

d)

This is normal. No assessments are required

87.

Which stages are apart of Kuler-Ross' stages of grief?

a)

Empathy

b)

Acceptance

c)

Management

d)

Bargaining

88.

What are the imminent signs of death?

a)

Increased respirations

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Shallow breaths

89.

The nurse is completing an admission assessment of a patient who was diagnosed with anemia. Which assessment finding has the greatest implication for this patient’s plan of care? PnP 1011

a)

Fatigue when ambulating

b)

Increased activity tolerance when ambulating

c)

Decreased breathlessness when ambulating

d)

Oxygen saturation of 95% on room air when ambulating

90.

What assessment finding is consistent with a patient who has a fever? Pnp 1011

a)

A decrease in carbon dioxide

b)

The presence of cyanosis

c)

An increase in carbon dioxide

d)

An increase in muscle mass

91.

The nurse is having difficulty reading a physician’s order for medication. She knows the physician is very busy and does not like to be called. What does the nurse do? Pnp 812

a)

Call a pharmacist to interpret the order

b)

Call the physician to have the order clarified

c)

Consult the unit manager to help interpret the order

d)

Ask the unit secretary to interpret the physician’s handwriting

92.

During a physical assessment, the nurse observes the appearance of pt. X’s thorax and notes that the ratio of their anteroposterior and transverse chest diameter is 1:1. How should this finding be documented...

a)

Within normal limits.

b)

Funnel chest.

c)

Barrel chest.

d)

Thoracic scoliosis.

93.

Most medication errors occur when the nurse: pnp 812

a)

Fails to follow routine procedures

b)

Is responsible for administering numerous medications

c)

Is caring for too many patients

d)

Is administering unfamiliar medications

94.

When repositioning an immobile patient, the nurse notices redness over a bony prominence. When the area is assessed, the red spot blanches with a fingertip touch, indicating: pnp 1336

a)

A local skin infection requiring antibiotics

b)

This patient has sensitive skin and requires special bed linen

c)

A stage 3 pressure injury needing the appropriate dressing

d)

Reactive hyperemia, a reaction that causes the blood vessels to dilate in the injured area

95.

To assess for vocal fremitus, what should the nurse do?

a)

Place one hand over each scapula

b)

Locate the posterior axillary line

c)

Assist the client to lie back in the bed

d)

Ask the client to repeat a phrase aloud

96.

Postoperatively, the patient with a closed abdominal wound reports a sudden “pop” after coughing. When you examine the surgical wound site, the sutures are open and pieces of small bowel are noted at the bottom of the now opened wound. The correct intervention would be to: pnp 1336

a)

Allow the area to be exposed to air until all drainage has stopped

b)

Place several cold packs over the areas, protecting the skin around the wound

c)

Cover the areas with sterile saline-soaked towels and immediately notify the surgical team

d)

Cover the area with sterile gauze, place a tight binder over the areas, and ask the patient to remain in bed for 30 min

97.

When delivering a patient’s oral medications, if the patient is in the bathroom washing up and getting dressed.

a)

Leave the medications on the breakfast tray, covered with a paper towel

b)

Wait in the room until the patient is finished in the bathroom

c)

Bring the medications into the bathroom

d)

Return with the medications in a little while

98.

Ensuring that an in-dwelling catheter drainage bag is lower than the bladder prevents: PnP 1209

a)

Urine flowing back into the bladder, which will likely cause an infection

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Reflex incontinence

d)

Urinary incontinence

99.

You enter Mr. Gunn’s room to give their medications. You know him from the day before. What procedure is acceptable to ensure that this patient is Mr. Gunn?

a)

Since you know Mr. Gunn from the day before, there is no need to check his identity

b)

Check the name on the ID bracelet and ask him is he is Mr. Gunn

c)

Ask the patient what drugs he takes and compare what he says to the medications prescribed for Mr. Gunn

d)

Check the name on the his ID bracelet and ask them him to state their name

100.

Postrenal alterations result from obstruction to the flow of urine in the urinary collecting system caused by: Pnp 1209

a)

Dehydration

b)

Calculi

c)

Hemorrhage

d)

Diabetes mellitus

101.

You prepare to care for Dave’s wound, by carrying out the most important activity for preventing the transmission of microorganisms, which is:

a)

handwashing

b)

wearing clean, non-sterile gloves

c)

Wearing sterile gloves

d)

Setting up a sterile field

102.

