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Worksheets

IB Chemistry SL

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 2hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When an aqueous solution of sulfuric acid is added to an aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide the temperature increases. Which describes the reaction taking place?

a)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH +

b)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH −

c)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH +

d)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH −

2.

When an aqueous solution of sulfuric acid is added to an aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide the temperature increases. Which describes the reaction taking place?

a)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH +

b)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH −

c)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH +

d)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH −

3.

Which is an appropriate unit for the rate of a reaction?

a)

mol dm-3 s

b)

mol dm-3 s-1

c)

mol dm-3

d)

s

4.

What is the best definition of rate of reaction?

a)

The time it takes to use up all the reactants

b)

The rate at which all the reactants are used up

c)

The increase in concentration of a product per unit time

d)

The time it takes for one of the reactants to be used up

5.

What is the pH of 1.0 x 10-4 mol dm-3 sulfuric acid?

a)

−4

b)

between 3 and 4

c)

4

d)

between 4 and 5

6.

The value of Kc for the reaction between hydrogen and bromine in the gas phase to produce hydrogen bromide is 4.0 x 10-2. What is the value of Kc for dissociation of gaseous hydrogen bromide into hydrogen and bromine?

a)

4.0 x 10-2

b)

2.0 x 10-2

c)

25

d)

400

7.

Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

a)

HNO3 / NO3−

b)

H2SO4 / HSO4−

c)

NH3 / NH2−

d)

H3O+ / OH−

8.

What is the IUPAC name for C(CH3)3CH2CH3?

a)

2-methyl-2-ethylpropane

b)

hexane

c)

2,2-dimethylbutane

d)

2-methylpentane

9.

The reaction between bromine and ethene in the dark is an example of:

a)

free radical substitution

b)

esterification

c)

nucleophilic substitution

d)

addition

10.

Which compound is an ester?

a)

CH3COOH

b)

CH3OCH3

c)

C2H5CHO

d)

HCOOCH3

11.

The mass spectrum of a compound shows peaks with m/z values of 88, 73, 59 and 43. Which compound could give this spectrum?

a)

HCOCH2CH2CH3

b)

CH3CH2COOCH2CH3

c)

CH(CH3)2COOH

d)

CH3CH2CH2COOH

12.

What are the products of the reaction between sulfuric acid and sodium hydrogen carbonate?

a)

NaSO4 + H2O + CO2

b)

Na2SO4 + CO2

c)

Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2

d)

NaSO4 + H2CO3

13.

10.0 cm3 of an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide of pH = 10 is mixed with 990.0 cm3 of distilled water. What is the pH of the resulting solution?

a)

8

b)

9

c)

11

d)

12

14.

Which statement is incorrect for a 0.10 mol dm–3 HCOOH solution?

a)

pH = 1

b)

[H+] << 0.10 mol dm–3

c)

[HCOO–] is approximately equal to [H+]

d)

HCOOH is partially ionized

15.

Which is an acid-base conjugate pair?

a)

H3O+ / OH–

b)

H2SO4 / SO42–

c)

CH3COOH / H3O+

d)

CH3NH3+ / CH3NH2

16.

Which is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

a)

HNO3and NO3-

b)

CH3COOH and CH3COO−

c)

H3O+ and OH-

d)

HSO4- and SO42-

17.

Which 0.10 mol dm−3 solution would have the highest conductivity?

a)

HCl

b)

NH3

c)

COOH

d)

H2CO3

18.

A solution of acid A has a pH of 1 and a solution of acid B has a pH of 2. Which statement must be correct?

a)

Acid A is stronger than acid B.

b)

[A]>[B]

c)

The concentration of H+ ions in A is higher than in B

d)

The concentration of H+ ions in B is twice the concentration of

H+ ions in A.

19.

What occurs when solid sodium hydrogen carbonate reacts with aqueous sulfuric acid?

a)

Bubbles of sulfur dioxide form.

b)

Bubbles of both hydrogen and carbon dioxide form.

c)

Bubbles of hydrogen form.

d)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide form.

20.

