WorksheetsHDHT
Total questions: 209
Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
According to the marketing perspective, a "market" is:
a)
The place where buying and selling transactions occur between buyers and sellers.
b)
Consists of customers with specific needs, who are willing and able to engage in exchange to satisfy that need.
c)
Refers to the concept of a group of sellers offering the same type of product.
d)
The place where buying and selling transactions occur between buyers and sellers, comprising customers with specific needs who are willing and able to engage in exchange to satisfy that need, and the sellers offering the product that customers wish to purchase.
2.
Which of the following activities fully represents the tasks that a marketing manager must perform?
a)
Selecting target customers and understanding their needs precisely
b)
Designing a customer-driven marketing strategy.
c)
Planning, organizing, implementing, and controlling marketing programs.
d)
Analyzing opportunities, selecting target customers, understanding their needs precisely, positioning the market; designing a customer-oriented marketing strategy and program; planning, organizing, implementing, and controlling marketing programs.
3.
"Consumers will favor products that are widely available and inexpensive" represents which of the following marketing management philosophies?
a)
The production concept
b)
The product concept
c)
The selling/sales concept
d)
The Marketing concept
4.
Which marketing management philosophy considers product quality and features as the key to a business's success?
a)
The production concept
b)
The product concept
c)
The selling/sales concept
d)
The Marketing concept
5.
"Effective demand" is:
a)
The feeling of deprivation of something one senses.
b)
A natural need that takes a specific form
c)
A natural need and a want that aligns with purchasing power.
d)
The customer's purchasing power.
6.
When aiming to create a specific product with defined parameters, features, design, quality, functions... within a certain price range, which level of demand should the business investigate?
a)
The customer's natural needs
b)
The customer's wants
c)
Market demand
d)
Material/physical needs
7.
The "customer value" of a product is evaluated by
a)
The seller
b)
The product creator / The manufacturer
c)
The supply-demand relationship
d)
The consumer
8.
According to the marketing perspective, the "cost" that a consumer must incur is:
a)
The monetary amount paid to acquire that product (Price)
b)
The costs incurred during usage (Operating/Maintenance costs)
c)
The costs of disposing of the product (Disposal costs)
d)
All sacrifices that the consumer must incur (Total sacrifices)
9.
Among the following conditions, which one is not necessarily required for an exchange process to take place?
a)
There must be at least two parties, and one party must possess something of value to the other.
b)
At least one party must have money
c)
Each party must be capable of communication and delivery
d)
Each party must be free to accept or reject the other's offer and believe it is appropriate or desirable to deal with the other party.
10.
Company X believes that to succeed, it should focus on recruiting excellent salespeople and creating attractive compensation schemes to motivate employees to sell more. Which business orientation has Company X adopted?
a)
The product concept
b)
The selling/sales concept
c)
The production concept
d)
The marketing concept
11.
The key to building and maintaining sustainable customer relationships is
a)
Creating the right product
b)
Setting an attractive price
c)
Providing after-sales service
d)
Creating and delivering superior customer value and satisfaction
12.
Managing partner relationships to enhance the value delivered to customers is the philosophy of:
a)
Sales Management
b)
Marketing Management
c)
Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
d)
Marketing Management and Customer Relationship Management
13.
The customer value of a product/service is:
a)
The outstanding attributes/features of the product/service
b)
The core value of the product/service
c)
The augmented value of the product/service
d)
The benefits that satisfy the consumer's needs
14.
Greater market opportunities will belong to products that are:
a)
Perceived by many people to have higher customer value
b)
Rated by the manufacturer as having higher quality
c)
Designed by the manufacturer with more features
d)
Packaged by the manufacturer in a more attractive manner
15.
Wants have the following characteristic(s):
a)
Diverse, abundant, and constantly changing
b)
Diverse, abundant, and stable
c)
Originate from within humans and are not influenced by external factors
d)
Marketers cannot change wants
16.
The statement that correctly reflects the essence of the concept of "customer satisfaction" towards a product is:
a)
Their assessment of whether the product's price is high or low compared to its use value
b)
Their assessment of whether the product's use value meets their expectations
c)
The feeling state when comparing the benefits gained from consuming the product with their expectations
d)
The feeling state when comparing customer value with the product's completeness/perfection
17.
Which of the following statements best describes the role of marketing in a business?
a)
Marketing has the function of connecting all business activities with the market
b)
Marketing's task is to promote sales in an effort to sell the products that the enterprise has already produced.
c)
Marketing is the most important functional department in the enterprise and operates independently from other functional departments.
d)
Marketing is a unique activity of the marketing department within the enterprise, similar to other functional activities.
18.
Which of the following statements best reflects the business philosophy according to the marketing concept?
a)
The business always tries to sell customers the most perfect products
b)
For the selected customers, the business strives to meet their needs in a more advantageous way than other competitors.
c)
The business needs to focus on products with competitive advantages to achieve the best profit
d)
To increase revenue, the business needs to focus on sales efforts and product consumption.
19.
According to the philosophy of Customer Relationship Management (CRM), the advice for businesses is:
a)
Promise what is possible, then strive to deliver even better.
b)
Should not promise anything in advance.
c)
What matters is delivering, not promising in advance.
d)
Can promise customers everything.
20.
According to the marketing perspective, the cost to a consumer for an automobile includes:
a)
The purchase price, operating costs, disposal costs after use, effort and psychological costs for using the car, etc.
b)
The purchase price, fuel costs
c)
The purchase price, fuel costs, repair costs.
d)
The purchase price, fuel costs, repair costs
21.
Which of the following requirements must a Marketing Information System (MIS) meet?
a)
Up-to-date
b)
Timely distribution capability
c)
Accurate
d)
Up-to-date, timely distribution, and accurate
22.
During which stage(s) of the marketing process is the Marketing Information System (MIS) used?
a)
Planning
b)
Organizing and Implementation
c)
Controlling and Adjusting
d)
Planning, Organizing and Implementation, Controlling and Adjusting
23.
The research method that helps observe an object/phenomenon as it is happening is called:
a)
Observation
b)
Experimentation
c)
Survey
d)
Interview
24.
The research method that helps explore cause-and-effect relationships by identifying the conditions that create differences in perception, emotions, or behavior is called:
a)
Observation
b)
Experimentation
c)
Survey
d)
Interview
25.