An obese patient is at risk for poor wound healing and for wound infection postoperatively because: Pnp 1409

a)

Ventilatory capacity is reduced

b)

Fatty tissue has a poor blood supply

c)

Risk for dehiscence is increased

d)

Resuming normal physical activity is delayed

103.

The patient asks about the solution that the physician used to clean his wounds, povidone iodine (Betadine), and why it’s used. Which response is best?

a)

Betadine is an antiseptic solution that helps to destroy bacteria in a wound.

b)

Betadine solution destroys bacteria and eliminates dirt from a wound by acting as an oxidizing agent.

c)

I'll have the physician tell you about it later.

d)

We always use Betadine solution to treat wounds like yours.

104.

The nurse should ask each patient preoperatively for the name and dose of all prescription and over-the-counter medications taken before surgery because they: Pnp 1409

a)

May cause allergies to develop

b)

Are automatically ordered postoperatively

c)

May create greater risks for complications or interact with anaesthetic agents

d)

Should be taken on the morning of surgery with sips of water

105.

What change occurs in pulse pressure as volume depletion progresses to hypovolemic shock?

a)

Pulse pressure increases

b)

Pulse pressure decreases

106.

What are the complications associated with osteomyelitis?

a)

Persistent fever

b)

Bleeding

c)

Serous drainage

d)

Localized bone tenderness

107.

How should a person in hypovolemic shock be positioned?

a)

Trendelenburg with legs elevated

b)

Fowler's

c)

Left side

d)

Supine with legs elevated

108.

The term used to describe body fluids when they are more concentrated than normal is:

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

hypertonic

109.

Which statement made by the family member indicates proper skin care teaching has been effective?

a)

Washing the are with mild soap and water followed by ointment can help protect my husband’s skin

b)

I should not use any type of soap around on his buttocks or groin

c)

I should not apply lotions and ointments because it could increase the risk of skin breakdown

d)

I should massage any reddened areas if I notice them

110.

Since Mr, Ellis now voids spontaneously without recognizing the need to void, how should the nurse document his current urinary pattern in the medical chart?

a)

polyuria

b)

incontinence

c)

Retention

d)

oliguria

111.

In PACU, many assessments and interventions are done simultaneously. However, the most critical, high-priority assessment to be done is:

a)

operative site

b)

Skin integrity

c)

Pulse

d)

Airway

e)

Blood pressure

112.

In Mr. Potter's record, you see notes indicating that Universal Protocol was followed for Mr. Potter prior to surgery. Universal Protocol is important in (SATA):

a)

assuring that the right surgery is done on the right patient

b)

assuring that surgery is done at the right location

c)

preventing nosocomial infections in surgical patients

d)

meeting regulatory requirements for patient safety

113.

What is a colles' fracture

a)

Small fracture in the tibia

b)

Open fracture exposing the bone

c)

Fracture in the phalanges

d)

Break in radius at epiphysis

114.

The nurse has just reassured the condition of a post-operative client who was admitted 1 hour ago to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to monitor which parameter most carefully during the next hour?

a)

Urinary output of 20 mL/hr

b)

Temperature of 37.6 degrees celsius

c)

Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg

d)

Serous drainage on the surgical dressing

115.

The nurse is teaching a client about coughing and deep-breathing techniques to prevent postoperative complications. Which statement is most appropriate for the nurse to make to the client at this time as it relates to their techniques?

a)

"Use of an incentive spirometer will help prevent pneumonia."

b)

"Close monitoring of your oxygen saturation will detect hypoxemia."

c)

"Administration of intravenous fluids will prevent or treat fluid imbalance."

d)

"Early ambulation and administration of blood thinners will prevent pulmonary embolism."

116.

What manifestations would you observe upon assessing a patient with a left pulmonary hemopneumothorax? SATA

a)

Asymmetric chest wall movement 

b)

Crackles at lung base with auscultation on left side 

c)

Kussmaul's Respiration

d)

Tympany with percussion on left side 

e)

Audible sucking sound upon inspiration 

117.

An occlusive dressing is applied to an open chest wound; but one side is left open - why?

a)

Suffocation

b)

Tension Pneumothorax

c)

Infection

d)

Respiratory Arrest

118.