10.0 cm3 of a solution of a strong acid with a pH of 3 is added to a volumetric flask and the total volume is made up to 1.00 dm3 by adding distilled water. The resulting solution is then thoroughly mixed.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

21.

As the [H3O+] in a solution decreases, the [OH-]

a)

increases and the pH increases.

b)

increases and the pH decreases.

c)

decreases and the pH increases.

d)

decreases and the pH decreases.

22.

The value of pKw at 25°C is

a)

1.0 x10-14

b)

1.0 x 10-7

c)

7.00

d)

14.00

23.

A 0.010M acid solution has a pH of 2.00. The acid could be

a)

HNO3

b)

H2SO3

c)

HCOOH

d)

CH3COOH

24.

Which compound has the shortest C–N bond?

a)

CH3NH2

b)

(CH3)3CNH2

c)

CH3CN

d)

CH3CHNH

25.

Which of the following series shows increasing hydrogen bonding with water?

a)

Propane < propanal < propanol < propanoic acid

b)

Propane < propanol < propanal < propanoic acid

c)

Propanal < propane < propanoic acid < propanol

d)

Propanoic acid < propanol < propanal < propane

26.

Which statement is correct for this reaction?

Fe2O3 (s) + 3CO (g) → 2Fe (s) + 3CO2 (g) ΔH = −26.6 kJ

a)

13.3 kJ are released for every mole of Fe produced.

b)

26.6 kJ are absorbed for every mole of Fe produced.

c)

53.2 kJ are released for every mole of Fe produced.

d)

26.6 kJ are released for every mole of Fe produced.

27.

The enthalpy changes for two reactions are given.

Br2 (l) + F2 (g) → 2BrF (g) ΔH = x kJ

Br2 (l) + 3F2 (g) → 2BrF3 (g) ΔH = y kJ

What is the enthalpy change for the following reaction?

BrF (g) + F2 (g) → BrF3 (g)

a)

x – y

b)

–x + y

c)

1/2(–x + y)

d)

1/2(x – y)

28.

What will happen if the pressure is increased in the following reaction mixture at equilibrium?

CO2 (g) + H2O (l) H+ (aq) + HCO3− (aq)

a)

The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will decrease.

b)

The equilibrium will shift to the right and pH will increase.

c)

The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will increase.

d)

The equilibrium will shift to the left and pH will decrease.

29.

10.0 cm3 of an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide of pH = 10 is mixed with 990.0 cm3 of distilled water. What is the pH of the resulting solution?

a)

8

b)

9

c)

11

d)

12

30.

What is the value of x when 32.2 g of Na2SO4•xH2O are heated leaving 14.2 g of anhydrous Na2SO4? Mr(H2O) = 18; Mr(Na2SO4) = 142.

Na2SO4•xH2O (s) → Na2SO4 (s) + xH2O (g)

a)

0.1

b)

1

c)

5

d)

10

31.

Which statement is incorrect for a 0.10 mol dm–3 HCOOH solution?

a)

pH = 1

b)

[H+] << 0.10 mol dm–3

c)

[HCOO–] is approximately equal to [H+]

d)

HCOOH is partially ionized

32.

Which of the following is a redox reaction?

a)

3Mg (s) + 2AlCl3 (aq) → 2Al (s) + 3MgCl2 (aq)

b)

SiO2 (s) + 2NaOH (aq) → Na2SiO3 (aq) + H2O (l)

c)

KCl (aq) + AgNO3 (aq) → AgCl (s) + KNO3 (aq)

d)

2NaHCO3 (aq) → Na2CO3 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)

33.

What is the major product of the reaction between HCl and but-2-ene?

a)

1,2-dichlorobutane

b)

2,3-dichlorobutane

c)

1-chlorobutane

d)

2-chlorobutane

34.

Which compound can be oxidized when heated with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate(VI)?

a)

CH3C(O)CH2CH3

b)

CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3

c)

(CH3)3COH

d)

CH3(CH2)2COOH

35.

Which type of reaction occurs between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid?

a)

Addition

b)

Oxidation

c)

Esterification

d)

Polymerization

36.

How many structural isomers of C6H14 exist?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

37.

What information is provided by 1H NMR, MS and IR for an organic compound?