The most suitable research method to describe information about a company's position in customers' evaluation is:
a)
Observation
b)
Experimentation
c)
Survey
d)
Interview
26.
When designing a questionnaire, engaging and encouraging questions should be placed at the beginning. This is a suggestion regarding:
a)
The wording of questions in the questionnaire
b)
The sequence/order of questions
c)
The format/layout of the questionnaire
d)
The content of the questionnaire
27.
The best way to quickly gather information when the information provider does not want to meet in person is:
a)
Group interview / Focus group
b)
Telephone interview
c)
Face-to-face / Personal interview
d)
Mail interview
28.
A question with answer options on a scale from 1 to 5, divided according to the respondent's level of agreement, increasing from 1 to 5, where 1 = Strongly Disagree and 5 = Strongly Agree. That type of question is a:
a)
Semantic differential scale
b)
Likert scale
c)
Rating scale (by value)
d)
Sentence completion
29.
The content placed at the very end of a Research Findings Report is:
a)
Research objectives
b)
Research content
c)
Research findings/results
d)
Appendix
30.
Marketing research is a type of research that is:
a)
Basic / Fundamental research
b)
Applied research
c)
Scientific research
d)
Nature / Descriptive research
31.
The system for the regular collection of external marketing information provides information about:
a)
The company's sales and profit
b)
The necessary inventory volume of materials for continuous business operations
c)
The latest events occurring in the marketplace
d)
The company's cash flow turnover rate
32.
To obtain information about the potential and specific demand of each market, businesses need to use:
a)
Internal Records/Reporting System
b)
Marketing Intelligence System
c)
Marketing Research System
d)
Marketing Information Analysis System
33.
The outcome of which stage below outlines the complete set of tasks that marketing research needs to perform?
a)
Defining research objectives
b)
Developing the research plan / Research design
c)
Collecting information
d)
Processing and analyzing information
34.
A question that allows the selection of only one option from pre-defined answers is a type of question called:
a)
Closed-ended question
b)
Open-ended question
c)
Fill-in-the-blank question
d)
Ranking question
35.
The factor that is NOT considered a reason necessitating the formation of a Marketing Information System (MIS) is:
a)
The business has a need to expand its scope of operations.
b)
The inherent nature of the business environment is constant change.
c)
The business is always protected to maintain a monopoly
d)
The business must compete not only on price but also on the ability to satisfy customer needs
36.
The business must compete not only on price but also on the ability to satisfy customer needs
a)
Secondary data is always more accurate than primary data.
b)
Research usually begins with the collection of secondary information.
c)
Primary data is collected by the lead researcher; secondary data is handled by the remaining research members.
d)
Primary data usually needs to be collected before secondary data.
37.
Which of the following information is NOT considered data in marketing research?
a)
The number of National Economics University students categorized by gender.
b)
A sample KFC advertisement in the elevator of Building A1, National Economics University.
c)
The total number of lecturers and staff receiving salaries from the National Economics University.
d)
A recorded interview segment with students about lecturers at the National Economics University
38.
When sales volume declines, a business wants to research to determine which product's sales are decreasing and in which market. That type of research is called:
a)
Descriptive research
b)
Causal research
c)
Exploratory research
d)
Survey research
39.
A retail business that wants to "paint a picture" of customers' purchasing behavior from the moment they enter the supermarket until they check out should collect information by:
a)
Observation
b)
Experimentation
c)
Survey
d)
Interview
40.
When a business wants to test the market's reaction to a new packaging design, which type of research should it apply?
a)
Observation
b)
Experimentation
c)
Survey
d)
Interview
41.
Which of the following factors does NOT belong to the microenvironment in marketing?
a)
Competitors
b)
Suppliers
c)
Sociocultural factors
d)
Customers
42.
The study of which marketing environmental factor helps marketers analyze the influence of subcultural on target customers?
a)
Political-legal environment
b)
Demographic environment
c)
Economic environment
d)
Cultural/Sociocultural environment
43.
When examining the influence of inflation on customers' purchasing decisions, which environmental factor is the business analyzing?
a)
Sociocultural environment
b)
Demographic environment
c)
Political-legal environment
d)
Economic environment
44.
"People who are interested in the company with goodwill" is a phrase associated with which of the following groups?
a)
Desired public
b)
Sought public
c)
Welcome public
d)
Unwelcome public
45.
The scarcity of natural resources is an element of which group of environmental factors below?
a)
Cultural environment
b)
Demographic environment
c)
Natural environment
d)
Economic environment
46.
Changes in the macro-marketing environment usually bring which of the following issues to a business?
a)
Threats
b)
Opportunities
c)
Resources
d)
Opportunities and threats
47.
The marketing environment includes all the factors and forces that:
a)
A business cannot monitor and control.
b)
A business can completely control and adjust.
c)
Are constantly changing and a business can partially monitor and control some of them.
d)
A business cannot dominate or neutralize.
48.
Which of the following is not an influence of the macro-marketing environment?
a)
The government raises the value-added tax (VAT) rate.
b)
Competitors implement competitive pricing strategies.
c)
The industry labor union proposes new wage increase demands.
d)
Climate change affects production capacity.
49.
The Food Safety Administration (Cục vệ sinh an toàn thực phẩm) is a public group directly belonging to:
a)
Financial publics
b)
Media publics
c)
Government publics
d)
Local community publics
50.
The group of people who buy products for their personal consumption is called:
a)
Consumer market
b)
Business market
c)
Reseller market
d)
International market
51.
Customers' purchasing power is most strongly influenced by which of the following factors?
a)
Demographic environment
b)
Cultural environment
c)
Economic environment
d)
Natural environment
52.
The legal system most broadly affects a business's operations through which of the following aspects?
a)
Regulations on product design
b)
Regulations on business activities
c)
Regulations on business and production processes
d)
Regulations on market research
53.
In marketing, a subculture is reflected through:
a)
The norms and values of a country or a nation
b)
The norms and values of a group of people
c)
The way people interact with each other
d)
People's perceptions of what is right and wrong
54.
Which information is NOT related to factors in the macro marketing environment?
a)
People tend to gradually move from old town areas to new urban areas.
b)
Competitors decide to raise selling prices.
c)
Changes in climate.
d)
People change their perceptions about organizing weddings.
55.