What are critical assessments to be preformed on a patient who recently received a tracheostomy? SATA

a)

Assess the dressing for secretions/bleeding

b)

Assess if tracheostomy ties are secure enough that a finger can not fit between the ties and the patient's neck

c)

Ensure the patient has enough neck mobility that they can rotate their head 90 degrees in both directions

d)

Ensure the patient has a tracheostomy mask and oxygen tank at the bedside

119.

What are some factors the nurse should consider when suctioning a client with a tracheostomy? SATA

a)

Is the client able to cough and/or clear secretions?

b)

Patient indicates increased signs of restlessness or anxiety

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Secretions are audible

120.

The client is nauseated, has been vomiting for several hours, and needs to receive an antiemetic (antinausea) medication. The nurse recognizes that which of the following statements is true about this medication?

a)

An enteric-coated medication should be given

b)

Medication will not be absorbed as easily because of the nausea

c)

A parenteral route is the route of choice

d)

A rectal suppository must be administered

121.

A nurse giving an IM injection places the heel of the hand on the client’s greater trochanter, with the fingers pointed towards the client’s head. The nurse places the index finger on the client’s superior iliac spine , while the finger is stretched dorsally, palpating the iliac crest. After giving the injection in the triangle formed , the nurse documents the injection as being given in which IM injection site?

a)

Vastus Lateralis

b)

Ventrogluteal

c)

Dorsogluteal

d)

Rectus Femoris

122.

An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which oxygen delivery system would the nurse prepare for the client? (Silvestri, p.731 - NCLEX)

a)

Face tent

b)

Venturi Mask

c)

Aerosol mask

d)

Tracheostomy collar

123.

The nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume? (Silvestri, p.731 - NCLEX)

a)

Sitting up in bed

b)

Side-lying in bed

c)

Sitting in a recliner chair

d)

Sitting up and leaning on an overbed table

124.

Which type of dressing material is waterproof, painless on removal, provides absorption, provides protection and provides debridement? (NCLEX, p.553)

a)

Hydrogel

b)

Adhesive transparent film

c)

Hydrocolloidal

d)

Foam

125.

The nurse views the patient’s skin to identify the progression of a wound. What are the benefits of a wound closure? SATA (NCLEX, p.560)

a)

Prevents infection

b)

Closure promotes healing

c)

Closure promotes contracture

d)

Prevents loss of fluid

126.

The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the condition of assigned clients. Which assessment findings are consistent with infiltration? SATA (NCLEX, p.154)

a)

Pain and erythema

b)

Pallor and coolness

c)

Numbness and pain

d)

Edema and blanched skin

127.

What are characteristics of a Stage 3 Pressure Injury? (SATA) - Saunders p. 557

a)

full thickness tissue loss w/o exposed bone/tendon/muscle

b)

slough obscures depth of tissue loss

c)

may have undermining & tunneling

d)

partial thickness tissue loss

e)

nonblanchable reddened skin

128.

What correctly describes autolytic debridement? (P&P Ch 46)

a)

proteolytic enzymes work together w naturally occurring enzymes to degrade necrotic tissue

b)

phagocytic cells & proteolytic enzymes liquefy & separate necrotic tissue from healthy tissue

c)

physically removes debris

d)

sterile maggots break down dead tissue

129.

identify appropriate interventions regarding the prevention of pressure ulcer (SATA) (Saunders p.552)

a)

massage reddened areas

b)

reposition q4h

c)

keep skin dry & sheets wrinkle-free

d)

use creams & lotions to lubricate skin

e)

use soap and hot water to make sure skin clean

130.

The nurse caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side and the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the water seal chamber. Which initial action should the nurse take? (Saunders NCLEX Review, Chapter 20; pg. 251)

a)

Call the HCP

b)

Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water

c)

Replace the chest tube system immediately

d)

Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site

131.

The nurse is caring for a client with pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube inserted. The nurse notes that continuous gentle bubbling in the water seal chamber. What action is the most appropriate? (Saunders NCLEX Review, Chapter 20; pg. 252)

a)

Do nothing, because this is an expected finding

b)

Check for an air leak, because the bubbling should be intermittent

c)

Increase the suction pressure so that the bubbling becomes vigorous

d)

Clamp the chest tube and notify the HCP immediately

132.