I. 1H NMR: chemical environment(s) of protons

II. MS: fragmentation pattern

III. IR: types of functional group

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

38.

How many grams of sodium azide, NaN3, are needed to produce 68.1 dm3 of N2 (g) at STP?

Molar volume at STP = 22.7 dm3 mol–1; Mr(NaN3) = 65.0

2NaN3 (s) → 3N2 (g) + 2Na (s)

a)

32.5

b)

65.0

c)

130.0

d)

195.0

39.

A student performs an acid-base titration using a pH meter, but forgets to calibrate it. Which type of error will occur and how will it affect the quality of the measurements?

a)

Random error and lower precision

b)

Systematic error and lower accuracy

c)

Systematic error and lower precision

d)

Random error and lower accuracy

40.

What is the sum of the coefficients when the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole numbers?

__C6H12O6 (aq) → __C2H5OH (aq) + __CO2 (g)

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

10

41.

Which is the electron configuration of a chromium atom in the ground state?

a)

[Ne]3s23p64s13d4

b)

[Ar]3d3

c)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4

d)

[Ar]4s13d5

42.

Which trends are correct across period 3 (from Na to Cl)?

I. Atomic radius decreases

II. Melting point increases

III. First ionization energy increases

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

43.

Which oxide dissolves in water to give a solution with a pH below 7?

a)

MgO

b)

Li2O

c)

CaO

d)

P4O10

44.

Which compound has the greatest percentage by mass of nitrogen atoms?

a)

N2H4

b)

NH3

c)

N2O4

d)

NaNO3

45.

In which order does the oxygen–oxygen bond enthalpy increase?

a)

H2O2 < O2 < O3

b)

H2O2 < O3 < O2

c)

O2 < O3 < H2O2

d)

O3 < H2O2 < O2

46.

Which statements about mixtures are correct?

I. The components may be elements or compounds.

II. All the compounds must be in the same phase.

III. The components retain their individual properties

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

47.

What is the order of decreasing reactivity of the metals (most reactive first)?

Zn(s) + Sn2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Sn(s)

Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) → No Reaction

Sn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Sn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

Ag(s) + Cu2+(aq) → No Reaction

a)

Zn > Cu > Sn > Ag

b)

Sn > Zn > Ag > Cu

c)

Ag > Cu > Zn > Sn

d)

Zn > Sn > Cu > Ag

48.

What is the oxidation half-equation in the redox reaction?

2S2O32–(aq) + I2(aq) → S4O62–(aq) + 2I–(aq)

a)

I2(aq) + 2e– → 2I–(aq)

b)

2I–(aq) → I2(aq) + 2e–

c)

2S2O32–(aq) → S4O62–(aq) + 2e–

d)

S4O62–(aq) + 2e– → 2S2O32–(aq)

49.

Which statements are correct for a voltaic cell?

I. A spontaneous redox chemical reaction produces electrical energy

II. Oxidation occurs at the cathode (negative electrode)

III. Electrons flow from anode (negative electrode) to cathode (positive electrode)

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

50.

What is the order of increasing boiling point?

a)

C4H10 < CH3COOH < CH3CH2CHO < CH3CH2CH2OH

b)

C4H10 < CH3CH2CHO < CH3CH2CH2OH < CH3COOH

c)

CH3COOH < CH3CH2CH2OH< CH3CH2CHO < C4H10

d)

C4H10 < CH3CH2CH2OH < CH3CH2CHO < CH3COOH

51.

Which molecule has a tertiary nitrogen?

a)

(CH3)2NH

b)

(C2H5)4N+I−

c)

C3H7N(CH3)2

d)

C6H5NH2

52.

What is the density, in gcm−3, of a 34.79 g sample with a volume of 12.5 cm3?

a)

0.359

b)

0.36

c)

2.783

d)

2.78

53.

What can be determined about a molecule from the number of signals in its 1HNMR spectrum?

a)

Bonds present

b)

Molecular formula

c)

Molecular mass

d)

Number of hydrogen environments

54.