Which factor does NOT belong to the demographic environment?
a)
The belief that smoking is harmful to health, especially children's health.
b)
The population size of the business area
c)
The age structure of the population in the business area
d)
Trends in mechanical migration (population movement) within the business area
56.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a)
No product is devoid of cultural elements.
b)
The activities of political and social organizations are a factor belonging to the political-legal environment.
c)
Most business opportunities and threats originate from the macro marketing environment.
d)
Studying the micro marketing environment only helps businesses adjust their marketing solutions in the short term.
57.
A Korean cosmetics company entered the Vietnamese market using images of actors who are familiar to Vietnamese audiences through Korean dramas. This market entry approach demonstrates their utilization of which factor?
a)
Political
b)
Cultural, Social
c)
Economic
d)
Demographic
58.
Population structure (demographic composition) is often a focus for marketers because:
a)
Population structure determines purchasing power.
b)
Population structure determines the quantity of goods consumed.
c)
Population structure influences the composition (mix) of goods and services consumed.
d)
Population structure influences the types of goods consumed.
59.
Government agencies affect businesses most significantly through which of the following factors/activities?
a)
Enacting legislative documents (regulations, laws)
b)
Conducting social marketing campaigns
c)
Organizing local events
d)
Constructing public works
60.
Culture influences a business's marketing decisions through:
a)
The purchasing power of the market
b)
The buying behavior of the market
c)
Regulations on production and product consumption
d)
The market demand volume
61.
Among the factors influencing consumer behavior below, which one is NOT a psychological factor?
a)
Family
b)
Motivation
c)
Perception
d)
Belief
62.
Among the following factors influencing consumer buying behavior, which one is NOT a personal factor?
a)
Age and life cycle stage
b)
Occupation
c)
Purchase motivation
d)
Economic situation
63.
Among the following listings, the correct order (from lowest to highest) according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs is:
a)
Physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, self-actualization needs.
b)
Physiological needs, esteem needs, social needs, safety needs, self-actualization needs.
c)
Physiological needs, social needs, safety needs, esteem needs, self-actualization needs.
d)
Physiological needs, safety needs, esteem needs, social needs, self-actualization needs.
64.
A factor contained within the consumer's "black box of consciousness" is:
a)
Consumer characteristics
b)
Buying center
c)
Brand choice
d)
Enterprise discount measures
65.
Which of the following factors does NOT belong to the psychological factors group?
a)
Motivation
b)
Perception
c)
Lifestyle
d)
Knowledge
66.
Occupation belongs to which of the following groups of factors?
a)
Cultural factors group
b)
Social factors group
c)
Personal factors group
d)
Psychological factors group
67.
Which factor is NOT a personal factor affecting consumer buying behavior?
a)
Age and life cycle stage
b)
Occupation
c)
Purchase motivation
d)
Economic situation
68.
Which statement is incorrect regarding the influence of culture on buying behavior?
a)
Traditional culture only influences the buying behavior of essential products.
b)
Buying behavior is influenced by culture.
c)
Consumers within the same subculture tend to have similar consumption behaviors.
d)
Cultural changes can alter consumption behavior.
69.
The incorrect statement regarding the influence of social factors on consumer buying behavior is:
a)
The factors that form social class are only money and wealth.
b)
A person's social status depends on which social class they belong to.
c)
People within the same social class tend to have similar buying behaviors.
d)
Social class is one of the criteria for market segmentation.
70.
The factor described as "enduring, difficult to change, and does not require high costs to exert a strong influence on consumer behavior" is:
a)
Interchangeable cultural values
b)
Core cultural values of a community
c)
Cultural values of a small group within a community
d)
Newly emerging cultural values in a community
71.
The marketing activities of Korean product brands targeting youth groups create new consumption trends. This phenomenon suggests:
a)
Korean products should not be used.
b)
Groups that discriminate against Korean products will form.
c)
In the long run, new subcultures or consumer cultural groups will emerge.
d)
In the long run, it will be difficult to compete with other groups
72.
The reason leading to the situation where "consumers can comprehend and perceive the meaning of the same advertising message in different ways" is:
a)
Their personal circumstances at that time
b)
Their psychological state at that time
c)
Their cultural environment at that time
d)
Their social context at that time
73.
Direct information from salespeople at the point of sale is very important for customers' purchasing decisions because it is a source of information that:
a)
Comes last
b)
Arrives at the right time
c)
Has an expert nature
d)
Reinforces/supports a decision
74.
Marketing activities for children's toys should also target teachers for which of the following reasons?
a)
They are people who play with the product alongside the children.
b)
They are the decision-makers.
c)
They influence the decision to purchase toys.
d)
They are the buyers/acceptors of the purchase.
75.
When consumers are at the "need recognition" stage of the buying process, what should marketers do?
a)
Identify what needs consumers want to satisfy with which products and how.
b)
Understand which information channels they consult to make a purchase decision.
c)
Examine what factors are hindering their purchase decision.
d)
Check whether customers are satisfied after the purchase.
76.
The incorrect statement about the consumer decision-making process is:
a)
While evaluating alternatives, consumers tend to build their beliefs associated with brands.
b)
When searching for information, consumers tend to use only personal information sources.
c)
Businesses can create stimuli to influence consumers' need recognition.
d)
Businesses need to understand consumers' satisfaction state after the purchase.
77.
When a consumer is dissatisfied with a product, what will they do if they have to repurchase the same type of product?
a)
Conduct an internal information search before buying.
b)
Ask more friends for advice.
c)
Expand the product group they consider.
d)
Immediately think they will not buy the product that previously dissatisfied them.
78.
Mr. Hoang goes to the Nhan Dan Bookstore to buy test paper notebooks for his child. What role does Mr. Hoang play in this situation?
a)
Influencer
b)
Buyer
c)
User
d)
Reference person
79.
Mr. Binh (the head of the household planned to buy an SH scooter for his child to use in high school. However, Mrs. Lan, his wife, informed him that high school students are not allowed to use motorcycles with an engine capacity over 50cc, so Mr. Binh did not buy the SH scooter. What role did Mrs. Lan play in that purchase situation?
a)
User
b)
Initiator
c)
Influencer (Reference person)
d)
Approver/Decider
80.
Hanh planned to buy a Samsung phone. However, when she shared her purchase intention with her friend group, they advised her to use an iPhone so the group could easily share information via iMessage. Which group of factors is Hanh being influenced by?
a)
Cultural
b)
Personal
c)
Psychological
d)
Social
81.