The nurse is assessing the functioning of a chest tube drainage system in a client who has just returned following a thoracotomy. Which are the expected assessment findings? SATA (Saunders NCLEX Review, Chapter 20; pg. 251)

a)

Excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber

b)

Vigorous bubbling in the suction control chamber

c)

Drainage system maintained below the client’s chest

d)

50 mL of drainage in the drainage collection chamber

e)

Occlusive dressing in place over the chest tube insertion site

133.

A medication injection into the loose connective tissue under the dermis is known as what kind of injection?

a)

IM injection

b)

IV injection

c)

Subcutaneous injection

d)

ID injection

134.

The nurse is having difficulty reading a physician's order for a medication. She knows the physician is very busy and does not like to be called. What does the nurse do?

a)

call a pharmacist to interpret the order

b)

call the physician to have the order clarified

c)

consult the unit manager to help interpret the order

d)

ask the unit secretary to interpret the physician's handwriting

135.

pharmacokinectics is the study of how medicine

a)

are derived from plants

b)

enter the body, reach their site of action, are metabolized, and exit the body

c)

are used for certain disease processes

d)

are manufactured and distributed to pharmaceutical companies

136.

What statement shows that the nursing student has a good understanding of assessment of a patient with continuous bladder irrigation?

a)

“The presence of clots is a normal finding. The rate of the CBI does not need to change”

b)

“Amber drainage in the bag is to be expected immediately post op”

c)

“It is important to assess the system for kinks or occlusions often”

d)

“Since CBI is a closed system, I’m not concerned about infection”

137.

Which of the following discharge information for a patient post-op from a Transurethral Resection of the Prostate is incorrect? Select all that apply

a)

“High fluid intake is not recommended as it could irritate the bladder”

b)

“Regular walking is encouraged for good blood return”

c)

“Blood in your urine is not a cause for concern”

d)

“Stopping and starting your urine is not recommended as it can cause dribbling”

e)

“Try not to lift heavy things, the pressure could cause bleeding”

138.

The nurse is providing care for a client with a recent transverse colostomy. Which observation requires immediate notification of the health care provider?

a)

stoma is beefy red and shiny

b)

purple discolouration of the stoma

c)

skin excoriation around the stoma

d)

semi-formed stool noted in the ostomy pouch

139.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed Crohn's disease about dietary measures to implement during exacerbation episodes. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

a)

"I should increase the fiber in my diet"

b)

"I will need to avoid caffeinated beverages."

c)

"I am going to learn some stress reduction techniques."

d)

"I can have exacerbations and remissions with Crohn's disease."

140.

A client has had an NG tube in place for 24 hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the tube is located in the intestine?

a)

the client is nauseous

b)

the bowel sounds are absent

c)

aspirate from the tube has a pH of 7

d)

the abdominal radiograph report indicates that the end of the tube is above the pylorus

141.

Postoperatively, the patient with a closed abdominal wound reports a sudden "pop" after coughing. When you examine the surgical wound site, the sutures are open and pieces of small bowel are noted at the bottom of the now opened wound. The correct intervention would be to:

a)

Allow the area to be exposed to air until all drainage has stopped

b)

Place several cold packs over the areas, protecting the skin around the wound

c)

Cover the areas with sterile saline-soaked towels and immediately notify the surgical team; this is likely to indicate a wound evisceration

d)

Cover the area with sterile gauze, place a tight binder over the areas, and ask the patient to remain in bed for 30 minutes because this is a minor opening in the surgical wound and should reseal quickly

142.

This type of pressure injury is an observable, pressure-related alteration of intact skin, whose indicators, compared with an adjacent or opposite area on the body, may include changes in one or more of the following: skin temperature (warmth or coolness), tissue consistency (firm and beefy feel), and sensation (pain or itching)

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

143.

Serous drainage from a wound is defined as:

a)

Fresh bleeding

b)

Thick and yellow

c)

Clear, watery plasma

d)

Beige to brown and foul smelling

144.

A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse monitors for which signs and symptoms indicate a complication of this disorder. Select all that apply.

a)

fever

b)

nausea

c)

bradycardia

d)

tremors

e)

confusion

145.