5.0 cm3 of 2.00 moldm–3 sodium carbonate solution, Na2CO3(aq), was added to a volumetric flask and the volume was made up to 500 cm3 with water. What is the concentration, in moldm–3, of the solution?

a)

0.0050

b)

0.0040

c)

0.020

d)

0.010

55.

What is the Index of Hydrogen Deficiency (IHD) for 1,3,5-hexatriene (C6H8)?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

56.

In which set do all the species contain more electrons than neutrons?

a)

14N, 16O, 11C

b)

14N, 16O, 11C4–

c)

14N3–, 16O2–, 11C

d)

14N3–, 16O2–, 11C4+

57.

Which electron transition in the hydrogen atom emission spectrum emits radiation with the longest wavelength?

a)

n = 2 → n = 1

b)

n = 1 → n = 2

c)

n = 4 → n = 1

d)

n = 3 → n = 2

58.

The full electron configuration of an element is:

1s22s22p63s23p2

To which group and period does the element belong?

a)

Group 2, Period 3

b)

Group 3, Period 2

c)

Group 3, Period 4

d)

Group 14, Period 3

59.

Which oxide, when added to water, produces the solution with the highest pH?

a)

Na2O

b)

SO3

c)

MgO

d)

CO2

60.

What is the sum of the coefficients when the equation is balanced with whole numbers?

—C8H18(g) + —O2(g) → —CO(g) + —H2O(l)

a)

26.5

b)

30

c)

53

d)

61

61.

Which bonds cause the boiling point of water to be significantly greater than that of hydrogen sulfide?

a)

London (dispersion)

b)

Covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Hydrogen

62.

[CoCl6]3– is orange while [Co(NH3)6]3+ is yellow. Which statement is correct?

a)

[CoCl6]3– absorbs orange light.

b)

The oxidation state of cobalt is different in each complex.

c)

The different colours are due to the different charges on the complex.

d)

The different ligands cause different splitting in the 3d orbitals.

63.

What is the trend for atomic radius moving down the periodic table?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

64.

What is the reason for why electronegativity increases across a period on the periodic table?

a)

the inner electron shielding increases

b)

the inner electron shielding decreases

c)

the effective nuclear charge increases

d)

the effective nuclear charge decreases

65.

Why does ionization decrease from Be to B instead of increase like the rest of the period trend?

a)

a 2p sublevel is added on B

b)

electron-electron repulsion is taking place in the 2p sublevel

66.

Why does the ionization energy decrease between N and O instead of increase?

a)

a 2p sublevel is added on O

b)

electron-electron repulsion is taking place in the 2p sublevel of O

67.

Which element has a higher melting point?

a)

Cs

b)

Na

c)

Mg

d)

Al

68.

Which element is the most reactive?

a)

F

b)

Cl

c)

Br

d)

I

69.

The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the ________.

a)

ionization energy

b)

electronegativity

c)

electron affinity

d)

atomic radius

70.

The ability to attract an electron from another atom is known as _____.

a)

ionization energy

b)

electronegativity

c)

electron affinity

d)

atomic radius

71.

Which of the following as the largest atomic radius?

a)

O

b)

S

c)

Se

d)

Te

72.

Which of the following has the smallest electronegativity?

a)

As

b)

Ca

c)

Ti

d)

Rb

73.

Which of the following has the highest melting point?

a)

C

b)

N

c)

O

d)

F

74.

Which of the following is the most reactive?

a)

Li

b)

Na

c)

K

d)

Rb

75.

Which of the following has the largest atomic radius?

a)

Ca

b)

Ba

c)

Mg

d)

Be

76.

All of the following trends for group one elements decrease, except ______.

a)

melting point

b)

reactivity

c)

ionization energy

d)

electronegativity

77.