According to the marketing approach, what is Total Market Demand understood as?
a)
The total volume of a product that a specific group of customers will purchase in a specific geographic area, during a specific period, under a specific marketing environment and a specific marketing program.
b)
The total amount of natural needs that align with the consumers' payment ability for a type of product.
c)
The total amount of consumers' wants with payment ability for a type of product.
d)
The total volume of goods sold by sellers in the market.
82.
An attractive market segment for a business is a segment with which of the following characteristics?
a)
A customer group that holds the highest market share in the overall market.
b)
A market segment that demonstrates a fit between the company's capabilities, strategy, and objectives with the segment's size and level of competition.
c)
A customer group whose needs and wants the company is capable of satisfying.
d)
A customer group where the company has the strongest competitive ability in the market.
83.
Which phrase correctly represents the basic requirements for effective market segmentation?
a)
Measurable, substantial, differentiable, and actionable.
b)
Measurable, substantial, differentiable, and most profitable.
c)
Measurable, largest in size, differentiable, and actionable.
d)
Measurable, largest in size, and actionable.
84.
Which statement most accurately defines the concept of "target market"?
a)
A market consisting of customers with similar needs or wants that the company can satisfy, while its marketing activities can create a competitive advantage over rivals and achieve its defined business objectives.
b)
A single market segment that a company chooses and decides to focus its marketing efforts on to achieve its business goals.
c)
One or several market segments chosen by a company because it believes it has high competitive ability.
d)
One or several market segments chosen by a company because it believes it will receive strong government support.
85.
Which of the following options is NOT one of the five target market selection strategies?
a)
Concentrated (Focusing on a single market segment)
b)
Selective specialization
c)
Specialization by market characteristic
d)
Specialization by supplier strength
86.
Which statement most clearly represents the essence of market positioning?
a)
Identify outstanding points of differentiation for the product so that customers always remember them.
b)
Select a special market position for the product so that customers prefer it.
c)
Establish a specific and valuable position for the product in the minds of target customers.
d)
Create distinct features for the product that are clearly different from competitors' products.
87.
Customer loyalty is a specific example of market segmentation based on which criterion?
a)
Geographic
b)
Behavioral
c)
Psychographic
d)
Demographic
88.
The statement that best represents the essence of a differentiated marketing strategy is:
a)
In this marketing strategy, the company decides to target several market segments and designs separate marketing programs for each.
b)
A marketing strategy that differentiates products according to every market segment.
c)
A marketing strategy when a company targets several market segments.
d)
A marketing strategy where the company dominates many market segments.
89.
What is an advantage of an undifferentiated marketing strategy?
a)
Helps the business save costs by exploiting economies of scale.
b)
Helps avoid intense competition.
c)
Is especially suitable for businesses with limited resources.
d)
Allows the business to satisfy the needs of most customers well.
90.
The essence of target marketing is:
a)
Concentrating marketing efforts on the right market(s), building a unique, clear, impressive, and consistent image for the company and its products in key target markets, so that the company's resources are exploited most effectively – satisfying customer needs and wants while maintaining competitiveness.
b)
Focusing marketing efforts solely on one market segment and capturing that segment by any means.
c)
The company seeking every way to achieve profit goals.
d)
The company seeking every way to defeat competitors.
91.
The most suitable marketing strategy for a large-scale enterprise, whose product is in the growth stage of its life cycle and the market is heterogeneous, is:
a)
Undifferentiated strategy
b)
Differentiated strategy
c)
Concentrated strategy
d)
Product development strategy
92.
The relationship between the marketing mix and the positioning strategy is best reflected in which of the following statements?
a)
The marketing mix is the prerequisite for the positioning strategy.
b)
The marketing mix should be implemented concurrently with the process of establishing the positioning strategy.
c)
The marketing mix is developed based on the positioning strategy.
d)
The marketing mix should be developed independently of the positioning strategy.
93.
Choosing a target market through selective specialization is most suitable for which type of business below?
a)
Small and medium-sized enterprises
b)
Large enterprises
c)
Enterprises pursuing profit maximization goals
d)
Enterprises pursuing quality leadership goals
94.
The positioning process does NOT include which of the following steps?
a)
Market segmentation, target market selection
b)
Selecting the product's image and position
c)
Formulating the marketing mix program
d)
Deciding on market and product development strategies
95.
Below are the basic methods of target market selection, EXCEPT:
a)
Concentrating on a single market segment
b)
Product specialization
c)
Specializing according to the company's production capacity
d)
Selective specialization
96.
The basic steps to implement "Target Marketing" are:
a)
Selecting the target market, positioning the product
b)
Positioning the product, developing marketing strategies
c)
Segmenting the market, selecting the target market, positioning the product
d)
Segmenting the market, selecting the target market, developing marketing strategies
97.
In practice, for toothpaste products, businesses commonly use which market segmentation criterion?
a)
Gender
b)
Occupation
c)
Age
d)
Education level
98.
The four main sets of criteria for segmenting consumer markets include:
a)
Geographic, demographic, psychographic, and behavioral.
b)
Geographic, demographic, psychographic, and educational level.
c)
Geographic, income level, demographic, psychographic, and behavioral.
d)
Nationality, place of residence, and behavioral.
99.
Which option correctly reflects the marketing strategies that can be used to serve target markets?
a)
Undifferentiated marketing; differentiated marketing; and one-to-one marketing.
b)
Undifferentiated marketing; specialized marketing; and concentrated marketing.
c)
Undifferentiated marketing; differentiated marketing; and concentrated marketing.
d)
Undifferentiated marketing; differentiated marketing; and local marketing.
100.
Market positioning is understood as:
a)
Designing the company's product and image to occupy a distinct and valuable place in the customer's mind.
b)
Designing the company's product and image to occupy a place in the customer's emotions.
c)
Designing the company's product and image to occupy a competitive position against rivals in the market.
d)
Designing the company's product and image to capture the largest market share.
101.
According to the BCG matrix, which category does a strategic business unit (SBU) with a large market share but operating in a low-growth market belong to?
a)
Star
b)
Question Mark
c)
Cash Cow
d)
Dog
102.