The nurse is preparing a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism for discharge. The nurse determines the client understands discharge instructions if the client states which signs and symptoms are associated with this diagnosis. Select all that apply.

a)

Weight loss

b)

feeling cold

c)

loss of body hair

d)

persistent lethargy

e)

puffiness of face

146.

A client has just been admitted to the nursing unit following thyroidectomy. Which assessment is the priority for this client?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Level of hoarseness

c)

Respiratory distress

d)

Edema at the surgical site

147.

Mrs. Morgan has osteoarthritis of her right hip. Osteoporotic changes in the elderly are major medical and social problems. The most important clinical characteristic of osteoarthritis is activity-related joint pain relieved by a short rest. Joint symptoms are a result of which physiological process?

a)

thrombosis in the joint capsule

b)

degeneration of articular cartilage

c)

bleeding into the joint

d)

inflammation of the synovial membrane

148.

You teach Mrs. Morgan about ways to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after hip surgery. Which action by the client will help prevent DVT?

a)

Lying very still in bed for the first 24 hours after surgery

b)

Deep breathing every few hours

c)

Drinking plenty of fluids after surgery

d)

Eating a low-fat diet during the week before surgery 

149.

Which of the following symptoms would lead the nurse to suspect damage or removal of the parathyroid glands after thyroid surgery?

a)

Muscle weakness and weight loss

b)

Laryngospasms and tingling in the hands and feet

c)

Hypertension and difficulty swallowing

d)

Hyperthermia and severe tachycardia

150.

Which of the following is a nursing priority in the care of a client with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism?

a)

Client teaching related to radioactive iodine therapy

b)

Closely monitoring the client’s intake and output

c)

Providing a dark, low stimulation-environment

d)

Client teaching related to levothyroxine

151.

Which of the following are important in planning nursing interventions to increase bladder control in the patient with urinary incontinence?

a)

Restricting fluids to diminish the risk of urinary leakage.

b)

Counselling the patient concerning choice of incontinence containment device.

c)

Clamping and releasing a catheter to increase bladder tone.

d)

Teaching the patient biofeedback mechanisms to suppress the urge to void.

152.

Which of the following is (are) true regarding the impact of aging related to urinary elimination? SATA

a)

The elderly are better able to concentrate urine than the middle-aged adult.

b)

Aging can affect continence if the patient experiences impaired mobility or decreased muscle tone.

c)

The elderly are less likely to experience urinary frequency than middle-aged adults because they tend to drink less.

d)

The elderly are at increased risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) because of retained urine in the bladder.

153.

The catheter slips into the vagina during a straight catheterization of a female client. The nurse does which action?

a)

Leaves the catheter in place and gets a new sterile catheter.

b)

Leaves the catheter in place and asks another nurse to attempt the procedure.

c)

Removes the catheter and redirects it to the urinary meatus.

d)

Removes the catheter, wipes it with a sterile gauze, and redirects it to the urinary meatus

154.

ASMT data indicating IV fluid infiltration includes which of the following? (SATA)

a)

Edema and pain

b)

Pain and erythema

c)

Pallor and coolness

d)

Numbness and pain

e)

Phlebitis and coolness

155.

The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which intravenous (IV) fluid for a patient who is dehydrated?

a)

Lactated Ringer's solution

b)

3% sodium chloride

c)

0.9% sodium chloride

d)

0.45% sodium chloride

156.

The unit secretary has returned from the blood bank with a unit of packed red blood cells ordered. The nurse enters the room with a colleague to check the blood at the bedside. When evaluating the IV site, the nurse notes that the size of the needle in the IV line is 22 gauge. What actions should the nurse take at this time? (SATA)

a)

Return the blood to the blood bank

b)

Hang the blood on the IV apparatus as soon as possible

c)

Continue with the blood check at the bedside

d)

Place the blood in the medication refrigerator

e)

Start another IV line with a 20-gauge needle or lower

157.

Which Assessment finding on the first postoperative day requires further action by the nurse?

a)

No bowel sounds auscultated

b)

Stoma oozes blood when touched

c)

Heart rate is 124 beats per minute

d)

Oral temperature is 37.8 degrees celsius

158.

Which symptoms is a client with hypothyroidism most likely to exhibit? SATA

a)

Tachycardia and palpitations

b)

Diarrhea and weight loss

c)

Coarse dry skin

d)

Somnolence and cold intolerance

e)

Somnolence and fatigue

159.