All of the following group 17 trends decrease, except _____.

a)

melting point

b)

reactiviity

c)

ionization energy

d)

electronegativity

78.
Which is the lightest sub-atomic particle?
a)
proton
b)
electron
c)
neutron
d)
nucleus
79.
What does A stand for in the shorthand notation for an atom or ion?
a)
mass number
b)
atomic number
c)
charge
80.
What does Z stand for in the shorthand notation for an atom or ion?
a)
mass number
b)
atomic number
c)
charge
81.
How many neutrons in Ti-48 (atomic number 22)?
a)
48
b)
22
c)
70
d)
26
82.
What property is different between two isotopes?
a)
chemical properties
b)
physical properties
c)
biological properties
83.
What causes deflection in the mass spectrometer?
a)
magnetic field
b)
electric field
84.
How are atoms ionised by the mass spectrometer?
a)
by being hit with high-speed electrons
b)
by having electrons added to them
c)
by exposing to an electric field
85.
What affects the deflection in a mass spectrometer?
a)
the mass and charge of the ion
b)
the mass of the ion only
c)
the charge of the ion only
d)
the velocity of the ion
86.
What are radioactive isotopes not used for?
a)
nuclear power generation
b)
tracers in medicine for treating and diagnosing illness
c)
carbon dating
d)
internal combustion engines
87.
What two factors govern whether a collision between reacting particles will be effective?
a)
orientation and potential energy 
b)
kinetic energy and temperature 
c)
kinetic energy and orientation 
d)
potential energy and kinetic energy 
88.
Under the collision theory, the particles must collide with  ____ and ____ for a reaction to occur.
a)
sufficient rate and sufficient energy
b)
sufficient surface area and correct orientation
c)
sufficient catalyst and sufficient energy
d)
sufficent energy and correct orientation
89.

More frequent collisions correspond to a:

a)

Faster reaction rate

b)

Slower reaction rate

c)

Constant reaction rate

d)

None of the above

90.
Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting reaction rate?
a)
temperature
b)
catalysts
c)
particle size
d)
polarity
91.

This type of cell converts energy from spontaneous, exothermic chemical processes to electrical energy.

a)

Voltaic

b)

Electrolytic

92.

In a voltaic cell,

a)

oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode.

b)

oxidation occurs at the cathode and reduction occurs at the anode.

93.

In a voltaic cell,

a)

the anode is the negative electrode and the cathode is the positive electrode.

b)

the anode is the positive electrode and the cathode is the negative electrode.

94.

At the anode in a voltaic cell,

a)

the electrode will lose mass

b)

the electrode will gain mass

c)

the mass of the electrode will not change

95.

At the cathode in a voltaic cell,

a)

the electrode will gain mass

b)

the electrode will lose mass

c)

the mass of the electrode will not change

96.

In general the more reactive a metal, the more ________ its electrode potential in its half-cell.

a)

positive

b)

negative

97.

In an electrolytic cell,

a)

the anode is the negative electrode and the cathode is the positive electrode.

b)

the anode is the positive electrode and the cathode is the negative electrode.

98.

This type of cell converts electrical energy to chemical energy by bringing about non-spontaneous processes.

a)

Voltaic

b)

Electrolytic

99.

In an electrolytic cell,

a)

oxidation occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode.

b)

oxidation occurs at the cathode and reduction occurs at the anode.

100.

At the anode in an electrolytic cell,

a)

negative ions lose electrons

b)

negative ions gain electrons

c)

positive ions gain electrons

d)

positive ions lose electrons

101.

At the cathode in an electrolytic cell,

a)

negative ions lose electrons

b)

negative ions gain electrons

c)

positive ions gain electrons

d)

positive ions lose electrons

102.

This type of cell converts chemical energy from a redox reaction into electrical energy.

a)

voltaic cell

b)

electrolytic cell

103.

This type of cell is used to break ionic compounds down into their component elements.

a)

voltaic cell

b)

electrolytic cell

104.

In which state(s) of matter do ionic compounds conduct electricity?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

aqueous

d)

gas

105.

All of the following statements are true about the electrolysis of a molten salt EXCEPT

a)

The current is carried through the electrolyte by mobile ions.

b)

Negative ions are oxidized at the anode.

c)

Positive ions are attracted to the cathode which carries a negative charge.

d)

The ions only move when an electric current flows.

106.

The unit which refers to the amount of substance (n) is

a)

the mole

b)

the gram

c)

the cubic centimeter

d)

the centimeter

107.

Masses of atoms are compared on a scale relative to

a)

carbon-12

b)

hydrogen-1

c)

carbon-14

d)

helium-4

108.