A company with operations spread across an entire country or multiple countries should choose which type of marketing department organizational structure?
a)
Functional marketing organization
b)
Geographic marketing organization
c)
Product marketing organization
d)
Another organizational model
103.
A product-based marketing department organizational structure is suitable for:
a)
Companies with a small number of product types operating nationwide or in multiple countries.
b)
Companies with many different product types/brands.
c)
Companies selling one product line to many types of customers/markets.
d)
Large companies producing many different products and supplying many different markets.
104.
The Gillette Group continues to sell high-revenue and high-profit razor products like Sensor or Mach3 to the market, even though the market growth rate is low, and they have introduced much newer products with more advanced technology. It can be concluded that Sensor or Mach3 belong to which business unit type?
a)
Star
b)
Cash Cow
c)
Dog
d)
Question Mark
105.
According to the Growth-Share Matrix (BCG), when do strategic business units (SBUs) classified as Stars transition into Cash Cows?
a)
When the market growth rate of that industry increases.
b)
When the market growth rate of that industry remains constant.
c)
When the market growth rate of that industry decreases.
d)
When market demand increases.
106.
"Cash Cows" are strategic business units (SBUs) in business areas that:
a)
Have a low market growth rate and the company currently holds a large market share.
b)
Have a high market growth rate.
c)
Have a low market growth rate and the company currently holds a low market share.
d)
Have a high market growth rate, and the company holds a high market share.
107.
A growth strategy that involves increasing sales of existing products in current market segments without modifying the product is called:
a)
Market Development
b)
Market Penetration
c)
Product Development
d)
Diversification
108.
A growth strategy involving identifying and developing new market segments for existing products is called:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
Diversification
c)
Product Development
d)
Market Development
109.
A company's marketing strategy targets specific customer groups, creating and delivering differentiated value compared to competitors. The correct three-step sequence to implement this strategy is:
a)
Market segmentation, target market selection, positioning and differentiation.
b)
Target market selection, market segmentation, differentiation and positioning.
c)
Differentiation and positioning, market segmentation, target market selection.
d)
Target market selection, differentiation and positioning, market segmentation.
110.
The process of turning marketing plans into specific marketing actions is called:
a)
Developing the marketing plan
b)
Marketing implementation
c)
Marketing analysis
d)
Organizing the marketing department within the company
111.
A company's growth strategy that involves introducing improved or new products to meet the needs and wants of existing customers is called:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
Product Development
c)
Market Development
d)
Diversification
112.
The Starbucks coffee chain decides to increase the number of its stores by 5 in Ho Chi Minh City to make it easier for customers to purchase its products. This is a strategy of:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
New Product Development
c)
Diversification
d)
New Market Development
113.
In Ho Chi Minh City, Starbucks decides to improve product promotions, store operations, redesign menus and store layouts to encourage customers to visit Starbucks more often, increase their time spent in the store per visit, or even purchase additional products. This is a strategy of:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
New Product Development
c)
Diversification
d)
New Market Development
114.
After operating for some time in Ho Chi Minh City, Starbucks adds traditional coffee products served in cups reminiscent of old Saigon to its menu, aiming to attract a new customer segment - older customers - to Starbucks. This is a strategy of:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
New Product Development
c)
Diversification
d)
New Market Development
115.
After a period of research, the LQS pho restaurant chain decides to open 2 new pho restaurants in a new market: Bangkok, the capital of Thailand. This is a strategy of:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
New Product Development
c)
Diversification
d)
New Market Development
116.
The TCH coffee chain introduces coffee products with Arabica flavor instead of the current Robusta products to meet the taste preferences of the majority of foreigners living in Ho Chi Minh City and Hanoi, who prefer coffee with a milder aroma and flavor than traditional Vietnamese coffee. This is a strategy of:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
New Product Development
c)
Diversification
d)
New Market Development
117.
The TCH coffee chain has completed the acquisition of the tea brand and the tea store chain Tea-ah. Consequently, TCH has added special natural tea products beneficial to health to the menu at its TCH Signature outlets. This is a strategy of:
a)
Market Penetration
b)
New Product Development
c)
Diversification
d)
New Market Development
118.
Despite being established less than 20 years ago, Etihad Airways has created a distinction by focusing solely on the ultra-premium airline market (Diamond Class). This approach is called:
a)
Market Segmentation
b)
Market Research
c)
Product Diversification
d)
Target Market Selection
119.
In a SWOT analysis, analyzing Strengths and Weaknesses involves the analysis of:
a)
All the external resources of the company.
b)
All the internal resources of the company.
c)
All the threats hindering marketing activities.
d)
Both threats and challenges.
120.
The Dove brand is carrying out the marketing implementation process to turn plans into concrete actions. Therefore, Dove needs to answer the following questions:
a)
What? Why?
b)
Who? Where? When?
c)
How?
d)
Who? Where? When? How?
121.
A product can be:
a)
An object
b)
An idea
c)
A service
d)
An object, an idea, a service.
122.
A product unit can be considered at three levels. Which of the following points is NOT one of those three levels?
a)
Actual product
b)
Tangible product
c)
Augmented product
d)
Core benefit
123.
The correct order of stages in the Product Life Cycle (PLC) is:
a)
Growth, Maturity, Introduction, Decline
b)
Introduction, Maturity, Growth, Decline
c)
Growth, Decline, Maturity, Development
d)
Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline
124.
In a product's life cycle, the stage during which the product sells rapidly in the market and profits increase quickly is called:
a)
Maturity
b)
Introduction
c)
Growth
d)
Decline
125.
Decisions regarding customer service include:
a)
The content and level of service provided to customers
b)
The content and form of service provided to customers
c)
The level and form of service provided to customers
d)
The content, quality, cost, and form of service provided to customers
126.
A well-packaged product helps:
a)
Protect the product
b)
Promote the product
c)
Enable the product to sell itself
d)
Protect the product, promote the product, and enable the product to sell itself
127.
The information typically displayed on packaging includes:
a)
Information about the product
b)
Information about the product's quality
c)
Information about the manufacturer
d)
Information about the product, information about the product's quality, and information about the manufacturer
128.
Companies may produce even low-profit products when pursuing the following objectives, EXCEPT:
a)
To offer a complete product line
b)
To achieve high profit on each individual product
c)
To dominate the market
d)
To expand the market by pursuing a broad product portfolio
129.