The nurse is teaching a client with hyperparathyroidism how to manage the condition at home. Which response by the client indicates the need for additional teaching?

a)

“I should limit my fluids to 1 liter per day.”

b)

“I should use my treadmill or go for walks daily.”

c)

“I should follow a moderate-calcium, high fiber diet.”

d)

“My alendronate helps to keep calcium from coming out of my bones.”

160.

The nurse assesses for potential complications that are common in clients on the first postoperative day. Which findings require additional nursing action?

a)

Mucus in the colostomy drainage apparatus

b)

+1 pitting edema in the lower extremities

c)

One Calf 4 cm larger than the other calf

d)

Erythema around the surgical site

161.

First-day post-operative of an abdominal-perineal resection, the nurse assesses the client's abdomen. Which finding warrants action by the nurse?

a)

Stoma is puffy

b)

Firm and tender with palpation

c)

Tympanic upon auscultation

d)

Negative rebound tenderness

162.

How does the nurse identify in a client a flail chest caused by trauma?

a)

Multiple rib fractures are determined by radiographic study

b)

Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side is present

c)

Paradoxical chest movement occurs during respiration

d)

Decreased movement of the involved chest wall is apparent

163.

The nurse notes tidalling of the water level in the tube submerging in the water-seal chamber in a client with closed chest drainage. What should the nurse do?

a)

Continue to monitor this normal finding

b)

Check all connections for a leak in the system

c)

Lower the drainage collector further from the chest

d)

Clamp the tubing at progressively more distal points from the client until the tidalling stops

164.

The client complaints of a persistent cough. While waiting to obtain the lab and x-ray, what information from the client's history is priority for the nurse to collect? (Select all that apply)

a)

Have you ever experienced any hoarseness?

b)

Do you currently, or have you ever smoked?

c)

Tell me about your work history

d)

Have you ever been diagnosed with high blood pressure?

e)

Is there a family history of cardiac disease?

165.

What nursing action should the nurse expect to implement following a bronchoscopy?

a)

Offer a soft food such as ice cream once the client is awake

b)

Keep client NPO until the gag reflex returns

c)

Monitor vital signs every two hours

d)

Because of pain, expect the client to experience tachycardia after the procedure

166.

Which of the following best describes acute pancreatitis?

a)

Viral infection of the pancreas causes tissue damage

b)

Multiple thrombi obstruct flow of blood through the pancreas and cause tissue damage

c)

Pancreatic enzymes attack pancreatic cells and cause tissue damage

d)

Hydrochloric acid infiltrates the pancreas and causes tissue damage

167.

Diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is often made on the basis of symptoms and elevation of which of the following serum lab values? (Select all that apply)

a)

White blood cell count (WBC)

b)

Glucose

c)

Ammonia

d)

Amylase

e)

Lipase

168.

The client symptoms include severe abdominal pain, and nausea and vomiting. You assess the client for other signs and symptoms that are common with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following do you expect?

a)

Hyperactive bowel sounds

b)

Hematuria

c)

Abdominal distension

d)

Jaundice

169.

Pain control and comfort are a priority for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which bed position should be encouraged?

a)

Supine with legs extended

b)

Fowler's (90 degrees) with legs extended

c)

Side-lying with hips and knees flexed

d)

Prone

170.

A client is admitted to the ICU with a C7 spinal cord injury (SCI), and Brown-Sequard syndrome is diagnosed. What would the nurse probably find on physical examination?

a)

Upper extremity weakness only

b)

Complete motor and sensory loss below C7

c)

Loss of position sense and vibration in both lower extremities

d)

Ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral sensory loss below C7

171.

Goals of rehabilitation for the client with an injury at the C6 level include which of the following? (Select all that apply)

a)

Stand erect with leg brace

b)

Feed self with hand devices

c)

Drive a motorized wheelchair

d)

Assist with transfer activities

e)

Control bowel and bladder function

172.

For a 65-year-old female client who has lived with a T1 SCI for 20 years, what health teaching information would the nurse emphasize?

a)

A mammogram is needed every 2 years

b)

Bladder function tends to improve with age

c)

Heart disease is not common in persons with SCI

d)

As a person ages, the need to change body positions is less important

173.