Molar mass has units of

a)

g mol-1

b)

g mol

c)

kg mol-1

d)

g cm-3

109.

The molecular formula of a compound gives the _______ of atoms present in a molecule.

a)

simplest ratio

b)

actual number

110.

The number of particles in one mole of a substance is

a)

6.02 x 1023

b)

the same as the substance's molar mass

c)

the same as the substance's atomic number

d)

12

111.

The number 6.02 x 1023 is called

a)

Avogadro's constant

b)

Mole constant

c)

Mass constant

d)

Ideal Gas constant

112.

To find the number of particles in a specific number of moles of a substance,

a)

# moles X Avogadro's constant

b)

# moles X molar mass

c)

# moles / Avogadro's constatn

d)

# moles / molar mass

113.

The weighted average of one atom of an element relative to 1/12 of an atom of carbon-12 is called

a)

relative atomic mass, Ar

b)

relative molar mass, Mr

c)

atomic mass

d)

molar mass

114.

To find the number of moles of a substance,

a)

mass / molar mass

b)

mass X molar mass

c)

molar mass / mass

d)

mass X Avogadro's constant

115.

Which of the structures below is an aldehyde?

a)
b)
c)
d)
116.

What product results from the reaction of CH2=CH2 with Br2?

a)

CHBrCHBr

b)

CH2CHBr

c)

CH3CH2Br

d)

CH2BrCH2Br

117.

What is the final product formed when CH3CH2OH is refluxed with acidified potassium dichromate(VI)?

a)

CH3CHO

b)

CH2=CH2

c)

CH3COOH

d)

HCOOCH3

118.

Which formulas represent butane or its isomer?

I. CH3(CH2)2CH3

II. CH3CH(CH3)CH3

III. (CH3)3CH

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

119.

Which statement about neighbouring members of all homologous series is correct?

a)

They have the same empirical formula.

b)

They differ by a CH2 group.

c)

They possess different functional groups.

d)

They differ in their degree of unsaturation.

120.

What is the IUPAC name for CH3CH2CH(CH3)2?

a)

1,1-dimethylpropane

b)

2-methylbutane

c)

isopentane

d)

ethyldimethylmethane

121.

How many structural isomers are possible with the molecular formula C6H14?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

122.

Which formula represents a tertiary alcohol?

a)
b)
c)
d)
123.

Which formula represents a tertiary alcohol?

a)
b)
c)
d)
124.

Which substance is not readily oxidized by acidified potassium dichromate(VI) solution?

a)

propan-1-ol

b)

propan-2-ol

c)

propanal

d)

propanone

125.

Propane, C3H8, undergoes incomplete combustion in a limited amount of air. Which products are most likely to be formed during this reaction?

a)

Carbon monoxide and water

b)

Carbon monoxide and hydrogen

c)

Carbon dioxide and hydrogen

d)

Carbon dioxide and water

126.

Which are characteristics typical of a free radical?

I. It has a lone pair of electrons.

II. It can be formed by the homolytic fission of a covalent bond.

III. It is uncharged.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

127.

The image shows a three-dimensional representation of an organic molecule. Which statement is correct?

a)

The correct IUPAC name of the molecule is 2-methylpentane.

b)

All the bond angles will be approximately 90°.

c)

One isomer of this molecule is pentane.

d)

The boiling point of this compound would be higher than that of pentane.

128.

Which statement is correct, based on the reactions show here?

a)

The reaction that produces A from B is a substitution reaction.

b)

Molecule C results from an addition reaction.

c)

Molecule B is a saturated hydrocarbon.

d)

An isomer of molecule A is 2,2-dimethylpropane.

129.

An organic compound X reacts with excess acidified potassium dichromate(VI) to form compound Y, which reacts with sodium carbonate to produce CO2(g).