Company A launches a new type of tire that allows a car to run at 60-70 km/h after being completely flat. This is an example of:
a)
Adding product features but reducing the selling price
b)
Adding product features
c)
Reducing product features
d)
Reducing both features and quality
130.
A new flavor of ice cream is sold exclusively at select outlets to monitor customer reactions. That is:
a)
Commercialization
b)
Business Analysis
c)
Product Refinement
d)
Market Testing
131.
The rate of car owners in Vietnam purchasing material damage insurance is about 50%. This is an example of:
a)
Shopping goods
b)
Impulse goods
c)
Specialty goods
d)
Unsought goods
132.
Products that consumers purchase and use multiple times over an extended period are called:
a)
Services
b)
Consumer goods
c)
Non-durable goods
d)
Durable goods
133.
A car manufacturer purchases car tires for production purposes. The car tires are:
a)
Materials and parts
b)
Capital items
c)
Supplies and business services
d)
Accessory equipment
134.
The durability, reliability, accuracy, and ease of operation of a car are its:
a)
Product features
b)
Product quality
c)
Product design
d)
Product construction
135.
The functionality and purpose of a mobile phone are its:
a)
Product composition
b)
Product features
c)
Product quality
d)
Product design
136.
Vinamilk uses the brand Vfresh (a fruit juice brand) for its soy milk product. This is a form of:
a)
Brand extension
b)
Multi-branding
c)
Brand development
d)
Creating a new brand
137.
Decisions about packaging do NOT include:
a)
Deciding what principles the packaging will follow
b)
Deciding the quality of services accompanying the product
c)
Decisions about the size, shape, material, and color of the packaging
d)
Decisions about packaging testing
138.
The online fashion retailer Hoang Lan hires the delivery company Giao Hang Tiet Kiem to deliver goods to customers. This is what type of service provision method?
a)
The company organizes its own service force.
b)
The service is provided by merchant intermediaries.
c)
The service is provided by an independent organization outside the company.
d)
The company partners with another organization to jointly provide the service.
139.
"Alfresco's has a total of 30 types of food and drinks supplied to the market" describes which parameter of the product mix?
a)
The width of the mix
b)
The depth of the mix
c)
The consistency of the mix
d)
The length of the mix
140.
This Mid-Autumn Festival, Kinh Đô adds "bird's nest mooncakes," a filling type never offered before. This is a form of developing the product mix's width by:
a)
Downward stretch
b)
Upward stretch
c)
Two-way stretch
d)
Adding items to the product line
141.
The "Skimming pricing" strategy has the characteristic of:
a)
Starting with the highest price, then lowering it later.
b)
Starting with a low price, then gradually increasing it.
c)
Maintaining a high price consistently.
d)
Maintaining a low price consistently.
142.
The "Penetration pricing" strategy has the characteristic of:
a)
Starting with the highest price, then lowering it later.
b)
Starting with a low price, which may continue to decrease later.
c)
Maintaining a high price consistently.
d)
Maintaining a low price consistently.
143.
With all other conditions being equal or constant, in which of the following situations should a business proactively lower its price?
a)
Excess production capacity.
b)
Sales volume is insufficient to meet demand.
c)
Profit is increasing to a high level.
d)
Market share is increasing.
144.
The Hanoi Bus Company reduces ticket prices for students when taking the bus. This is the application of which pricing strategy?
a)
Bundle pricing
b)
Two-part pricing
c)
Segmented/Discriminatory pricing
d)
Image pricing
145.
The retail price of 1kg of detergent X is 45,000 VND/kg, but if a customer buys 6kg or more, the price becomes 40,000 VND/kg. The company selling product X is implementing which policy?
a)
Discount for retailers.
b)
Cash discount for immediate payment.
c)
Quantity discount for purchasing in large quantities.
d)
Seasonal discount.
146.
You buy a Johnson product set with many different items at a price lower than if you bought each product separately. This is because the seller has priced using:
a)
Optional-product pricing
b)
Product-line pricing
c)
Bundle pricing
d)
Captive-product pricing
147.
Which condition listed below is NOT a favorable condition for applying the "market penetration" pricing strategy?
a)
The market is very price-sensitive, and a low price will expand the market.
b)
Production costs increase as output increases.
c)
Distribution costs decrease as sales volume increases.
d)
The low price discourages existing and potential competitors.
148.
Studies on rice show that when the price of rice increases, the quantity demanded for rice decreases slightly. However, the total revenue from rice sales still increases. The demand curve for rice is a demand curve that is:
a)
Upward sloping
b)
Unit elastic
c)
Inelastic with respect to price
d)
Elastic with respect to price
149.
When a business faces difficulties due to intense competition or a sudden, unmanageable change in market demand, it should pursue the goal of:
a)
Market share leadership
b)
Quality leadership
c)
Maximizing current profit
d)
Survival
150.
When a company's product has differences compared to competitors' products and these differences are accepted by customers, the company should:
a)
Price based on production costs.
b)
Price higher than competing products.
c)
Price lower than competing products.
d)
Price based on season.
151.
A business facing a loss-making situation in a difficult economic context should choose which pricing option:
a)
Set a high price with the hope of solving financial difficulties.
b)
Set a low price to increase market share and sales volume.
c)
Set a survival price.
d)
Set a price to achieve high profit.
152.
The influence of demand on pricing decisions is reflected through:
a)
The relationship between demand and price.
b)
The price elasticity of demand.
c)
The quantity of products a customer buys in each purchase.
d)
The relationship between demand and price, and the price elasticity of demand.
153.
For high-quality, unique goods, what pricing objective should a business pursue?
a)
Survival
b)
Market share leadership
c)
Quality leadership
d)
Profit maximization
154.
When pricing takes into account the relationship between price and other marketing variables, which principle below must the business adhere to?
a)
Price corresponds to product quality.
b)
When production costs change, price may need to change.
c)
Price ensures maximum profit for the business.
d)
Price corresponds to product quality, and when production costs change, price may need to change
155.
Which of the following sequences represents the cost-based pricing approach?
a)
Product -> Value -> Price -> Cost -> Customer
b)
Product -> Cost -> Price -> Value -> Customer
c)
Cost -> Price -> Value -> Product -> Customer
d)
Customer -> Value -> Price -> Cost -> Product
156.