Which intervention had highest priority when assessing a client with suspected spinal cord injury involving the lower cervical region?

a)

Palpate the lower abdomen for any signs of urinary retention

b)

Assess sensation by gently pinching the skin distal to proximal

c)

Assess the client's breathing pattern and their ability to cough

d)

Monitor the client's vital signs, especially a tympanic temperature

174.

Nursing management of a client with acute pancreatitis includes which of the following which of the following? (SATA)

a)

Observing stools for signs of steatorrhea

b)

Giving insulin based on a sliding scale

c)

Checking for signs of hypocalcemia

d)

Providing a diet low in carbohydrates with moderate fat

e)

Monitoring for infection, particularly respiratory tract infection

175.

The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis is in pain. Which position should the nurse assist the client to help decrease pain?

a)

Recommend lying in the prone position with legs extended

b)

Place in side-lying position with knees flexed

c)

Maintain a tripod position over the bedside table

d)

Encourage a supine position with a pillow under the knees

176.

The nurse should plan to implement which intervention in the case of a client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy?

a)

Restrict all visitors

b)

Restrict fluid intake

c)

Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene

d)

Insert and indeed lung urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown

177.

The nurse notes tidalling of the water level in the tube submerged in the water-seal chamber in a client with closed chest tube drainage. What should the nurse do?

a)

Continue to monitor this as a normal finding

b)

Check all connections for a leak in the system

c)

Lower the drainage collector further from the chest

d)

Clamp the tubing at progressively more distal points from the client until the tidalling stops

178.

What is a common complication of many types of environmental lung diseases?

a)

benign tumor growth

b)

diffuse airway obstruction

c)

pulmonary fibrosis

d)

liquefactive necrosis

179.

A client with pneumonia has the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to excessive mucus and retained secretions. what would be an appropriate nursing intervention?

a)

promote fluid hydration, as appropriate to help liquefy secretions

b)

provide analgesics as ordered to promote client comfort

c)

administer oxygen as prescribed to maintain optimal oxygen levels

d)

teach the client how to cough effectively to bring secretions to the mouth

180.

nursing management of a client with acute pancreatitis includes which of the following (SATA)

a)

checking for signs of hypocalcemia

b)

observing stools for signs of steatorrhea

c)

providing a diet low in carbohydrates with moderate fat

d)

monitoring for infection particularly respiratory tract infections

181.

in caring for a client with metastatic liver cancer which of the following should the nurse perform

a)

focus primarily on symptomatic and comfort measures

b)

reassure the client that chemotherapy offers a good prognosis for recovery

c)

promote the client's confidence that surgical excision of the tumour will be successful

d)

provide information necessary for the client to make decisions regarding liver transplantation

182.

The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client? SATA.

a)

Maintain NPO status

b)

Encourage coughing and deep breathing

c)

Give small, frequent high-calorie meals

d)

Maintain the client in a supine and flat position

e)

Give hydromorphone PRN for pain

183.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed Crohn’s Disease about dietary measures to implement during exacerbation episodes. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

a)

“I should increase fibre in my diet.”

b)

“I will need to avoid caffeinated beverages.”

c)

“I’m going to learn some stress reduction techniques.”

d)

“I can have exacerbations and remissions with Crohn’s Disease.”

184.

A client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate post-op period for which most frequent complication of this type of surgery?

a)

Folate deficiency

b)

Malabsorption of fat

c)

Intestinal obstruction

d)

Fluid and electrolyte balance

185.

The home health nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate determination of the client’s pain should include which assessment?

a)

The client’s pain rating

b)

Nonverbal cues from the client

c)

The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain

d)

Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention

186.

What nursing actions should the nurse expect to implement following a bronchoscopy?

a)

Offer a soft food like ice cream once client is awake

b)

Keep client NPO until gag reflex returns

c)

Monitor vital signs every 2 hours

d)

Due to pain, expect the client to experience tachycardia after the procedure

187.

Which information in the client's history places them at risk for lung cancer? SATA

a)

Both of their parents were cigarette smokers

b)

Lack of health insurance during his early working career

c)

Twenty years of employment in a manufacturing plant

d)

Frequent history of upper respiratory infections

188.

Which of the following opioid drugs is recommended for relief of severe pain in patients with acute pancreatitis?

a)

Demerol (meperidine)

b)

Morphine

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Zantac (ranitidine)

e)

Aspirin

189.