What is a possible formula for compound X?

a)

CH3CH2COOH

b)

CH3CH2CH2OH

c)

CH3CH(OH)CH3

d)

(CH3)3COH

130.
The electron configuration of an atom is 1s22s22p6.  The number of electrons in the atom is 
a)
3
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
131.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
132.
What is the noble gas shorthand electron for Sulfur atom?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p4
133.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
134.
How many valence electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
135.
What is the electron configuration for this atom?
a)
1s22s22p6
b)
1s22s22p5
c)
1s22s22p3
d)
2s22p3
136.
What is the highest occupied energy level?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
137.
Valence electrons are: 
a)
Electrons farthest away from the nucleus
b)
Electrons closest to the nucleus
c)
Electrons that just come and go - they don't stay with the atom
138.

When an aqueous solution of sulfuric acid is added to an aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide the temperature increases. Which describes the reaction taking place?

a)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH +

b)

Exothermic, sign of ΔH −

c)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH +

d)

Endothermic, sign of ΔH −

139.

Which is an appropriate unit for the rate of a reaction?

a)

mol dm-3 s

b)

mol dm-3 s-1

c)

mol dm-3

d)

s

140.

The unit which refers to the amount of substance (n) is

a)

the mole

b)

the gram

c)

the cubic centimeter

d)

the centimeter

141.

Molar mass has units of

a)

g mol-1

b)

g mol

c)

kg mol-1

d)

g cm-3

142.

The empirical formula of a compound gives the _______ of atoms present in a molecule.

a)

simplest ratio

b)

actual number

143.

The molecular formula of a compound gives the _______ of atoms present in a molecule.

a)

simplest ratio

b)

actual number

144.

The number of particles in one mole of a substance is

a)

6.02 x 1023

b)

the same as the substance's molar mass

c)

the same as the substance's atomic number

d)

12

145.

The number 6.02 x 1023 is called

a)

Avogadro's constant

b)

Mole constant

c)

Mass constant

d)

Ideal Gas constant

146.

same number of protons, different number of neutrons

a)

atomic number

b)

mass number

c)

isotope

d)

ion

147.
Which of the letters (A-D) represents the potential energy of the reactants?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
148.
What kind of reaction is this?
a)
endothermic
b)
exothermic
149.
The Law of Conservation of Energy states energy cannot be gained or lost but only transformed.
a)
True
b)
False
150.
žDetermine the energy (in J) required to raise the temperature of 100.0 g of water from 20.0 C to 85.0 C? The specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g°C
a)
500 J
b)
4,182 J
c)
27,196 J
d)
27200 J
151.
Calculate ∆T if a system's water temperature decreases from 50 °C to 18 °C.
a)
50
b)
68
c)
-32
d)
32
152.
Consider the reaction: 2 H2O + energy --> 2H2 + O2
a)
exothermic, releasing energy
b)
exothermic, absorbing energy
c)
endothermic, absorbing energy
d)
endothermic, releasing energy
153.
When activation energy is high, is the reaction slow or fast?
a)
slow
b)
fast
154.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a)

The atomic radii of Period 3 elements decrease from sodium to chlorine.

b)

The hydroxides of Group II metals increase in solubility as the group is descended.

c)

In water, aluminium chloride is hydrolysed more than magnesium chloride.

d)

SiO2 has a higher melting point than P4O10 because of stronger London dispersion forces.

155.

Molecules with a permanent dipole include

1 NH3

2 PCl3

3 SCl2

4 SiCl4

a)

1, 2 and 3 only are correct.

b)

1 and 3 only are correct.

c)

2 and 4 only are correct.

d)

4 only is correct.

156.

The percentage by mass of the elements in a compound is

C=72%, H=12%, O=16%.


What is the mole ratio of C : H in the empirical formula of this compound?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

1:6

d)

6:1

157.

Based on electronegativity values, which bond is the most polar?

a)

B⎼C

b)

C⎼O

c)

N⎼O

d)

O⎼F

158.

Which of the quantities in the enthalpy level diagram below is (are) affected by the use of a catalyst?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

159.

What is the coefficient for H+ when the equation below is balanced?

⎽⎽ Pb(s)+ ⎽⎽ NO3−(aq) + ⎽⎽ H+(aq) →

⎽⎽ Pb2+(aq)+ ⎽⎽NO(g)+⎽⎽H2O(l)

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

160.

In which pair is the first species larger than the second?

a)

Cl and Cl−

b)

Na+ and Na

c)

Na and K

d)

Si and Cl

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