Which of the following sequences represents the value-based pricing approach?
a)
Product -> Value -> Price -> Cost -> Customer
b)
Product -> Cost -> Price -> Value -> Customer
c)
Cost -> Price -> Value -> Product -> Customer
d)
Customer -> Value -> Price -> Cost -> Product
157.
A bakery producing and selling bread has an annual fixed cost of 100 million VND. The annual production quantity is 100,000 loaves. With a target average profit on cost of 20%. How much will the bakery sell a loaf of bread for if the variable cost per loaf is 2,000 VND?
a)
2,500 VND
b)
3,000 VND
c)
3,600 VND
d)
4,200 VND
158.
When pricing based on value, what key factor should a business focus on?
a)
The cost incurred by the consumer.
b)
The perceived value of the product.
c)
The customer's bargaining psychology.
d)
The customer's purchasing power.
159.
The power company prices 1kWh differently for manufacturing businesses during peak and off-peak hours. This means the company is implementing which pricing strategy below?
a)
Two-part pricing strategy.
b)
Promotional pricing strategy.
c)
Bundle pricing strategy.
d)
Segmented/Discriminatory pricing strategy
160.
Hồ Tây Water Park increases its prices on Saturdays and Sundays based on which factor below?
a)
Service supply remains unchanged.
b)
Demand increases.
c)
Production costs increase.
d)
Service supply remains unchanged and demand increases.
161.
Which of the following is NOT a function of intermediaries in a distribution channel?
a)
Segmenting the market and selecting target markets for the manufacturer's product.
b)
Researching and gathering information about market demand for the manufacturer's product.
c)
Transporting, storing, and holding inventory of goods.
d)
Promoting the manufacturer's product.
162.
The cause of "Horizontal Conflict" in a distribution channel is:
a)
Disagreement over roles and objectives between the manufacturer and distribution intermediaries (wholesalers, retailers, etc.).
b)
Disagreement over roles and objectives between wholesalers and retailers.
c)
Disagreement over roles and objectives among channel members at the same distribution level.
d)
Disagreement between retailers and customers over pricing and service provision.
163.
The form where a manufacturer sends its own employees to sell products at consumers' homes is an example of:
a)
Direct channel
b)
One-level channel
c)
Two-level channel
d)
Three-level channel
164.
Below are statements reflecting the roles of commercial intermediaries in the distribution channel, EXCEPT:
a)
They make the exchange process easier and cheaper.
b)
They reduce the total number of transactions needed for exchange.
c)
They increase benefits of place and time for customers.
d)
They benefit consumers but always increase costs for the producer.
165.
"Vertical conflict" in a distribution channel is:
a)
Conflict between channel members at different levels of distribution within the channel.
b)
Disagreement over roles and objectives among channel members at the same distribution level.
c)
Disagreement over the division of distribution tasks among wholesalers themselves.
d)
Disagreement among retailers about setting different selling prices for end consumers.
166.
Which individuals/organizations below are NOT commercial intermediaries?
a)
Agents, brokers
b)
Transportation companies, warehouses
c)
Wholesalers; Retailers
d)
Distributors
167.
In a distribution channel organized as a contractual vertical marketing system (VMS), the channel leadership role depends on:
a)
One channel member owns the others.
b)
The most powerful member in the channel.
c)
The contract signed between channel members.
d)
The channel member is the manufacturer.
168.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a traditional/conventional distribution channel organization?
a)
Channel members understand each other well and operate for the goals of the entire channel system.
b)
There are many disagreements about roles and objectives among channel members within the channel.
c)
There is often no clear channel leadership role.
d)
The channel operates inefficiently and often experiences supply-demand imbalances.
169.
The advantage of a vertical marketing system (VMS) is:
a)
Meets the needs of the majority of consumers.
b)
Delivers products to the majority of consumers at the lowest distribution cost.
c)
Divides work and distributes it rationally among members, and manages conflicts between channel members.
d)
Lacks comprehensive leadership over the operations of channel members.
170.
Using a limited number of commercial intermediaries in the distribution channel, selected based on specific criteria, is:
a)
Intensive distribution
b)
Exclusive distribution
c)
Selective distribution
d)
Indirect distribution
171.
The number of intermediary levels present in a distribution channel is an expression of:
a)
The length of the distribution channel
b)
The width of the distribution channel
c)
The depth of the distribution channel
d)
The size of the distribution channel
172.
Conflict in the distribution channel:
a)
Always causes negative effects for channel members.
b)
Is only conflict between members at different distribution levels in the channel.
c)
Is due to disagreements over roles and objectives among channel members.
d)
Is only conflict between intermediaries at the same level in the distribution channel.
173.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a)
The more levels a channel has, the more difficult it is to control.
b)
Intensive distribution ensures a high level of market coverage.
c)
There is no conflict in a VMS (Vertical Marketing System) channel.
d)
A one-level channel is not a direct channel.
174.
A store that only sells spare parts for Honda SH and Piaggio LX motorcycles is a:
a)
Convenience store
b)
Department store
c)
Specialty store
d)
Luxury store
175.
Encouraging cooperation among channel members is part of which activity?
a)
Organizing the distribution channel
b)
Evaluating the distribution channel
c)
Managing the distribution channel
d)
Designing the distribution channel
176.
A birthday cake manufacturing company opens a product display counter to sell directly to customers. This company is using:
a)
A one-level channel
b)
A two-level channel
c)
A three-level channel
d)
A zero-level channel
177.
Because the market is relatively wide and sparse, the business must use a long channel. This is an example of which factor's influence on distribution channel design?
a)
Product
b)
Competitors
c)
Company characteristics
d)
Customer
178.
A dealer reports to the company that another dealer has been poaching their customers. This is a manifestation of:
a)
Channel conflict
b)
Vertical conflict
c)
Horizontal conflict
d)
Cross conflict
179.
In each geographic area, the business sells its products through only one distribution intermediary. What distribution method is this business implementing?
a)
Exclusive
b)
Intensive
c)
Selective
d)
Arbitrary (Not a standard term)
180.
A business distributes its hand sanitizer products only through pharmacy channels. What type of channel is this business using?
a)
One-level channel
b)
Two-level channel
c)
Three-level channel
d)
Zero-level channel
181.
How should Unilever's channel manager encourage its channel members?
a)
Need to find incentive tools that ensure increasingly strong cooperation from channel members to help the business achieve its distribution goals.
b)
Offer rewards and commission discounts as high as possible in all situations.
c)
Only need to build policies for paying for product displays at retail counters.
d)
Focus most on training the sales force for various channel levels.