With someone with acute pancreatitis, which of the following interventions should be included as part of your plan of care?

a)

Monitor VS frequently

b)

Leg massage Q2hrs

c)

Deep breathing exercises

d)

Intake and output

e)

Monitor electrolytes

190.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with pneumonia with the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions and fatigue would be to

a)

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with pneumonia with the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions and fatigue would be to

b)

provide analgesics as ordered to promote patient comfort.

c)

administer O2 as prescribed to maintain optimal oxygen levels

d)

teach the patient how to cough effectively to bring secretions to the mouth.

191.

The nurse notes tidaling of the water level in the tube submerged in the water-seal chamber in a patient with closed chest tube drainage. The nurse should

a)

continue to monitor the patient.

b)

check all connections for a leak in the system.

c)

lower the drainage collector further from the chest.

d)

clamp the tubing at progressively distal points away from the patient until the tidaling stops.

192.

Nursing management of the patient with acute pancreatitis includes (select all that apply)

a)

checking for signs of hypocalcemia.

b)

providing a diet low in carbohydrates.

c)

giving insulin based on a sliding scale.

d)

observing stools for signs of steatorrhea.

e)

monitoring for infection, particularly respiratory tract infection.

193.

The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is often made on the basis of symptoms and elevation of which of the following serum lab values?

a)

Lipase

b)

Ammonia

c)

Glucose

d)

C-reactive protein

e)

Amylase

194.

A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is being assessed by the nurse. Which assessment findings would be consistent with acute pancreatitis? SATA.

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Black, tarry stools

c)

Grey-blue colour at the flank

d)

Abdominal guarding and tenderness

e)

Left upper quadrant pain with radiation to the back

195.

The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client? SATA.

a)

Maintain NPO status.

b)

Encourage coughing and deep breathing.

c)

Give hydromorphone IV as prescribed for pain.

d)

Give small, frequent high-calorie feedings.

e)

Maintain intravenous fluids at 10 mL/hour to KVO.

196.

which instructions should the nurse provide related to the bronchoscopy? SATA

a)

no consent is required for this procedure

b)

you must not eat/drink anything for 6 to 8 hours prior to the procedure

c)

the procedure will require a small incision through which the scope will be inserted

d)

you will receive a medication to dry up secretions and another to make you sleepy

e)

the oral and nasal pharynx will be sprayed with a local anesthetic

197.

what is the purpose of cancer staging?

a)

staging systems track the overall incidence of types of cancers

b)

staging identifies the causative agent for the onset of the cancer

c)

staging helps determine the client's prognosis and best treatment

d)

staging measures the number of oncogenes in the tumour

198.

the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis if often made on the basis of symptoms & elevation of which serum lab values?

a)

white blood cell count

b)

lipase

c)

glucose

d)

C-reactive protein

e)

amylase

199.

Which instructions should the nurse provide the patient related to the bronchoscopy?

a)

Must not eat or drink anything for 6-8 hours prior to the procedure

b)

You will receive a medication to dry up secretions and another medication to make you sleepy

c)

You must remove all clothes from the waist up

d)

The oral and nasal pharynx will be sprayed with a local anesthetic

200.

The use of which venous access site reduces the risk of extravasation during chemotherapy treatment?

a)

Brachial vein

b)

Jugular vein

c)

Basilic vein

d)

Subclavian vein

e)

Cephalic vein

201.

Which serum lab values are increased in patients with acute pancreatitis?

a)

Potassium

b)

Amylase

c)

Lipase

d)

Sodium

e)

Glucose

202.

A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should include which measures in the plan of care to minimize the risk of occurrence? SATA

a)

Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client

b)

Preventing unnecessary pressure on lower limbs

c)

Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours

d)

Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours

e)

Ensuring that the client has a bowel movement at least once a week

203.

The nurse is evaluating the neurological signs of a client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which observation indicates that spinal shock persists?

a)

Hyperreflexia

b)

Positive reflexes

c)

Flaccid Paralysis

d)

Reflex emptying of the bladder

204.

The nurse is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which nursing intervention would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected arm?

a)

Placing cool compresses on the affected arm

b)

Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level

c)

Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate postoperative period

d)

Maintaining an IV site below antecubital area on the affected side