182.
When evaluating the performance of channel members, Unilever's channel manager needs to determine:
a)
How the channel was designed and managed.
b)
The effectiveness level of the channel's operation.
c)
Understanding the operational effectiveness of the channel members.
d)
How the channel was designed and managed, how effectively it operates, and whether the members are operating effectively
183.
In the following cases, which one warrants choosing a long and wide distribution channel structure for the product?
a)
Products with large volume and weight.
b)
Products with a high degree of personalization.
c)
Low unit-value products purchased frequently.
d)
Novel/innovative products
184.
The steps in selecting channel members when building a distribution channel do NOT include:
a)
Searching for potential channel members.
b)
Evaluating the uniqueness of the channel member.
c)
Evaluating the suitability of potential channel members.
d)
Persuading potential channel members to join the distribution channel.
185.
Intermediaries that sell goods directly to final consumers are:
a)
Wholesalers
b)
Agents
c)
Retailers
d)
Distributors
186.
A business uses two or more different marketing channel structures simultaneously to reach one or several market segments. What type of channel system is the business using?
a)
Horizontal marketing system
b)
Multichannel distribution system
c)
Vertical marketing system (VMS)
d)
Corporate VMS
187.
Which of the following is NOT a basic element of the communication process?
a)
Feedback
b)
Encoding
c)
Word-of-mouth
d)
Message
188.
In which of the following situations is personal selling more effective than advertising?
a)
The target market is large and spread out.
b)
The business has many potential customers and wants low promotion costs.
c)
No need for flexibility in promotion.
d)
Immediate feedback is needed.
189.
Which of the following objectives is NOT one of the specific objectives of advertising?
a)
Regulating production
b)
Reminding
c)
Persuading
d)
Informing
190.
The process of turning ideas into symbolic forms is called:
a)
Encoding
b)
Decoding
c)
Feedback
d)
Noise
191.
Through which of the following groups of media can advertising be carried out?
a)
Trade shows and exhibitions
b)
Posters, flyers, and newspapers
c)
Customer conferences and contests
d)
Free samples and gifts
192.
Which of the following statements about the objectives of sales promotion is incorrect?
a)
Objectives should be as specific as possible.
b)
Objectives need to align with the nature of sales promotion.
c)
Objectives should originate from the overall marketing strategy.
d)
The objectives of sales promotion must be more specific than those of advertising.
193.
Which phrase below represents the ultimate goal of advertising?
a)
To create customer understanding of the product.
b)
To generate purchasing action from potential customers.
c)
To create customer response to marketing stimuli.
d)
To create customer goodwill.
194.
When deciding on the structure of a message, which of the following issues does a business NOT need to consider?
a)
Whether the message should draw a conclusion.
b)
Whether to present the strongest arguments at the beginning or only at the end.
c)
Whether to use one-sided or two-sided arguments.
d)
Whether the message should feature a celebrity.
195.
Which step below needs to be performed first when carrying out a communication activity?
a)
Defining communication objectives.
b)
Determining the budget for the communication activity.
c)
Selecting communication media.
d)
Identifying the target audience.
196.
Which of the following is NOT an objective of advertising?
a)
To inform customers.
b)
To persuade customers to buy.
c)
To remind customers.
d)
To create added benefits for customers
197.
Which of the following marketing communication tools is typically used to stimulate short-term purchases?
a)
Direct marketing
b)
Sales promotion
c)
Direct selling
d)
Public relations
198.
Which psychological state of a customer is the first indication that they may recognize a need to purchase a product?
a)
Awareness
b)
Knowledge
c)
Liking
d)
Conviction
199.
Which option below shows the correct order of a customer's buying readiness stages?
a)
Awareness, Knowledge, Liking, Preference, Conviction, Purchase.
b)
Awareness, Liking, Knowledge, Conviction, Preference, Purchase.
c)
Awareness, Liking, Conviction, Preference, Knowledge, Purchase.
d)
Awareness, Conviction, Preference, Liking, Knowledge, Purchase.
200.
The communication message needs to convey the product's benefits. That requirement belongs to which of the following issues?
a)
The content of the message.
b)
The structure of the message.
c)
The format of the message.
d)
The language of the message.
201.
The communication message needs to convey the ethical aspect of using the product. That requirement belongs to which of the following issues?
a)
The content of the message.
b)
The structure of the message.
c)
The format of the message.
d)
The language of the message.
202.
The communication message needs to convey the emotional state of a character to influence the viewers' emotions. That requirement belongs to which of the following issues?
a)
The content of the message.
b)
The structure of the message.
c)
The format of the message.
d)
The language of the message
203.
When a manufacturer uses advertising and sales promotion directed at end consumers to buy its goods, what strategy does this represent?
a)
Word-of-mouth
b)
Pull strategy
c)
Diversification
d)
Push strategy
204.
In the B2B (Business-to-Business) market, which communication tool below is typically used the most?
a)
Advertising
b)
Sales Promotion
c)
Personal Selling
d)
Personal Relations
205.
Company ABC has forecasted revenue of about 10 billion VND next year. They decided to allocate 20 million VND (2% of revenue) for communication activities. What method of setting the communication budget are they using?
a)
The affordable method
b)
The percentage-of-sales method
c)
The competitive-parity method
d)
The objective-and-task method
206.
There are many methods for determining a company's total communication budget. Which method below is generally considered the most appropriate for addressing the communication needs of a product in the introduction stage of its life cycle?
a)
Percentage of sales
b)
Objective and task
c)
Affordable
d)
Competitive parity
207.
"The expertise of the message sender significantly influences communication effectiveness. Therefore, it's necessary to choose a communicator who understands the product's uses and can influence others when they seek the product." This statement shows the business is concerned with which of the following issues?
a)
Selecting communication media.
b)
Selecting communication channels.
c)
Selecting the attributes of the message source.
d)
The objectives of communication.
208.
A consumer knowledge contest about a company is an example of which communication activity below?
a)
Personal Selling
b)
Advertising
c)
Sales Promotion
d)
Public Relations
209.
Introducing the superior features of a product through its packaging is considered as?
a)
Public Relations
b)
Personal Selling
c)
Direct Marketing
d)
Advertising
100 %
